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WorksheetsFlight Dispatch Study Guide
Total questions: 142
Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins
A runway is wet when more than (a) percent of the runway surface area within the reported length and width being used is covered by an visible moisture or dampness, and the runway is not contaminated.
True or False: Dispatchers can provide holdover information to crews.
False
True
For takeoff, contamination will be referred to as (a) .
Operations are prohibited in all of the following except for
Moderate freezing rain FZRA
Thunderstorms with Heavy Rain +TSRA
Heavy snow pellets/small hail +GS
Moderate ice pellets PL mixed with any other form of precipitation
Unsatisfactory nose checks require a (a) check prior to takeoff.
Ice Pellets will operate on an (a) time.
The only non conservative observation of intensity that a pilot is allowed to make is that (a) is falling.
True or False: Holdover times commence at the end of the final application of anti-ice fluid.
True
False
Select all that apply. Rime icing is
Often develops horn like shapes that substantially disrupt the airflow over the wing
Most likely to form between -10 to -15c
Most common
brittle, opaque, and milky colored ice
True or False: Radar does not reliably see all icing.
True
False
Aircraft must be anti-iced with undiluted with Type IV fluid and a wing check accomplished within (a) minutes of take off.
Of the following reflectivity products, which display colors in reference to altitude, not signal strength?
Base Reflectivy
Echo Tops
Composite Reflectivity
Select all that apply. Clear ice is
Sometimes referred to as glaze ice
Tends to form in wedge shaped accretions
Relatively transparent or translucent
Generally expected between 2 to -10c
True or False: Smoke and ash from forest fires causes the same safety concern as volcanic ash.
True
False
A supercell is how many miles across?
5 to 10
10 to 15
15 to 25
25 to 50
Flights must not take off or continue below 1000ft AGL to a runway where ATC has issued a (a) Alert.
What is an alternative name for a dust storm?
Babadook
Baba Yaga
Baby Yoda
Haboob
A frontal steady state is how many miles across?
5 to 10
10 to 15
15 to 25
25 to 50
Severe windshear is a rapid change in wind _______ or _______ causing airspeed changes greater than 15kts or vertical speed changes greater than 500ft per minute.
(a)
An air mass is how many miles across?
5 to 10
10 to 15
15 to 25
25 to 50
Which of the following describes the lifting mechanism in which warm air rises in contact with a cold air mass?
Orographic
Cyclonic/Frontal
Convectional
Convergence
Which of the following describes the lifting mechanism in which moist air is lifted over mountain barriers?
Orographic
Convectional
Cyclonic
Convergence
Which of the following describes the lifting mechanism in which air flows together?
Convergence
Convectional
Orographic
Cyclonic
The _______ process is a temperature change caused by the expansion and contraction of an air parcel without exchanging heat with surrounding air.
Katabatic
Adiabatic
Chinook
Coriolis
True or False: Pilots may use a METAR RVR to control takeoff or final approach decisions.
True
False
________ is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated by the water vapor already present in the air.
Liquidation Point
Peak Saturation
Dew Point
Relative Humidity
Which of the following are cold winds that originate from cold upland areas with winds descending quickly down the mountain, potentially causing destruction?
Adiabatic
Katabatic
Foehn
Chinook
Cold Fronts have a steep slope, move (a) , narrow bands of rain and/or convection along and/or slightly behind.
If a flight encounters severe icing, an immediate ________ or ______ change required.
(a)
A (a) is an elongated area of high pressure.
High pressure centers circulate (a) .
Low pressure centers circulate (a) .
What is the standard temperature lapse rate?
(a)
Lines of equal pressure are called (a) .
A (a) is an elongated area of low pressure.
At mean seal level, ISA pressure is (a) mb (hPa).
At mean sea level, the ISA temperature is (a) C.
Select all that apply. Why are pilots and dispatchers concerned with the height of the tropopause?
The temperature and the wind vary greatly in the vicinity of the tropopause affecting the efficiency, comfort, and safety of flight.
The tropopause is the height at which convection is most likely to occur.
Maximum winds may be near the tropopause causing narrow zones of wind shear and turbulence.
The aircraft's performance capabilities decrease once the tropopause height is exceeded.
At more than __ ________ late if a flights location and status cannot be determined by the Dispatcher or ATC it is considered missing
(a)
A flight is considered overdue at __ _______ past ETD/ETA.
(a)
A flight is considered late when it is ___ _______ past the estimated time of departure (ETD) or estimated time of arrival (ETA).
(a)
True or False: Dispatchers are allowed to disable their workstation volume and/or unplug or turn off the speaker.
True
False
True or False: Release Validation and Release Verification are synonymous terms and are used interchangeably.
True
False
True or False: Exemption 5549 may be used in conjunction with Exemption 3585.
True
False
What is the maximum amount of passengers allowed on a NRFO (non-routine flight operations) flight without a flight attendant?
(a)
Make (a) contact via ACARS message or voice for any changes to the release that occur after the Release Verification check is completed by the pilots.
The Captain's electronic validation, or (a) , on the Dispatch Release certifies that all necessary information to safely operate the flight is available and concurrence that the flight can be operated safely.
Until acquiring (a) hours of experience in seat position of new type aircraft, scheduling and operating restrictions apply.
Which of the following describes the lifting mechanism in which unequal heating produces a rising of current of air?
Orographic
Convectional
Cyclonic
Convergence
Select All That Apply. If the conditional remarks in the forecast for the destination and / or first alternate airport are below minimums at the ETA, dispatch under the provisions of Exemption 3585 provided
The main body of the forecast for the destination must be at or above landing minimums.
The conditional remarks must be at least one half the lowest visibility weather minimums established for the approach expected to be used.
A second alternate is always required.
Thunderstorms are not reported or forecast, including PROB 30 or TEMPO, within one hour of estimated time of arrival.
A positive (+2) (a) value indicates an economic savings.
True or False: ACF may be reduced or eliminated with the mutual concurrence of the Captain and Dispatcher.
True
False
The fuel change request can be made in either time or pounds with (a) lb maximum.
Select All That Apply. Planned destination shall be the higher of:
No less than 45 minutes
Regulatory fuel + CF (CONTINGENCY FUEL) + ALTN (if required) + ACF (ANALYZED CONTINGENCY FUEL) + Extra
Regulatory fuel + CF (CONTINGENCY FUEL) + ALTN (if required)
No less than 60 minutes
True or False: In Canada, different runways include any runway with a different runway number, including reciprocals of the same runway.
True
False
True or False: Once airborne, all the usable fuel may be used at the Captain's discretion.
False
True
True or False: When using Exemption 8653 a flight may continue to operate, in the event monitoring systems become inoperative or airplane/airport capabilities change after the time of takeoff, provided the Captain and Dispatcher agree that current conditions would not degrade the safety of flight.
True
False
Which of the following is used to emphasize operating procedures, techniques, etc.?
Warning
Caution
Note
True or False: A Regular, Provisional, Emergency, or Alternate airport (for the aircraft type to be used) may be designated as an alternate airport in a Dispatch Release.
True
False
True or False: Exemption 8653 can be applied to destination airports outside of the 48 contiguous states.
True
False
When the weather forecasts for both the destination and first alternate airport are (a) (i.e. at the legal minimums to be listed on the dispatch release), at least one additional alternate airport must be designated.
Select All That Apply. The probability of diversion is considered low if the following factors are favorable:
Destination weather forecast for ETA is at or above 600 feet and 2 miles.
Low probability of thunderstorms (e.g., VCTS, PROB 30).
Suitable runway, approach, and wind conditions.
A Hub Diversion Alert has not been issued for the nearest hub or the surrounding airports.
True or False: Increased landing minimums for newly qualified Captains must be taken into consideration when determining the need for a takeoff alternate.
True
False
True or False: When S4 conditions are reached, flights operating north of 35° North will be advised of the condition and recommended to descend below FL310. This is an emergency condition, descent is required and other operational factors do not take precedence.
True
False
Advise the ______of any significant MEL restrictions and provide any options to mitigate their impact.
MDO
FODM
TOMC
OM
S4 or S5 solar radiation events require all domestic flights operating north of 35° North Latitude to be planned below FL (a) .
__________ will be used to determine sunrise/sunset or civil twilight as directed by the appropriate deferral.
Airport Database
Farmer's Almanac
Fusion Airport Details
14 CFR allows for the use of ______ when determining the application of night-time restrictions associated with an MEL/CDL deferral.
Sunrise/Sunset
Civil Twilight
Nautical Twilight
Astronomical Twilight
Generating a new release is the only method to update the CCO time. The new release is required if the flight is assigned a CDR within (a) minutes of the current CCO.
True or False: A dispatcher should utilize minimum time/max CI plans even if little to no improvement to the on-time performance is being realized.
False
True
True or False: Exemption 8653 may be used in conjunction with Exemption 3585.
True
False
A manually inputted cost index would be which of the following?
ECON
MINF
MINT
OPTD
USER
The _____ is responsible for coordinating the subsequent handling of the flight's ground support requirements.
MDO
OM
FODM
FOS
Which of the following is the optimized cost index considering delay costs (e.g., optimized CI to reduce block time)?
ECON
MINT
MINF
OPTD
USER
Which of the following is the least fuel burn profile (e.g., for max payload, normally CI 0)?
ECON
MINT
MINF
OPTD
USER
Which of the following is the least cost profile?
ECON
MINT
MINF
OPTD
USER
The status of a Priority Flight is indicated in the Notes and Amend field of DV. FPM plans these flights to operate at an A0 ____ minute threshold.
-0:05
-0:07
+0:05
+0:07
A destination alternate airport must be listed if the scheduled flight time is in excess of ____ hours.
Four
Five
Six
Eight
Which of the following is the least time profile (e.g., CI 999)?
ECON
MINT
MINF
OPTD
USER
Dispatchers must exercise operational control and dispatch active flights in each area they are qualified to dispatch a minimum of once every (a) days.
True or False: A LOFT observation is an accepted substitution for the annual route qualification, and may not be used for initial qualifications.
True
False
Which of the following is the lowest in the Order or Priority for dispatchers?
Airport 10-7 Pages
Dispatch Operations Manual Chapter 14
Dispatch Operations Manual Chapters 1-13
Flight Operations Manual
Dispatchers must advise the (a) if they are unable to manage the workload assigned to their desk due to irregular operations at the earliest opportunity.
True or False: The Operations Manager has the final authority to plan and operate United flights.
True
False
True or False: Dispatchers have the authority to delay or not operate any flight for safety or legality reasons.
False
True
Can you utilize Exemption 8653 if your ETA is 2027z?
KLIT 242101Z 2421/2518 13012G20KT 5SM -SHRA BR VCTS SCT025 BKN040CB
TEMPO 2421/2424 VRB20G35KT 2SM TSRA BR BKN015CB
FM250200 26012G20KT P6SM VCSH BKN020 OVC050
FM250600 27007KT P6SM BKN060 BKN250
TEMPO 2511/2515 BKN020
FM251500 32005KT P6SM SCT250
Yes
No
What are United's Core4?
(a)
Which of the following is used when operating procedures, techniques, etc., could result in damage to equipment, if not carefully followed?
Warning
Caution
Note
True or False: A High Minimums Captain may still conduct a CAT III approach utilizing Exemption 5549.
True
False
Which of the following is a Security Threat Level Three?
Disruptive, Suspicious, or Threatening Situation or Behavior
Physically Abusive Behavior
Life-Threatening Behavior
Attempted or Actual Breach of the Flight Deck
Which of the following is used when operating procedures, techniques, etc., could result in personal injury, or loss of life, if not carefully followed?
Warning
Caution
Note
Which of the following is lowest in the Order of Priority for pilots?
Ops Alerts
Pilot Bulletins
Aeronautical Charts
Dispatch Operations Manual
_____ indicates actions that are expected. If the “_____” expectation cannot be met, there must be a compelling reason.
(a)
____, ____, and _____ indicates a mandatory method of accomplishment.
(a)
Which of the following is highest in the Order of Priority for dispatchers?
Pilot Bulletin
Dispatch Bulletin
Flight Operations Manual
Dispatch Operations Manual
True or False: The "1-2-3" rule is used to determine if alternates are needed for destination airports in Canada?
True
False
Which of the following destinations apply to domestic dispatchers? Select All That Apply.
Alaska
Canada
Hawaii
Mexico
The NOC must be able to quickly determine the flight deck security status of all United flights. If there is a concern about the security or safety of a flight, Dispatch will send an ACARS message to the affected aircraft with the following text: _______ ___ ______.
(a)
Which of the following is a Security Threat Level Four?
Disruptive, Suspicious, or Threatening Situation or Behavior
Physically Abusive Behavior
Life-Threatening Behavior
Attempted or Actual Breach of the Flight Deck
Which of the following is organized by regions instead of chapters?
World Operations Manual
Dispatch Operations Manual
Flight Manuals
Dispatch Business Training Manual
True or False: In Canada, a one-time 45 minute extension is authorized if takeoff is imminent – in the reasonable opinion of the pilot in command that takeoff will occur no later than 3 hours and 45 minutes after the start of the LTD.
True
False
Which of the following is a Security Threat Level One?
Disruptive, Suspicious, or Threatening Situation or Behavior
Physically Abusive Behavior
Life-Threatening Behavior
Attempted or Actual Breach of the Flight Deck
Sterile flight deck applies to all ground operations with the parking brake released, and all operations below (a) feet MSL except cruise flight.
True or False: The availability of an onboard medical professional removes the requirement to contact Medlink and speak with the Medlink physician.
True
False
Taxi, takeoffs, and landings are prohibited if braking action is reported as (a) , or with a current FICON containing an RCAM RwyCC of _.
Before Maintenance can defer a dispatch item, they must coordinate with (a) to ensure a joint decision. If the aircraft cannot be safely operated with the existing conditions, the defect must be fixed.
To minimize the need to re-run the Flight Plan for a weight increase, a ____ pound weight tolerance above the planned takeoff weight has been established for all Flight Plan calculations, including FAR RSV, alternates, and ETOPS required fuel to help ensure these legalities are met.
1000
1500
2000
5000
Incorrect OOOI times should be reported to which of the following as soon as possible?
Operations Manager
Manager of Dispatch Operations
Flight Operations Duty Manager
Field Operations Support
Whenever a flight is scheduled to arrive at an unlighted airport less than thirty minutes before sunset the flight must have a (blank) alternate
(a)
United policy defines emergency fuel as ______ of fuel endurance remaining.
15 minutes
30 minutes
45 minutes
60 minutes
Proper formatting of the Dispatcher's name is required. The format, at a minimum, is ___________. The use of nicknames is not approved.
the initial of the first name followed by the full last name
the first, middle (if applicable), and last initial
the dispatcher's preferred name followed by the full last name
the full first name followed by the initial of the last name
What are CUS Words?
(a)
True or False: Weather requirements for enroute alternates (e.g., Engine Out Driftdown) are identical to those of destination alternates.
True
False
True or False: It is necessary to replace the TCB prior to the next flight, as it is not required equipment.
True
False
Which of the following is a Security Threat Level Two?
Disruptive, Suspicious, or Threatening Situation or Behavior
Physically Abusive Behavior
Life-Threatening Behavior
Attempted or Actual Breach of the Flight Deck
(a) indicates actions that are desirable, permissive, or not mandatory, and allow flexibility.
Which of the following allows the use of EWINS?
A010
A013
B045
C055
When the calculated fuel on landing at the nearest airport, where a safe landing can be made, will be less than the planned final reserve fuel, crews should report fuel remaining in which of the following?
Nautical Miles
Pounds
Minutes
Kilograms
Which of the following allows United Airlines to conduct extended overwater operations without required emergency equipment?
A013
B045
C055
C070
Which of the following is highest in the Order of Priority for pilots?
Sabre Notams
Flight Manuals
Flight Operations Manual
Dispatch Operations Manual
True or False: For the purpose of calculating alternate weather minimums, a GPS-based approach capability is considered a single approach facility even if there are two or more RNAV (GPS) approaches to different suitable runways.
False
True
The dispatch release may be in any form but must contain at least the following information concerning each flight:
When an engine anomaly occurs that does not require shutdown (e.g, vibration, temperature exceedance, overheat, loss of oil quantity), a diversion to the nearest suitable airport is not required but the Captain _____ notify Dispatch and TOMC as soon as possible to discuss the appropriate course of action.
Should
May
Must
Might
What is the farthest distance a takeoff alternate can be from the departure airport?
100nm
162nm
300nm
400nm
No person may dispatch or take off an airplane unless it has enough fuel to
(a)
In addition to regulatory requirements, alternates will be designated for the following issues
Whenever crosswind performance guidelines may prevent a safe landing at the destination
Whenever tailwind performance guidelines may prevent a safe landing at the destination
Whenever there is a thunderstorm forecasted near the estimated time of of arrival at the destination
Whenever a flight is scheduled to arrive at an unlighted airport less than thirty minutes before sunset
No person may dispatch or release an airplane unless it is
(a)
No person may allow a flight to continue to an airport to which it has been dispatched or released unless the weather conditions at an alternate airport that was specified in the dispatch or flight release are forecast to be
(a)
No person may start a flight unless a(n) (blank) specifically authorizes that flight.
(a)
Which of the following allows UA to conduct extended overwater operations using using a single long range communication system (LRCS)?
A010
A013
B045
C055
The pilot in command and an authorized aircraft dispatcher shall sign the release only if they both believe that the flight can be
(a)
No aircraft dispatcher may release a flight unless they are
fit for duty
sober
thoroughly familiar with reported and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown
familiar with the DDIS page
The aircraft dispatcher is responsible for
(a)
What OpSpecs are found in Category C?
General
Enroute
Arrival
Maintenance
Weight and Balance
What OpSpecs are found in Category E?
General
Enroute
Arrival
Maintenance
Weight and Balance
The pilot in command and the aircraft dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning, (a) , and dispatch release of a flight in compliance with this chapter and operations specifications.
What OpSpecs are found in Category D?
General
Enroute
Arrival
Maintenance
Weight and Balance
Which of the following allows us to derive alternate weather minimums?
A010
B045
C055
C070
What OpSpecs are found in Category B?
General
Enroute
Arrival
Maintenance
Weight and Balance
Which of the following lists the regular, refueling, and provisional airports United Airlines may conduct operations?
A013
C055
C070
D078
What OpSpecs are found in Category A?
General
Enroute
Arrival
Maintenance
Weight and Balance
True or False: A minimum fuel advisory does not imply a need for traffic priority.
True
False
