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WorksheetsPSTAR 10-14
Total questions: 58
Worksheet time: 29mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
01 An ATC instruction
a)
must be complied with when received by the pilot providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized.
b)
must be ‘read back' in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.
c)
is in effect advice provided by ATC and does not require acceptance or formal acknowledgement by the pilot concerned.
d)
is the same as an ATC clearance.
2.
02 An ATC clearance
a)
is the same as an ATC instruction.
b)
is advice provided by ATC and does not require acceptance or acknowledgement by the PIC.
c)
requires compliance when accepted by the PIC.
d)
must be complied with when received by the PIC.
3.
03 A pilot, after accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that all or part of the clearance cannot be complied with, should
a)
disregard the clearance.
b)
comply with only the part that is suitable.
c)
comply as best as possible under the circumstances to carry out the clearance and need not say anything to ATC.
d)
comply as best as possible under the circumstances and advise ATC as soon as possible.
4.
04 After accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that it cannot be complied with, a pilot should
a)
take any immediate action required and advise ATC as soon as possible.
b)
comply as best as possible under the circumstances and say nothing to ATC.
c)
disregard the clearance.
d)
comply with the suitable parts.
5.
05 An ATC clearance or instruction is predicated on known traffic only. Therefore, when a pilot is proceeding in accordance with a clearance or instruction
a)
ATC is relieved of the responsibility for traffic separation.
b)
the responsibility for traffic separation is divided between ATC and the pilot.
c)
the pilot is not relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance.
d)
the pilot is relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance.
6.
06 If all or part of an ATC clearance is unacceptable, a pilot should
a)
comply as best as possible under the circumstances.
b)
refuse the clearance without giving a reason for refusal.
c)
acknowledge the clearance and read back only the acceptable parts.
d)
refuse the clearance and inform ATC of their intentions.
7.
01 In an emergency requiring the use of an ELT, it should be turned on
a)
immediately and left on.
b)
at the ETA in the flight plan.
c)
for the first five minutes of each hour UTC.
d)
during daylight hours only to conserve the battery.
8.
02 An aircraft's 121.5 MHz ELT may be switched to transmit for test purposes anytime
a)
following a hard landing.
b)
during the first
c)
minutes of any hour UTC.
d)
following a component or battery change.
e)
prior to flight and listening on 121.5 MHz.
9.
03 Before shutting down you can verify that the aircraft's ELT is not transmitting by
a)
checking that the ELT switch is in the off position.
b)
listening on 121.5 MHz for a signal.
c)
ensuring that the master switch is off.
d)
checking the ELT visual warning light.
10.
04 All accidental ELT activations should be reported to the
a)
airport manager.
b)
R.C.M.P.
c)
Minister.
d)
nearest ATS unit.
11.
05 When an aircraft engine is left running on the ground and no person remains onboard, the aircraft's movement must be restricted and
a)
it must remain in sight of the pilot at all times.
b)
it must not be left unattended.
c)
its gross weight must be below 4,409 LB (2,000 kg).
d)
its control locks must be installed.
12.
06 When confronted with an approaching thunderstorm, a take-off or landing
a)
should be avoided as a sudden wind shift or low level turbulence could cause a loss of control.
b)
is safe if you can see under the thunderstorm through to the other side.
c)
should be avoided unless the take-off can be made away from the thunderstorm.
d)
is safe if the thunderstorm is regarded as light.
13.
07 An isolated thunderstorm is in close proximity to your aerodrome of intended landing. You should
a)
land giving due consideration to wind shear on final approach.
b)
hold over a known point clear of the thunderstorm until it is well past the aerodrome.
c)
land as quickly as possible.
d)
add one-half the wind gust factor to the recommended landing speed and land.
14.
08 The take-off thrust blast danger area includes at least that area extending back from the tail of a medium size jet transport aeroplane for
a)
1,200 feet.
b)
900 feet.
c)
500 feet.
d)
450 feet.
15.
09 The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a jumbo jet aeroplane for at least
a)
200 feet.
b)
450 feet.
c)
600 feet.
d)
750 feet.
16.
10 The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a medium size jet aeroplane for at least
a)
200 feet.
b)
450 feet.
c)
600 feet.
d)
750 feet.
17.
11 The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of an executive jet aeroplane for
a)
200 feet.
b)
450 feet.
c)
600 feet.
d)
750 feet.
18.
12 A 45 kt blast area can be expected ..... behind the propellers of a large turbo-prop aeroplane during taxi.
a)
60 feet.
b)
80 feet.
c)
100 feet.
d)
120 feet.
19.
13 ATC advises that simultaneous operations are in progress at an airport. Pilots could expect a clearance to
a)
take-off over top of an aircraft on an intersecting runway.
b)
take-off on a specified parallel runway.
c)
land and hold short of an intersecting runway.
d)
land on a specified parallel runway.
20.
14 When issued a clearance to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, pilots
a)
shall comply regardless of the circumstances.
b)
may taxi across the intersection after the departing or arriving aircraft has cleared their path.
c)
who inadvertently go through the intersection should immediately do a 180° turn and backtrack to the hold position.
d)
should immediately inform ATC if they are unable to comply.
21.
01 ADIZ rules normally apply
a)
only to aircraft flying above 12,500 feet.
b)
only to aircraft flying at true airspeeds of 180 kt or more.
c)
only to all southbound aircraft.
d)
to all aircraft.
22.
02 When operating in accordance with VFR, aircraft shall be flown
a)
clear of aerodrome traffic zones.
b)
clear of control zones.
c)
with visual reference to the surface.
d)
in compliance with all of the above.
23.
03 Normally, a helicopter in uncontrolled airspace at less than 1,000 feet AGL may operate during the day in flight visibility which is not less than
a)
½ mile.
b)
1 mile.
c)
2 miles.
d)
3 miles.
24.
04 What distance from cloud shall an aircraft maintain when flying below 1,000 feet AGL within uncontrolled airspace?
a)
At least 2,000 ft horizontally and 500 ft vertically.
b)
At least 1 mile horizontally and 500 ft vertically.
c)
At least 2 miles horizontally and 500 ft vertically.
d)
Clear of cloud.
25.
05 No person shall drop anything from an aircraft in flight
a)
which will create a hazard to persons or property.
b)
unless approval has been granted by the Minister.
c)
unless over an authorized jettison area.
d)
unless it is attached to a parachute.
26.
06 A person may conduct aerobatic manoeuvres in an aircraft
a)
over an airport provided the appropriate frequency is monitored.
b)
over the suburban area of a city above 2,000 feet AGL.
c)
within Class F advisory airspace when visibility is 3 miles or greater.
d)
within Class C airspace when the visibility is 1 mile or greater.
27.
07 CARs state that after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, no person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft within
a)
12 hours.
b)
24hours.
c)
36 hours.
d)
48 hours.
28.
08 ‘Day' in Canada is that period of time between
a)
sunrise and sunset.
b)
one hour before sunrise and one hour after sunset.
c)
the beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.
d)
the end of morning civil twilight and the beginning of evening civil twilight.
29.
09 ‘Night' in Canada is that period of time between
a)
sunset and sunrise.
b)
the beginning of evening civil twilight and the end of morning civil twilight.
c)
one hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise.
d)
the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
30.
10 Formation flying is permitted only if such flights
a)
have been pre-arranged by the pilots-in-command.
b)
are conducted above 3,000 feet AGL.
c)
are conducted by commercial pilots.
d)
are led by a pilot whose licence is endorsed for formation flight.
31.
11 Flight through active Class F airspace with the designator CYR
a)
may be undertaken only by aircraft equipped with two-way radio communication and a transponder.
b)
is restricted to military aircraft operating under the authority of the Minister of National Defence.
c)
will be approved only for aircraft on IFR flight plans under positive radar control.
d)
is permitted only in accordance with permission issued by the user agency.
32.
12 Which statement is correct with regard to "advisory airspace"?
a)
A transient aircraft entering active advisory airspace shall be equipped with a serviceable transponder.
b)
Non-participating VFR aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace during active periods specified on aeronautical charts and NOTAM.
c)
Aircraft need to be equipped with a two-way radio to enter active advisory airspace.
d)
Only military aircraft may enter advisory airspace depicted on aeronautical charts.
33.
13 Except as provided by CARs, unless taking off, landing or attempting to land, no person shall fly a helicopter over a built-up area or open air assembly of persons except at an altitude that will permit, in the event of an emergency, the landing of the aircraft without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface, and such altitude shall not be less than ..... above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of ..... from the aircraft.
a)
3,000 ft, 1 mile.
b)
2,000 ft, 1,000 ft.
c)
1,000 ft, 500 ft.
d)
500 ft, 500 ft.
34.
14 Over non-populous areas or over open water, a pilot must maintain a minimum distance of ..... feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
a)
200
b)
500
c)
1,000
d)
2,000
35.
15 Except for balloons and as provided by CARs, no person shall cause any aircraft to take off or attempt to take off from, land on or attempt to land on, any surface within the built-up area of any city or town unless
a)
the aircraft is multi-engined.
b)
all obstacles on approach and departure can be cleared by a minimum of 500 ft.
c)
that surface is an airport or military aerodrome.
d)
noise abatement procedures are followed.
36.
16 What is the height AGL above which an aircraft in VFR flight shall be operated to conform with the Cruising Altitudes Order?
a)
700 feet.
b)
2,200 feet.
c)
3,000 feet.
d)
3,500 feet.
37.
17 An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above 3,000 feet AGL on a track of 290°M shall be flown at an
a)
even thousand foot altitude.
b)
even thousand plus 500 foot altitude.
c)
odd thousand foot altitude.
d)
odd thousand plus 500 foot altitude.
38.
18 The selection of a cruising altitude in the southern domestic airspace should be based on the
a)
true track.
b)
magnetic track.
c)
true heading.
d)
magnetic heading.
39.
19 Every person who is the holder of any pilot licence or permit shall, on demand, produce such licence or permit for inspection by persons authorized by the Minister, by peace officers and
a)
FSS operators.
b)
Transport Canada airport managers.
c)
immigration officers.
d)
all of the above.
40.
20 Low Level Airspace is defined as, all airspace
a)
extending upwards from 2,200 feet AGL within designated airways.
b)
extending upwards from 1000 feet AGL within designated airways.
c)
extending upwards from the surface of the earth within designated airways.
d)
within the Canadian Domestic Airspace below 18,000 feet ASL.
41.
21 A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from
a)
2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.
b)
700 feet above the surface of the earth.
c)
the surface of the earth to 3,000 feet.
d)
a specified height above the surface of the earth.
42.
01 ‘Controlled Airspace' means all airspace of defined dimensions within which
a)
Control Zone regulations are in force.
b)
security regulations are in force.
c)
Special VFR flight only is permitted.
d)
an ATC service is provided.
43.
02 When in VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least
a)
500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
b)
500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally.
c)
1,000 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
d)
1,000 feet vertically and 3 miles horizontally.
44.
03 The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight within a low level airway is
a)
1 mile.
b)
1½ miles.
c)
2 miles.
d)
3 miles.
45.
04 When in VFR flight within a Control Zone, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least
a)
500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally.
b)
500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
c)
1,000 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
d)
1,000 feet vertically and 3 miles horizontally.
46.
05 VFR cross-country pilots wishing to cross through any part of a Class C Control Zone should
a)
advise the associated FSS.
b)
monitor the Approach Control frequency.
c)
advise ATC of their intentions and obtain a clearance.
d)
conform with circuit direction at that airport.
47.
06 ATC may authorize an aircraft equipped with a functioning two-way radio to transit a Control Zone under day SVFR provided the flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility, are each not less than
a)
½ mile.
b)
1 mile.
c)
2 miles.
d)
3 miles.
48.
07 ATC may authorize a helicopter equipped with a functioning two-way radio to transit a Control Zone under day SVFR where the flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility are each not less than
a)
1 mile and operated at not less than 500 feet AGL.
b)
½ mile.
c)
1 mile.
d)
½ mile and operated at not less than 500 feet AGL.
49.
08 An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within
a)
a Control Zone.
b)
an Aerodrome Traffic Zone.
c)
a Terminal Control Area.
d)
an airway.
50.
09 An arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with the control tower
a)
upon entering an Aerodrome Traffic Zone.
b)
prior to entering a Control Zone.
c)
immediately prior to joining the circuit.
d)
immediately after entering a Control Zone.
51.
10 VFR flight within Class B airspace is permitted
a)
only when the flight visibility is
b)
miles or better.
c)
for all aircraft except gliders and balloons.
d)
if the pilot holds a Class B Airspace Endorsement.
e)
in accordance with an ATC clearance.
52.
11 The pilot of an arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with a control tower in Class C airspace
a)
immediately after entering the Control Zone.
b)
10 NM outside the Control Zone.
c)
prior to entering the Control Zone.
d)
immediately prior to joining the circuit.
53.
12 Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot on a VFR flight operating within a Class C terminal control area must
a)
exit the airspace whenever the weather deteriorates below VFR limits.
b)
establish radio contact with the appropriate ATC unit only when transiting the associated control zone.
c)
establish and maintain radio communication with the appropriate ATC Unit.
d)
contact radar service only when taking off or landing at the major airport concerned.
54.
01 The primary objective of an aviation safety investigation into an aircraft accident or aircraft incident is to
a)
apportion blame and liability.
b)
determine the adequacy of insurance regulations
c)
enforce regulations.
d)
prevent recurrences.
55.
02 Details on civil aviation accident reporting procedures can be found in the
a)
TC AIM
b)
Canadian Aviation Regulations.
c)
Canada Flight Supplement.
d)
Aviation Safety Manual.
56.
03 When an aircraft accident occurs, the pilot or operator of the aircraft involved shall ensure that the particulars of the accident are reported to the TSB
a)
within 7 days by registered mail.
b)
within 24 hours by telephone.
c)
within 48 hours by facsimile.
d)
as soon as possible and by the quickest means available.
57.
04 The TSB shall be notified of a reportable aviation accident when
a)
a person sustains serious or fatal injury as a result of being in or coming into direct contact with any part of an aircraft.
b)
an aircraft sustains damage or structural failure adversely affecting performance or flight characteristics and requiring major repair or replacement.
c)
an aircraft is missing or completely inaccessible.
d)
any of the above conditions exist.
58.
05 The TSB considers missing aircraft to be
a)
a reportable aviation incident.
b)
an occurrence which need not be reported.
c)
an aviation incident which need not be reported.
d)
a reportable aviation accident.
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