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Worksheets

IMSLAB

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Equal amount of antigen and antibodies

a)

Concentration of the reactants

b)

Temperature

c)

Length of incubation

d)

pH of the test system

2.

Optimal temperature: 40-45°C

Above 60°C = proteins will start to deature

a)

Concentration of the reactants

b)

Temperature

c)

Length of incubation

d)

pH of the test system

3.

Agglutination - within minutes

Precipitation - Hours to days

a)

Concentration of the reactants

b)

Temperature

c)

Length of incubation

d)

pH of the test system

4.

- Initial binding of a single antibody to a single antigen

- tests are difficult, complex and expensive

a)

Primary Phenomenon

b)

Secondary Phenomenon

c)

Tertiary Phenomenon

d)

Quarternary Phenomenon

5.

- basic antigen/ antibody reactions are taken a further step, forming cross links or lattice formation to create large molecules that are easily detectable

a)

Primary Phenomenon

b)

Secondary Phenomenon

c)

Tertiary Phenomenon

d)

Quarternary Phenomenon

6.

The initial force of attraction that an antibody for a specific antigenic epitope or determinant

a)

Affinity

b)

Avidity

c)

Precipitation

7.

The sum of all attractive forces between an antigen and an antibody

a)

Affinity

b)

Avidity

c)

Precipitation

8.

involves combination of soluble antibody with soluble antigen to produce insoluble complexes

a)

Affinity

b)

Avidity

c)

Precipitation

9.

- Zone of excess of antibodies

- Instead of forming cross- link, the antibody coat the antigen vecause of little amount of antigen

a)

Prozone

b)

Zone of equivalence

c)

Postzone

10.

- Zone of excess of antigen

- Instead of forming cross- link, they occupy the paratope

a)

Prozone

b)

Zone of equivalence

c)

Postzone

11.

= A soluble antigen + antibody will create insoluble complexes

= more complexes are present = more turbid

a)

Turbidimetry

b)

Nephelometry

c)

Immunodiffusion

d)

Optical methods

12.

= measures the turbidimetry or cloudiness of a solution by detection of light refracted by the sample

= soluble antigen + antibody = insoluble complexes

a)

Turbidimetry

b)

Nephelometry

c)

Immunodiffusion

d)

Optical methods

13.

= precipitation techniques that use gel instead of a liquid as the medium

= Aragose gel usually used

a)

Turbidimetry

b)

Nephelometry

c)

Immunodiffusion

d)

Optical methods

14.

= simplest immunodiffusion test

= oudin method

= If the antibody present reacts with the added antigen a precipitin band will form in the gel

a)

Single Diffusion, Single Dimension

b)

Single Diffusion, Double Dimension

c)

Double Diffusion, Single Dimension

d)

Double Diffusion, Double dimension

15.

= Fahey (kinetic method) and Mancini (end point method)

= Radial immunodiffusion method

= Used for quantitation of antigen

a)

Single Diffusion, Single Dimension

b)

Single Diffusion, Double Dimension

c)

Double Diffusion, Single Dimension

d)

Double Diffusion, Double dimension

16.

= Oakley and Fulthrope

= calther immunoelectrophoresis test

= Antibody is incorporated in a gel, above which a column of plain agar. The antigen is then layered on top of the agar medium.

If the antibody present reacts with the added antigen a precipitin band will form in the gel.

a)

Single Diffusion, Single Dimension

b)

Single Diffusion, Double Dimension

c)

Double Diffusion, Single Dimension

d)

Double Diffusion, Double dimension

17.

= Ouchterlony technique

= Holes are cut in the agar. One central hole will be made to be surrounded by other wells. Antibody is then added to the central well, antigens are added to the outer wells, the position of the bands formed between the antigen allows for comparison of the antigens to each other.

a)

Single Diffusion, Single Dimension

b)

Single Diffusion, Double Dimension

c)

Double Diffusion, Single Dimension

d)

Double Diffusion, Double dimension

18.

=  if the bands form an arc

 = Fusion of lines at their junction to form an arc(presence of common epitopes)

a)

Identity

b)

Partial Identity

c)

Non - Identity

19.

= if the bands fuse but there is a presence of spur.

=  Fusion of 2 lines partially (Precipitin lines do not form a complete cross)

a)

Identity

b)

Partial Identity

c)

Non - Identity

20.

= formation of pattern of lines which cross each other.

 = It demonstrate 2 separate reactions. (antigen shared no common epitopes)

a)

Identity

b)

Partial Identity

c)

Non - Identity

21.

= Laurell technique 

= One – dimensional electroimmunodiffusion, it is an adaptation of radial immunodiffusion (RID)

a)

Rocket electroimmunodiffusion

b)

Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)

c)

Countercurrent imunoelectrophoresis

d)

Immunofixation (IFE)

22.

= A two – step double – diffusion technique which first involves the electrophoretic separation of proteins.

= Enhances the semiquantitation of antigens

a)

Rocket electroimmunodiffusion

b)

Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)

c)

Countercurrent imunoelectrophoresis

d)

Immunofixation (IFE)

23.

= Double diffusion technique with the addition of electrophoresis to speed up the formation of a visible reaction

= Wells are made on each side of the gel and subjected to electrical field

a)

Rocket electroimmunodiffusion

b)

Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)

c)

Countercurrent imunoelectrophoresis

d)

Immunofixation (IFE)

24.

= Similar to IEP except that after electrophoresis is performed the antiserum is applied directly to the surface of the gel 

= The best adaptation of this test is the Western Blot test - Current confirmatory method for HIV

a)

Rocket electroimmunodiffusion

b)

Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)

c)

Countercurrent imunoelectrophoresis

d)

Immunofixation (IFE)

25.

- Agglutination of an antigen found naturally on a particle

a)

Direct Agglutination

b)

Passive Agglutination

c)

Reverse Passive Agglutination

d)

Agglutination Inhibition

e)

Coagglutination

26.

- AKA Indirect Agglutination

- Uses carrier particles (latex, sheat RBC, charcoal) 

- Passive agglutination routinely used for detecting antibodies to viruses such as cytomegalovirus (CMV), rubella and varicella - zoster 

a)

Direct Agglutination

b)

Passive Agglutination

c)

Reverse Passive Agglutination

d)

Agglutination Inhibition

e)

Coagglutination

27.

- Antibody is attached to carrier particle instead of the antigen

- Often use for detection of microbial antigens such as: Group A and B Streptococcus, Staphylococcus aureus, Neisseria Meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Cryptococcus neoformans, Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Candida albicans

a)

Direct Agglutination

b)

Passive Agglutination

c)

Reverse Passive Agglutination

d)

Agglutination Inhibition

e)

Coagglutination

28.

- Based on competition between particulate and soluble antigens for limited antibody combining sites.

- Reactive samples will not produce a visible result.

a)

Direct Agglutination

b)

Passive Agglutination

c)

Reverse Passive Agglutination

d)

Agglutination Inhibition

e)

Coagglutination

29.

-  A type of agglutination wherein bacteria is used as a carrier.

- Used to identity Streptococci, Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhea and Haemophilus influenzae

- Staph auerus is comonly used carrier

a)

Direct Agglutination

b)

Passive Agglutination

c)

Reverse Passive Agglutination

d)

Agglutination Inhibition

e)

Coagglutination

30.

Study of fluid components in the blood, especially antibodies

a)

Serology

b)

Serum

c)

Dilution

d)

Pipettes

31.

-Liquid portion of blood minus coagulation factors

- Most frequently encountered specimen in immunologic testing

a)

Serology

b)

Serum

c)

Dilution

d)

Pipettes

32.

- relationship between the two is expressed as ratio or fraction

a)

Serology

b)

Serum

c)

Dilution

d)

Pipettes

33.

- proportion of people who have a disease or condition and who have a positive test

- indicates how small an amount can be measured and still produce a positive test result

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

c)

Positive Predictive Value

d)

Negative Predictive Value

34.

- proportion of people who do not have a disease or condition who have a negative test

- measures the substance that it is designed to measure, not interfering substances

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

c)

Positive Predictive Value

d)

Negative Predictive Value

35.

- the probability that a person with a positive screening test actually has the disease

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

c)

Positive Predictive Value

d)

Negative Predictive Value

36.

- the probability that a person with a negative screening test does not have the disease

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Specificity

c)

Positive Predictive Value

d)

Negative Predictive Value

37.

- reactants are mixed together simultaneously

- the labeled antigen competes with unlabeled patient antigen for a limited number of antibody - biding sites

a)

Competitive Immunoassays

b)

Non Competitive Immunoassays

38.

- should high affinity

- very specific for the antigen involve

- usually use monoclonal antibodies

a)

Antibodies

b)

Standards or calibrators

c)

separation methods

d)

detection of the label

e)

quality control

39.

- made up of known conc. of substance to be measured

- unlabeled analytes

a)

Antibodies

b)

Standards or calibrators

c)

separation methods

d)

detection of the label

e)

quality control

40.

- includes a solid-phase vehicle for separation

- specific binding takes place complexes are formed and remain attached to the solid phase

a)

Antibodies

b)

Standards or calibrators

c)

separation methods

d)

detection of the label

e)

quality control

41.

- Last step common to all immunoassays

a)

Antibodies

b)

Standards or calibrators

c)

separation methods

d)

detection of the label

e)

quality control

42.

- Limit random errors

a)

Antibodies

b)

Standards or calibrators

c)

separation methods

d)

detection of the label

e)

quality control

43.

scintillation counter

a)

Radioimmunoassay

b)

Enzymeimmunoassay

c)

Rapid immunoassay

d)

Fluorescent immunoassays

e)

Fluorescent polarization immunoassay

44.

are membrane-based, single - use and disposable assays

- involved antigen or antibody coupled to the membrane

a)

Radioimmunoassay

b)

Enzymeimmunoassay

c)

Rapid immunoassay

d)

Fluorescent immunoassays

e)

Fluorescent polarization immunoassay

45.

- use enzymes as labels, which react with suitable substrates to produce breakdown products may may be chromogenic, fluorogenic or luminescent

a)

Radioimmunoassay

b)

Enzymeimmunoassay

c)

Rapid immunoassay

d)

Fluorescent immunoassays

e)

Fluorescent polarization immunoassay

46.

- used to determine the concentrations of therapeutic drugs and hormones

a)

Radioimmunoassay

b)

Enzymeimmunoassay

c)

Rapid immunoassay

d)

Chemiluminescent immunoassays

e)

Fluorescent polarization immunoassay

47.

- employed to the follow antigen 0 antibody combination

- can be used for heterogenous and homogenous assays because labels can be attached to either antigen or antibody

a)

Radioimmunoassay

b)

Enzymeimmunoassay

c)

Rapid immunoassay

d)

Chemiluminescent immunoassays

e)

Fluorescent polarization immunoassay