Free Printable Academic Team Practice 3-27

1.

An earthquake is –

a)

crust through which lava escapes

b)

a sudden movement in the earth's crust

c)

a kind of chemical weathering that changes the earth

d)

a huge wave that washes over the earth

2.

What do atoms contain?

a)

elements, neutrons, and bonds

b)

protons, neutrons, and electrons

c)

protons, molecules, and elements

d)

electrons, protons, and bonds

3.

Earth would not have seasons if—

a)

it did not rotate

b)

it was slightly closer to the sun

c)

it was no tilted on its axis

d)

it had more than one moon

4.

Which of these is the best measure of how much space an object or substance takes up?

a)

mass

b)

length

c)

volume

d)

density

5.

A food web is a more realistic model of the flow of energy through an ecosystem than a food chain because -

a)

most organisms depend on more than one species for food

b)

each organism in a food chain represents multiple feedings

c)

most organisms depend on just one species for food

d)

each organism in a food web represents a single feeding

6.

Why are coal, oil, and natural gas considered nonrenewable resources?

a)

There is a limited supply, and they can be replaced in a short period of time.

b)

There is not a limited supply, and they cannot be replenished in a short period of time.

c)

There is a limited supply, and they cannot be replenished in a short period of time.

d)

There is not a limited supply, and they can be replaced in a short period of time.

7.

After observing an outdoor ecosystem, a student writes this conclusion in a science notebook.
Is the student's conclusion logical?

a)

Yes, because ecosystems are made of living things that interact.

b)

No, because ecosystems are made of biotic and abiotic components that interact.

c)

Yes, because ecosystem is another name for habitat.

d)

No, because an ecosystem has nothing to do with biotic components.

8.

what is a hypothesis?

a)

an educated guess

b)

a theory
a theory

c)

hot dog

9.

Conductor or insulator? Plastic toy car

a)

Conductor

b)

Insulator

10.

What has the greatest potential energy?

a)

a rock on the ground

b)

a rock twenty feet off the ground

c)

a rock falling

d)

a rock being tossed

11.

What's a herbivore

a)

Eats meat

b)

Eats plants

c)

eats meat and plants

d)

decomposes

12.

What kinetic energy?

a)

Energy of Motion

b)

Potential Energy

c)

Food Energy

13.

The beads on this glass are caused by -

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

precipitation

d)

sweaty hands

14.

1.When the sugar and water in the beaker are combined, they will create a solution because -

a)

the water will now turn into a gas

b)

the sugar will dissolve into the water

c)

. the water will dissolve into the sugar

d)

the two substances are chemically combining and chemically changing their properties

15.

Which correctly defines legend?

a)

A Greek or Roman myth

b)

A story with animal characters

c)

A widely told story about the past with exaggerated details

d)

A story with magic that ends happily

16.

"A character who triumphs due to special abilities or powers" is the definition for--

a)

hero figure

b)

anthropomorphism

c)

protagonist

d)

dystopia

17.

"An imaginary place where people lead dehumanized or fearful lives" is the definition for--

a)

dynamic

b)

utopia

c)

anthropomorphism

d)

dystopia

18.

"A respected teacher and friend" is the definition for--

a)

protagonist

b)

hero figure

c)

dynamic character

d)

mentor

19.

A scene in a movie, novel, etc., set in a time earlier than the main story, often times a memory. Clues the reader into the past experiences of the character.

a)

Flashback

b)

Foreshadowing

c)

Metaphor

d)

Rising Action

20.

In literature, a literary element that evokes certain feelings or vibes in readers through words and descriptions.

a)

Setting

b)

Hyperbole

c)

Resolution

d)

Mood

21.

"I'm so hungry I could eat a horse!"
What is this an example of?

a)

Climax

b)

Hyperbole

c)

Tone

d)

Metaphor

22.

_{What is an implied comparison between dissimilar objects? A comparison not using the words "like" or "as", usually comparing things using "is" or "was" (ie. He is a couch potato.)}

a)

Metaphor

b)

Simile

c)

Imagery

d)

Hyperbole

23.

In the famous words of Forest Gump, "Life is like a box of chocolates."
What literary device did he use for his comparison?

a)

Onomatopoeia

b)

Simile

c)

Metaphor

d)

Hyperbole

24.

What word explains the overall sequence of events in a literary work?

a)

Plot

b)

Metaphor

c)

Resolution

d)

Setting

25.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Holding

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

26.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Delay of game

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

27.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Unsportsmanlike conduct

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

28.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Encroachment

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

29.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Illegal formation

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

30.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Pass interference

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

31.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Illegal use of hands

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

32.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Invalid fair catch signal

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

33.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Illegal substitution

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

34.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Illegal kicking

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

35.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Blocking below the waist

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

36.

For the following penalties, indicate how many yards a team is penalized if the foul is called. Give the yardage used in high school football. (You do NOT need to indicate the whether the penalty is from the line of scrimmage.)

Helping the runner

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

37.

Which of these is the best measure of how much space an object or substance takes up?

a)

mass

b)

length

c)

volume

d)

density

38.

What is Newton's first law of motion?

a)

Every action has an equal opposite reaction

b)

An object in motion stays in motion unless acted upon by an unbalanced force

c)

The force acting on an object is equal to the mass of an object times its acceleration

d)

Sandwich

39.

What female Nobel Prize winner conducted research on radioactivity?

a)

Sandwich

b)

Tierra Guinn

c)

Marie Curie

d)

Isaac Newton

40.

Who was Dimitri Ivanovich Mendeleev?

a)

Periodic table inventor

b)

Sandwich

c)

A singer

d)

An Astronomer

41.

What is the formula for force?

a)

Net force $\div$ Mass

b)

Sandwich

c)

Mass $\times$ Acceleration

d)

Mass $\times$ Velocity

42.

Who laid the foundations for classical mechanics, explaining the law of gravity and the laws of motion in 1867?

a)

Galileo Galilei

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Isaac Newton

d)

Antoine Lavoisier

43.

Who developed cures for rabies and anthrax, and made milk safer to drink?

a)

Antoine Lavoisier

b)

Michael Faraday

c)

Dmitri Mendeleev

d)

Louis Pasteur

44.

Who created one of the first modern telescopes, and successfully proved the Earth revolves around the Sun?

a)

Ernest Rutherford

b)

Galileo Galilei

c)

James Clerk Maxwell

d)

Gregor Mendel

45.

Who revolutionised modern physics with his general theory of relativity?

a)

Galileo Galilei

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Stephen Hawking

d)

Niels Bohr

46.

Who collected evidence over 20 years and published his conclusions in On the Origin of Species (1859)?

a)

Nikola Tesla

b)

Michael Faraday

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Charles Darwin

47.

The Scottish biologist Alexander Fleming discovered the world's first antibiotic substance, ___

a)

Penicillin

b)

Phlogiston

c)

Aspirin

d)

Amoxicillin

48.

Who invented the first telephone?

a)

Thomas Edison

b)

George Washington

c)

Alexander Graham Bell

49.

A Paleontologist studies ______

a)

plants

b)

insects

c)

fossils

d)

animals

50.

Entomologists study _______

a)

fossils

b)

insects

c)

animals

d)

plants

51.

Botanists study ________

a)

fossils

b)

plants

c)

insects

d)

animals

52.

Who invented the lightning rod?

a)

Benjamin Franklin

b)

Thomas Edison

c)

Alexander Bell

53.

Who invented the lightning rod?

a)

Benjamin Franklin

b)

Thomas Edison

c)

Alexander Bell

54.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

A hypothesis is the right answer to an experiment.

b)

A hypothesis is the wrong answer to an experiment.

c)

A hypothesis is an educated guess.

d)

I don't know.

55.

This variable in an experiment is the one being deliberately changed by the scientist.

a)

dependent variable

b)

independent variable

c)

data

d)

control group

56.

What step does every scientific experiment begin with?

a)

hypothesis

b)

question/problem

c)

procedures

d)

conclusion

57.

Chloroplasts in plant cells allow the plant to perform a function that animal cells cannot do. What is the main function of the chloroplasts found in plant cells?

a)

to absorb light energy and manufacture food

b)

to remove waste materials by active transport

c)

to manufacture chemical energy from food

d)

to control the shape of the cell

58.

In what part of the plant cell does the process of photosynthesis take place?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplasts

d)

vacuoles

59.

The steel beams that hold up a tall building are most analogous (similar) to which body system?

a)

skeletal

b)

muscular

c)

digestive

d)

immune

60.

What is the process of moving sediments from location to another?

a)

Deposition

b)

Erosion

c)

Weathering

d)

Compaction

61.

What is the process of moving sediments from location to another?

a)

Deposition

b)

Erosion

c)

Weathering

d)

Compaction

62.

Small pieces of rock that have been weathered from a larger rock are known as...

a)

sand

b)

sediment

c)

soil

63.

What triggers mudslides?

a)

ice

b)

rain

c)

wind

d)

temperature

64.

A rock deep within the Earth experiences extreme temperature and pressure. After a long period of time it becomes which rock?

a)

Magma

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Sedimentary

65.

What must happen to a metamorphic rock before it becomes a sedimentary rock rock?

a)

It must be broken down into sediment

b)

It must be melted into magma

c)

Its minerals must dissolve in water

d)

It must be exposed to high temperature and pressure

66.

How do sedimentary rocks form?

a)

Lava or magma cools and hardens

b)

Sand, mud and pebbles settles into layers and get squeezed together.

c)

Extreme heat or pressure turn old rocks into new rocks

d)

Under trampolines

67.

__________________ rocks form when lava or magma cools and hardens.

a)

METAMORPHIC

b)

IGNEOUS

c)

SEDIMENTARY

d)

WEIRD

68.

What is needed for a metamorphic rock to form?

a)

HEAT

b)

PRESSURE

c)

HEAT AND PRESSURE

d)

WIFI

69.

An endangered species is

a)

One whose numbers are so small that it is at risk of extinction

b)

One whose not been spotted after many years.

c)

One whose numbers are abundant.

70.

Soil contains both abiotic and biotic materials. Which is a biotic component of soil?

a)

minerals

b)

grains of sand

c)

decomposing leaves

d)

water

71.

Students are describing the ecosystem in an area. Which of these lists ALL the components the students should include in their description?

a)

all plant and animal species

b)

all living and non-living factors

c)

all weather patterns and climates

d)

all elements and chemical substances

72.

A plant depends on the sun for energy. The plant turns the suns energy into food through a process called -

a)

cooking

b)

radiation

c)

photosynthesis

d)

mitochondria

73.

What is the best reason that fire is NOT considered a living organism?

a)

It requires oxygen to burn.

b)

It requires fuel to burn.

c)

It can move from place to place.

d)

It is not composed of cells.

74.

What is a circuit with several paths for electricity to flow?

a)

conductor

b)

series circuit

c)

parallel circuit

d)

open circuit

75.

What is a circuit that only has ONE path for electricity to flow?

a)

series circuit

b)

closed circuit

c)

parallel circuit

d)

light bulb

76.

An incomplete circuit is shown.
To complete the circuit, a wire should be placed from —

a)

Point D to Point C

b)

Point B to Point C

c)

Point A to Point D

d)

Point B to Point D

77.

Which bulbs will light?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

4 and 2

78.

Choose the correct sentence.

a)

This circuit will work because it is an open circuit.

b)

This circuit will work because it is a closed circuit.

c)

This circuit will NOT work because it is an open circuit.

d)

This circuit will NOT work because it is a closed circuit.

79.

When the Northern Hemisphere of Earth is Leaning away from the Sun, What season is the Southern Hemisphere experiencing?

a)

Summer

b)

Winter

c)

Spring

d)

Fall

80.

How long does it take the Earth to make one REVOLUTION around the Sun?

a)

12 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

365 days

d)

29.5 days

81.

The Earth's axis is tilted _____ degrees.

a)

23.5

b)

25.3

c)

30.2

d)

24

82.

What happens when the area in which you live tilts away from the sun?

a)

It is summer.

b)

It is spring.

c)

It is winter.

d)

It is fall.

83.

(7) Which scenario is showing gravity as the main force moving an object?

a)

My pencil fell to the ground when I dropped it.

b)

A plane taking off.

c)

A feather floating in the wind.

d)

A boy threw a ball up in the air.

84.

(1) Using a parachute causes a package to come to the ground slower. What statement explains this science fact?

a)

The package has less gravity because the parachute makes it smaller.

b)

The package has more gravity because the parachute catches wind and makes it heavier.

c)

The parachute causes air resistance and decreases the force of gravity on the object.

d)

The parachute causes air resistance and increases the force of gravity on the object.

85.

(9) When an airplane is taking off, the major forces being used are __________.

a)

Drag & lift

b)

Lift & thrust

c)

Weight & drag

d)

Thrust & weight

86.

The first crops grown by Neolithic farmers in pre-historic Egypt were_____________________.

a)

wheat, rye, and maize

b)

wheat, cotton, and papyrus

c)

beans, wheat, and barley

d)

wheat, barley, and flax

87.

The pharaoh who unified Egypt is better known by what name in later kings lists?

a)

Neith

b)

Menes

c)

Serekah

d)

Aegyptos

88.

Narmer founded what city, which was to become the administrative capital of Egypt for centuries?

a)

Memphis

b)

Thebes

c)

Abydos

d)

Aegyptos

89.

The city of Abydos ( or Abdju) was famous for its _____________.

a)

rich grain fields

b)

gold and other precious minerals

c)

kingly burial places

d)

stone quarries

90.

Perhaps the greatest builder in all of Egypt for moving millions of tons of stone to build massive pyramids was ________________.

a)

Sneferu

b)

Khufu

c)

Menkare

d)

Huni

91.

Before the building of pyramids, pharaohs and other dignitaries were buried in a tomb known as a _________________.

a)

mortuary temple

b)

mastaba

c)

synopic grave

d)

mausoleum

92.

The face carved on the head of the Sphinx is most likely that of ______________.

a)

Khufu

b)

Menkare

c)

Khafra (Khafre)

d)

Sneferu

93.

The land of Punt was an important source of which product?

a)

gold

b)

ebony

c)

lapis lazuli

d)

myrrh

94.

The Hyksos were defeated and Egypt reconquered by which of the following rulers?

a)

Ramses

b)

Thutmose III

c)

Ahmose I

d)

Kamose

95.

The world's first known peace treaty was negotiated by Ramses II with who?

a)

Nubians

b)

Hittites

c)

Sea Peoples

d)

Hyksos

96.

The most comprehensive primary source for the dynasties of Egypt is the king list of ______________.

a)

Herodotus

b)

Manetho

c)

Josephus

d)

the Rosetta Stone

97.

Which of the following rulers was member of the "0" dynasty?

a)

Narmer

b)

Djozer

c)

Scorpion II

d)

Ahmose

98.

Much of the information about Egypt during the 1st Intermediate Period is found in ___________________.

a)

coffin texts

b)

papyrus documents found in the pyramids

c)

stone tablets placed in the temples

d)

the Rosetta Stone

99.

Howard Carter's benefactor was ____________________ .

a)

Lady Herbert

b)

Alan Gardiner

c)

Lord Carnarvon

d)

Arthur Callender

100.

Egypt was bordered on the south by _________________.

a)

Nubia

b)

Punt

c)

Libya

d)

Lebanon

101.

The first known agricultural settlements along the Nile were the ________________________.

a)

Badarian cultures

b)

Nabta community

c)

Wadi settlements

d)

Nekhem people

102.

Possibly the Hyksos were from____________________.

a)

coastal Lebanon

b)

Crete and Cyprus

c)

Nubia

d)

Punt

103.

The reign of what ruler marked the beginning of the Middle Kingdom?

a)

Mentuhotep II

b)

Seti I

c)

Ahmose III

d)

Ramses II

104.

The earliest religious literature and the only surviving examples from the Old Kingdom are the _________________.

a)

pyramid texts of Unas

b)

Book of the Dead

c)

inscriptions on the Palermo

d)

inscriptions of Khufu's pyramid

105.

Which of the following statements about Amenemhat I is NOT true?

a)

He was the founder of the 12th dynasty

b)

He began great construction projects

c)

He crushed opposition using brutal tactics

d)

He was of royal birth from the last pharaoh of the 11th dynasty

106.

What did Herodotus call Egypt?

a)

the greatest of all the lands

b)

the richest land on earth

c)

the gift of the Nile

d)

the world's most advanced civilization

107.

What was unusual about the 13th dynasty of kings?

a)

they were the most stable dynasty

b)

they conquered the most foreign territory

c)

there were over 50 kings in 150 years

d)

they build the largest temples

108.

According to Wilkinson, the last great Egyptian ruler was _____________.

a)

Thutmose III

b)

Ramses II

c)

Ramses III

d)

Ptolemy V

109.

Who was the longest reigning Egyptian monarch?

a)

Ramses II

b)

Thutmose III

c)

Ptolemy II

d)

Pepi II

110.

Which of the following women did NOT rule Egypt as a pharaoh?

a)

Hatshepsut

b)

Sobekneferu

c)

Nefertiti

d)

Cleopatra

111.

Who was able to conquer Egypt without a fight in 332 BC?

a)

the Macedonians under Alexander the Great

b)

the Romans under Julius Caesar

c)

the Persians under Cambyses II

d)

the Greeks under Ptolemy

112.

The term "Deshret" referred to __________________.

a)

the red land of the desert

b)

the rich soil along the Nile

c)

the land near the Delta

d)

Upper Egypt

113.

By the end of the 3rd Intermediate Period, most of Egypt was under the rule of _______________.

a)

Greece

b)

Rome

c)

Persia

d)

Assyria

114.

The Late Period began with the rule of the Assyrian vassals known as the ______________.

a)

Persian Satraps

b)

the Amarna Kings

c)

the Saite Kings

d)

Ptolemaic Princes

115.

During the 3rd Intermediate Period, Thebes was attacked and seized by kings from ____________________.

a)

Kush

b)

Syria

c)

Libya

d)

Persia

Academic Team Practice 3-27

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

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