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MTEL Technology and Engineering Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)

Student A

b)

Student B

c)

Student C

d)

Cannot be determined

2.
This bullseye demonstrates...
a)
High Accuracy & High Precision
b)
High Accuracy & Low Precision
c)
Low Accuracy & High Precision
d)
Low Accuracy & Low Precision
3.

This bullseye demonstrates...

a)

High Accuracy & High Precision

b)

High Accuracy & Low Precision

c)

Low Accuracy & High Precision

d)

Low Accuracy & Low Precision

4.
Which view shows the block from the TOP
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
5.

Recognize the view for the given isometric figure.

a)

Top view

b)

Right side view

c)

Left side view

d)

Bottom view

6.
A way of projecting a 3D object on a 2D plane by showing each side separately.
a)
Isometric projection
b)
Assembly drawings
c)
Orthographic projection
d)
Systems drawing
7.

Before starting the drill press, what should be removed from the machine?

a)

Drill bit

b)

Chuck key

c)

Material

d)

None of the above

8.

The Lathe machine is used to …

a)

Turn wood pieces into cylinder shaped projects

b)

Shape wood into bowls, candlesticks, and pens

c)

Spins wood and uses tools to shape wood into cylinder shapes

d)

All the above

9.

Materials are classified as

a)

Natural, plastic, and leather

b)

Natural, synthetic, and mixed

c)

Metal, synthetic, and leather

d)

Metal, plastic, and leather

10.

Which of the answers below lists actual material properties?

a)

Mechanical, radiant, and nuclear

b)

Thermal, radiant, and electrical

c)

Thermal, radiant, and nuclear

d)

Mechanical, thermal, and electrical

11.

Manufacturing production systems can be classified as

a)

Customized, batch, and continuous

b)

Natural, batch, and continuous

c)

Customized, synthetic, and continuous

d)

Customized, batch, and natural

12.

The effectiveness of the manufacturing process was increased by the introduction of

a)

Custom made parts

b)

Batch production methods

c)

Interchangeable parts

d)

Natural materials

13.

What is tensile strength?

a)

Measures the material’s resistance to being squeezed.

b)

Measures the material’s resistance to various types of rapidly changing stresses.

c)

Measures the material’s resistance to being pulled apart.

d)

The material’s resistance to permanent indentation.

14.

What is the definition of composite materials?

a)

Inorganic and nonmetallic materials formed from powdered materials through the application of heat.

b)

Elements, compounds, or alloys that account for roughly two-thirds of all materials.

c)

Elements commonly referred to as plastics or rubber

d)

Any combination(s) of two or more distinct materials, in which those materials maintain their original properties.

15.

1. Forming is a process that changes the shape of the metal by changing its phase.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

4. Metal forming is a process in which the metal is deformed plastically to get into the desired shape.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

7. Which of the following processes is not the type of metal forming process?

a)

Extrusion

b)

Injection moulding

c)

Forging

d)

Drawing

18.

Extrusion is an example of a:

a)

Squeezing force

b)

Drawing force

c)

Bending force

d)

None of the above

19.

The ___ is a machine tool that operates on the principle of the work being rotated against a cutting tool

a)

broach

b)

drill press

c)

lathe

d)

milling machine

20.

_____ is an operation that removes material by rotating an abrasive wheel against the workpiece.

a)

drilling

b)

grinding

c)

milling

d)

turning

21.

With computer numerical control (CNC) machining centers, the ____ is controlled by the computer program.

a)

tool changing process

b)

tool movement

c)

workpiece movement

d)

All options

22.

A stamping operation in which shapes in metal are cut with punches and dies is known as ____.

a)

blanking

b)

grinding

c)

milling

d)

shearing

23.

____ is a process in which molten metal is forced into a mold under pressure.

a)

Die casting

b)

Investment casting

c)

Permanent mold casting

d)

Sand casting

24.

is when information is passed from a sender to a receiver.

a)

information

b)

communication

c)

signals

d)

analog signals

25.

is where the information is going.

a)

source

b)

destination

c)

retrieval

d)

storage

26.

to send a message. When you hit send or post for a text message.

a)

encode

b)

transmit

c)

decode

d)

electrical signals

27.

What type of voltage signal is shown?

a)

Digital

b)

Analog

c)

Neither

d)

Could be both

28.

What type of voltage signal is shown?

a)

Digital

b)

Analog

c)

Neither

d)

Could be both

29.

What type of voltage signal is shown?

a)

Digital

b)

Analog

c)

Neither

d)

Could be both

30.

What is the frequency of this digital signal?

a)

1Hz

b)

2Hz

c)

100Hz

d)

1000Hz

31.
A local park is interested in building a bridge over a short ravine. They have stressed that keeping costs low is very important to them. What type of bridge would you recommend they build?
a)
Suspension
b)
Beam
c)
Cantilever
d)
Truss
32.
What is the name for the entire length of a bridge?
a)
span
b)
pier
c)
abutment
d)
cable
33.
What are the names for the middle supports that are normally attached to the bridge between abutments to support more weight?
a)
span
b)
abutment
c)
pier
d)
cable
34.
In what way is plywood superior to natural wood?
a)
Plywood doesn’t change size or shape much in response to heat or humidity
b)
Plywood requires no adhesives
c)
Plywood requires no veneers
d)
The grain in plywood runs in only one direction
35.
The layer of material that is placed between the framing and the finished exterior of a structure is the
a)
sheathing
b)
partition
c)
superstructure
d)
substructure
36.
How does reinforced concrete differ from regular concrete?
a)
Reinforced concrete contains pieces of steel
b)
Reinforced concrete is made using forms
c)
Both materials are essentially the same
d)
Reinforced concrete does not withstand tension well
37.
Oil moving through a pipeline is a good example of a
a)
dynamic load
b)
refractory load
c)
static load
d)
torsion load
38.
The two types of load that can be exerted on a structure are
a)
static loads and dynamic loads
b)
dead loads and static loads
c)
tension and compression
d)
live loads and dynamic loads
39.

A ship has a satellite communication device to identify the ship’s position at sea.  For which of the following activities is this device most likely used?

a)

Control

b)

Guidance

c)

Propulsion

d)

Suspension

40.

In order for a glider to fly, its weight must be opposed by

a)

Lift

b)

Drag

c)

Gravity

d)

Friction

41.

Which Design would experience the least amount of drag?

a)

Car A

b)

Car B

c)

Car C

d)

Car D

42.

Which of the following parts of a car belong to its control system?

a)

Gas Tank

b)

Hydraulic Jack

c)

Steering Wheel

d)

Power Windows

43.

A pilot lowers the flaps before takeoff to increase which of the following forces?

a)

Drag

b)

Gravity

c)

Lift

d)

Thrust

44.

What are the four possible zones of transportation?

a)

Land, Sea, Air, Space

b)

Roads, Paths, Channels, Airways

c)

East, South, West, North

d)

Zone 1, Zone 2, Zone 3, Zone 4

45.

What are the five parts of any transportation system?

a)

Structure, Suspension, Thrust, Control, Guidance

b)

Speed, Brakes, Turning, Fuel, Motor, Effort

c)

Chassis, Exhaust, RPM, Steering, Hydraulics

d)

Tracks, Roads, Paths, Airways, Channels

46.

What forces can act on a given transportation system?

a)

Lift, Drag, Gravity, Friction, Thrust

b)

Weight, Force, Dead load, Liveload

c)

The sun, the moon, the tides

d)

Electrical, Subliminal, Magnetic, Ionic

47.
Hydraulic systems use _________.
a)
liquid
b)
gas
c)
air
48.
Pneumatic systems use _______
a)
water
b)
air/gas
c)
oil
49.

Which of the following statements explains fluid power.

a)

Fluid power is the method of using pressurized fluid to transmit energy

b)

Fluid power is the method of using pressurized fluid to transmit motion.

c)

Fluid power is the method of using pressurized fluid to transmit machines

d)

Fluid power is the method of using pressurized air to transmit energy

50.

Hydraulic systems use ________ to transfer force from one point to another.

a)

Air

b)

Liquid

c)

Solid

d)

Gas

51.

All industrial hydraulic systems consist of the following basic components:

a)

Power input device

Control Device

Liquid

Conductors

Power Output device

Hydraulic jack

b)

Power input device

Control Device

Liquid

Power Output device

c)

Power input device

Control Device

Liquid

Conductors

Power Output device

d)

Power input device

Control Device

Power Output device

52.

Hydraulic systems provide a means for the operation of

a)

landing gear, control surfaces and brakes

b)

engines, galleys and stowage bins

c)

brakes, landing gear and replenishment carts

d)

all options are correct

53.

The r-value of a material indicates:

a)

Its resistance to water vapor

b)

How well it it will resist the transfer of heat

c)

The percentage of heat that it will move from cold to hot

d)

the amount of time required to reach a balance with the ambient temp.

54.

R-values can be:

a)

Added together only if there are for similar materials

b)

Added together to create a composite r-value

c)

divided to calculate the ratio of insulated to uninsulated wall area

d)

Multiplyed by a factor of 10% to account for aif infiltration

55.

Fiberglass insulation relies on pockets of ________ to resist heat transfer

a)

Air

b)

Inert Gas

c)

Heat

d)

Melted salt

56.

High density ( closed cell ) spray foams have high R-values because________________.

a)

the bubbles used are trapped gas rather than air

b)

they expand nearly 120 times the original volume

c)

they completely seal each cavity

d)

the foam wxpands very quickly, trapping a second layer of air behind it.

57.
Current that reverses direction in a regular pattern is called ____. 
a)
direct current 
b)
circuit current
c)
magnetic current
d)
alternating current 
58.
Current that does NOT reverse direction is called ____. 
a)
magnetic current
b)
direct current
c)
circuit current
d)
alternating current
59.

What is the resistance of a 45-Watt lightbulb when connected to a 120-V power source?

a)

0.375 Ω

b)

2.7 Ω

c)

320 Ω

d)

540 Ω

60.

The difference between conductors and insulators is that...

a)

conductors have higher resistance than insulators

b)

conductors have lower resistance than insulators

c)

conductors have higher voltage than insulators

d)

conductors allow less current than insulators

61.

A current of 0.15 A runs through a circuit to a capacitor. How long would it take for the capacitor to accumulate 6 C of charge?

a)

0.9 seconds

b)

25 seconds

c)

40 seconds

d)

0.9 minutes

62.

How many different pathways are there for current to travel through this circuit?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

63.

How is the power source in an AC circuit different from the power source in a DC circuit?

a)

The AC power source is toggled on and off, while the DC power source stays on permanently.

b)

The AC power source keeps changing polarity, while the DC power source's terminals are fixed in place.

c)

The AC power source is connected in parallel, while the DC power source is connected in series.

d)

The AC power source has a lower voltage than the DC power source.

64.

How much current will travel through a single 60-Ω resistor connected to a 120-V power source?

a)

0.5 A

b)

2 A

c)

6 A

d)

7.2 A

65.

What is effort (input) force?

a)

the force one exerts on a machine

b)

the force which an effort force must overcome in order to do work on an object via a simple machine.

c)

the force the machine exerts on a object

d)

the output work times the input distance

66.
How is work defined?
a)
the amount of energy 
b)
the transfer of force over a distance
c)
rate of work in a given time
d)
the change in distance in a given time
67.
if a load of a lever is 100 newtons and the force you apply is 20 newtons, what is your mechanical advantage?
a)
120 N
b)
5 N
c)
2000 N
d)
80 N
68.
45,000 Joules of work done in 90 seconds results in how much power?
a)
50 watts
b)
500 watts
c)
5000 watts
d)
4,050,000 watts
69.
When speed increases, what happens to the value of torque?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays constant
70.
When speed decreases, what happens to the value of torque?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays constant
71.
What is the function of the smaller gear?
a)
Makes the output gear turn slower
b)
Makes the output gear turn faster
c)
Makes the larger gears turn in opposite directions.
d)
Makes the larger gears turn in the same direction.
72.

Does the Driving Gear or Driven Gear have the motor attached?

a)

The Driving Gear has the motor attached

b)

The Driven Gear has the motor attached

73.

What is the mechanical advantage of this gear ratio?

a)

1: 3 Torque Advantage

b)

1: 3 Speed Advantage

c)

no Mechanical Advantage

74.

A 36 tooth driving gear (connected to the motor) is moving a 12 tooth driven gear. What is the gear ratio?... It has a speed advantage.

a)

3:1

b)

1:3

c)

3:3

d)

1:1

75.

Looking at the picture, what is the gear ratio?

The arrow indicates how the motor is turning the gear.

a)

4 : 6

b)

6 : 4

c)

2 : 3

d)

3 : 2