Worksheetskocing
Total questions: 181
Worksheet time: 6hrs 2mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The shop head of a rivet should be?
a)
A. One and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
b)
B. One-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
c)
C. One and one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet
2.
One the main advantages of Hi-lock type fasteners over earlier generation is that?
a)
C. They can be installed with ordinary hand tools
b)
A. They can be removed and reused again
c)
B. The squeezed on collar installation provides a more secure, tighter fit
3.
The marking on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the?
a)
A. Body diameter, type of head, and length of the fastener
b)
B. Body type, head diameter, and type of material
c)
C. Manufacturer and type of material
4.
A well designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to
a)
B. Shear loads
b)
A. Compressive loads
c)
C. Tension loads
5.
A main difference between lockbolt/huckbolt tention and shear fasteners (other than their applicationb) is in the
a)
A. Number of locking collar grooves
b)
B. Shape of the head
c)
C. Methode of installation
6.
Alloy 2117 Rivets are heat threated
a)
A. By the manufacturer and don't require heat treatment before being driven
b)
B. By the manufacturer but require reheat treatment before being driven
c)
C. to a temperature of 91° to 93° F and quenched in cold water
7.
Rivets used primarily for joining magnesium alloy structure have what alloy designation?
a)
D. 5056
b)
A. 1100
c)
B. 2017-T4
d)
C. 2117-T4
8.
When space on side is too restricted properly use a bucking bar, what type of rivet should you use?
a)
C. Blind
b)
A. Flat
c)
B. Solid
d)
D. Hi-Shear
9.
What distance will the stud of a Camloc fastener have to be turned to releade it but not far enough to permit re-engagement?
a)
D. One-fourth turn counterclockwise
b)
A. One-half turn clockwise
c)
B. One-fourth turn clockwise
d)
C. One-half turn counterclockwise
10.
Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?
a)
C. Only for shear load application
b)
A. For tension and shear load condition
c)
B. Only for tension load application
11.
A flat-head pin used in a tie rod terminal should be secured with what device?
a)
A. A cotter pin
b)
B. A sheet spring nut
c)
C. A self locking nut
d)
D. A piece of safety wire
12.
An allen wrench required tp tighten or loosen which of the following types of bolts?
a)
A. Countersunk-head
b)
B. Hex head
c)
C. Clevis
d)
D. Eye
13.
Which of the following types of nuts are used to ensure a permanent an vibration proof connection?
a)
D. Sheet spring nut
b)
A. Wing nut
c)
B. Shear nut
d)
C. Plain nut
14.
You should use ball socket and seat washer in which of the following situations?
a)
D. When bolts are installed at an angle to the surface
b)
A. With stud
c)
B. Under taper pin nuts
d)
C. With sheet spring nut
15.
The general rules for finding the proper rivet diameter is
a)
A. Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet
b)
B. Two times the rivet length
c)
C. Three times the thickness of the materials to be joinned
16.
The primary alloying agent of 2024-T36 is indicated by the number
a)
C. 2
b)
A. 20
c)
B. 24
17.
A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as
a)
A. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt
b)
B. NAS standart aircraft bolt
c)
C. NAS close tolerance bolt
18.
A 5056 rivet is used to join magnesium alloy materials because of which of the following factors?
a)
D. Corrosion Resistance
b)
A. Tensile strength
c)
B. Cold working
d)
C. Heat resistance
19.
Which og the following fasteners has a shear and tensile strength equal to or greater than the requirements of AN or NAS bolts?
a)
A. Lock-bolt
b)
B. Turnlock
c)
C. Rivnut
d)
D. Airloc
20.
What type of fastener is used on panels that are removed and reinstalled frequently for maintenance repairs?
a)
C. Turnlock
b)
A. Hi-Lok
c)
B. Jo-Bolt
d)
D. Structural
21.
Aircraft nuts are divided into what two general groups?
a)
A. Self-locking and nonself-locking
b)
B. Metal insert and fiber insert
c)
C. High temperature and common
d)
D. Ferrous and non ferrous
22.
Which of the following types of nuts is designed to be used with cotter pins or safety wire?
a)
C. Castle
b)
A. Check
c)
B. Plate
d)
D. Barrel
23.
Flush-head screws are available in what degree(s) of head angle?
a)
C. 82° and 100° only
b)
A. 82°, 100°, 125°, and 145°
c)
B. 82°, 100°, and 125° only
d)
D. 82°only
24.
Aircraft cable have the centre core twisted in one direction and the outer core in the opposite direction for what reasen?
a)
C. To minimize the stretch or set
b)
A. To make the cable rigid
c)
B. To make the cable stiffer
d)
D. To allow the strands to expand when cut
25.
A piece of 7 x 19 cable has what total number of wires?
a)
A. 133
b)
B. 26
c)
C. 19
d)
D. 7
26.
Terminal fittings are generally attached to the ends of cables by what method?
a)
A. Swaging
b)
B. Welding
c)
C. Splicing
d)
D. Soldering
27.
The size of a cable is determined by which of the following factors?
a)
C. Diameter
b)
A. Lay
c)
B. Tension
d)
D. Strength
28.
The turnbuckle is used to make what type of cable adjusment?
a)
C. Minor adjusment to cable length and tension
b)
A. Minor adjusment to cable length only
c)
B. Minor adjusment to cable tension only
d)
D. Adjusment to cable threads
29.
A grommet is manufactured from material?
a)
A. Rubber
b)
B. Alumunium
c)
C. Copper
d)
D. Felt
30.
What device is used on cables or rods that must move through a pressurized bulkhead?
a)
C. Pressure seal
b)
A. O-ring
c)
B. Grommet
d)
D. Back-up ring
31.
What device changes cable direction and allows a cable to move with minimun friction?
a)
A. Pulley
b)
B. Sector
c)
C. Quadrant
d)
D. Bell crank
32.
What type of connection is used to connect all metal parts of an aircraft to complete an electrical unit?
a)
C. Bonding
b)
A. Terminal
c)
B. Static
d)
D. Fused
33.
What component allows for the continuous of onboard navigation and radio communication systems?
a)
D. Static dischargers
b)
A. Bonding wires
c)
B. Connectors
d)
C. Terminals
34.
What type of safety wire is used in high-temperature areas?
a)
D. Annealed, corrosion resistant
b)
A. Bailing
c)
C. Annealed copper
35.
What type of safety wire is used on valves and levers used for emergency operation of aircraft equipment?
a)
B. Brass
b)
A. Copper
c)
C. Bailing
d)
D. Corrosion-resistant
36.
How many times, if any, can a turnbarrel lock clip be reused?
a)
D. It cannot be reused
b)
A. One times
c)
B. Two times
d)
C. Three times
37.
What is meant by absolute pressure?
a)
A. The pressure referenced from zero or vacuum pressure
b)
B. The pressure referenced from field elevation
c)
C. The pressure referenced from ISA standard pressure
d)
D. The pressure referenced from sea level
38.
Convert 30°C to Fahrenheit (F)
a)
C. 86°F
b)
A. 56°F
c)
B. 63°F
d)
D. 90°F
39.
The main principal elements of aircraft instrument in sequence order are
a)
B. Detecting, measuring, coupling, and indicating element
b)
A. Measuring, coupling, detecting, and indicating element
c)
C. Coupling, detecting, measuring, and indicating element
d)
D. Detecting, coupling, measuring, and indicating element
40.
Which of the following instrument is not of the engine indicating group
a)
D. Fuel Quantity Indicator
b)
A. Percentage-Thrust Indicator
c)
B. Turbine Gas Temperature
d)
C. Fuel Flow Indicator
41.
What are the basic elements flow 'Classic T' aircraft instrument format?
a)
C. Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction
b)
A. Direction, altitude and height
c)
B. Airspeed, pitch and roll
d)
D. Attitude, airspeed direction
42.
A bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate
a)
D. Pressure and Temperature
b)
A. Pressure
c)
B. Temperature
d)
C. Position
43.
The operating mechanism of most hydraulic pressure gauge is
a)
A. A diaphragm
b)
B. A bourdon tube
c)
C. A capsule
d)
D. An evacuated bellows
44.
The following instruments use a bourdon tube for measuring pressure, except
a)
D. Manifold pressure gage
b)
A. Engine gage unit
c)
B. Hydraulic pressure gage
d)
C. De-icing pressure gage
45.
The operation of thermocouple temperature indicator based on
a)
D. EMF developed by the difference in temperature between the hot and cold juction
b)
A. Temperature different between free air and the sensor
c)
B. Change of resistance due to temperature change
d)
C. Decreasing current inversely proportional to temperature decrease
46.
Thermocouple leads for a gas turbine engine usually are made of
a)
C. Chromel - Alumel
b)
A. Iron - Constantan
c)
B. Copper - Constantan
d)
D. Platinum - Rhodium
47.
For measuring low temperature, the common type of instrument uses a principle of
a)
B. Wheatstone bridge system
b)
A. Thermocouple leads type
c)
C. Negative temperature coefficient
d)
D. Autosyn instrument system
48.
International Commission for Aerial Navigation (ICAN) Law states that
a)
C. Temperature at sea level 15°C, decreasing by 1.98°F every increase of 1000 ft altitude
b)
A. Temperature at sea level 15°F, decreasing by 1.98°F every increase of 1000 ft altitude
c)
B. Temperature at sea level 15°C, increasing by 1.98°F every increase of 1000 ft altitude
d)
D. Temperature at sea level 15°C, decreasing by 1.98°F every decrease of 1000 ft altitude
49.
Which of the following instrument utilises the static pressure only?
a)
D. Cabin differential pressure indicator
b)
A. Radar altimeter
c)
B. Mach airspeed indicator
d)
C. Altimeter
50.
Setting of altimeter so that the altimeter will read zero when landing is
a)
D. QFE
b)
A. QNH
c)
B. QNE
d)
C. QFF
51.
The working principle of a Vertical Speed indicator based on
a)
A. The rate of static pressure change
b)
B. The rate of dynamic pressure change
c)
C. The different between cabin and ambient pressure
d)
D. The different between pitot and static pressure
52.
When aircraft descend, the pressure inside the diaphragm of Rate of Climb Indicator
a)
C. Higher than instrument case pressure
b)
A. The same with cabin pressure
c)
B. Less than instrument case pressure
d)
D. The same with instrument case pressure
53.
A sensitive pressure gages which measure the differece between the pitot and static pressure is the basic of
a)
B. Sensitive airspeed indicator
b)
A. Sensitive altimeter
c)
C. Cabin differential pressure indicator
d)
D. Inertial-lead vertical speed indicator
54.
Square-law compensation for airspeed indicator utilized
a)
B. Banana slot, spring type, and variable rocking lever
b)
A. Calibration arm, Bimetal-U strip, and Capillary tube
c)
C. Diffuser, metering unit, and rocking shaft
d)
D. Sector gear, rocking shaft, and link arm
55.
A VMO (Velocity Maximum Operation) pointer of a Mach Airspeed Indicator will show decrease, when
a)
C. There is an increase in aircraft altitude
b)
A. Decreasing of aircraft speed
c)
B. Increasing aircraft speed
d)
D. There is a decrease in aircraft altitude
56.
The position error of an airspeed indicator will reach its maximum value when
a)
D. Flying at high angle of attack
b)
A. Driving speed
c)
B. Cruising speed
d)
C. Flying at low angle of attack
57.
An error of the ASI caused by non-standard pressure and temperature in the
a)
B. Density error
b)
A. Position error
c)
C. Temperature error
d)
D. Compressibility error
58.
Mach number is defined as
a)
A. The ratio between true aircraft speed and speed of sound at local atmosphere
b)
B. The ratio between speed of sound and atmospheric pressure at ISA standard
c)
C. The sum of indicate airspeed and average speed of the wind
d)
D. The difference between true airspeed and indicate airspeed
59.
The speed of sound in at atmosphere
a)
B. Change with change in temperature
b)
A. Change with change in pressure
c)
C. Varies depend on the weather condition
d)
D. Varies according to the frequency of the sound
60.
A part of Air Data Computer used to convert pressure energy into electrical signal is the
a)
C. Transducer
b)
A. Converter
c)
B. Encoder
d)
D. Barometer
61.
How does Air Data Computer process any various pressure (airdata) to display on an indicator?
a)
D. Transducer unit, computing unit to electromechanical indicator
b)
A. Computing unit, transducer unit to mechanical indicator
c)
B. Computing unit, transducer unit to electromechanical indicator
d)
C. Transducer unit, computing unit to mechanical indicator
62.
For an unpressurized aircraft, the static system is checked for leakage with a 1000 ft indication on the altimeter and it must not leak more than
a)
B. 100 ft in one min
b)
A. 50 ft in one min
c)
C. 200 ft in one min
d)
D. 250 ft in one min
63.
When a reciprocating engine is not running, the manifolf pressure gage should be read
a)
B. The existing local atmospheric pressure
b)
A. The existing fuel pressure
c)
C. The same with ait pressure in the carburettor
d)
D. The same with fuel air - mixture in the intake manifold
64.
Which of the following is a primary engine instrument
a)
D. Tachometer
b)
A. Fuel quantity indicator
c)
C. Airspeed indicator
65.
The instruments used in a cabin pressurization system are
a)
D. Cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb, cabin differential pressure
b)
A. Cabin altitude, cabin differential pressure
c)
B. Cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb, cabin differential pressure, cabin temperature
d)
C. Cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb
66.
The basic difference between an autosyn and a magnesyn remote indicating system is
a)
B. Rotor
b)
A. Motor
c)
C. Transmitter winding
d)
D. Receiver winding
67.
The following instrument use the principal of a dc selsyn system, except
a)
c. Float type fuel quantity indicator
b)
A. Flap position indicator
c)
B. Retractable L/G position indicator
d)
D. Angle of attack indicator
68.
A syncro type instrumen used to show the movement and position of landing gears or flap is
a)
C. DC selsyn system
b)
A. Autosyn system
c)
B. Magnesyn system
d)
D. Ratiometer system
69.
Which statement is correct concerning a thermocouple type temperature indicating instrument system?
a)
D. It requires no external power source
b)
A. It usually contain a balancing circuit in the instrument case to prevent fluctuations
c)
B. It is a balanced type, variable resistor circuit
d)
C. It requires direct current power source
70.
A Manifold pressure gauge is designed to
a)
D. Indicate differential pressure between the intake manifold and atmospheric
b)
A. Maintain constant pressure in the intake manifold
c)
B. Maintain differential pressure between intake manifold and fuel pressure
d)
C. Indicate absolute pressure in the intake manifold
71.
The basic components of the electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system consist of
a)
A. A tank probe, a bridge circuit, an amplifier, and indicator
b)
B. A tank unit, a computer/amplifier, and indicator
c)
C. An amplifier, a tank unit, a power supply, and indicator
d)
D. A tank probe, a transmitter, and a digital indicator
72.
In and electronic-type Fuel Quantity Indicating System, the tank sensing unit is
a)
C. Capacitor
b)
A. Variable resistor
c)
B. Variable conductor
d)
D Combine resistor and capacitor
73.
Capacitor-type fuel quantity indicating system measure fuel quantity by wheight (mass) rather than volume, because
a)
C. The electric strength of the fuel change in accordance with density
b)
A. Mass of fuel affected by temperature change
c)
B. Weight of fuel affected by gravity
d)
D. Measuring volume is easier than the weight
74.
Which unit most accurately indicates fuel consumption of a reciprocating engine?
a)
B. Fuel flowmeter
b)
A. Electronic fuel quantity indicator
c)
C. Fuel pressure gauge
d)
D. Fuel control unit
75.
Which of the following types of electric motors are commonly used in electric tachometer
a)
A. Synchronous motors
b)
B. AC single phase motor
c)
C. DC shunt-wound motors
d)
D. DC series wound motors
76.
The following type instrument system may employ a wheatstone bridge circuit, except
a)
D. Cylinder Head Temperature
b)
A. Outside Air Temperature
c)
B. Cabin Air Temperature
d)
C. Carburettor Air Temperature
77.
What instrument indicates the thrust of gas turbine engine?
a)
D. Indicator pressure ratio indicator
b)
A. Turbine inlet temperature indicator
c)
B. Exhaust gas temperatur indicator
d)
C. Thrust lever indicator
78.
What are the two main properties of a gyro which make it useful as the heart of flight instrument?
a)
B. Rigidity in space anf precession
b)
A. Rotation and acceleration
c)
C. Gravitation and apparent wander
d)
D. Anti-deviation and variation
79.
The characteristic of gyro to maintain the axis from original plane rotation is called
a)
A. Rigidity in space
b)
B. Acceleration
c)
c. Anti-deviation
d)
D. Precission
80.
A rate of gyro operates on the gyroscopic characteristic of
a)
A. Precession
b)
B. Rigidity
c)
C. Acceleration
d)
D. Deviation
81.
the rigidity of a gyroscope depends upon several design factor, except
a)
C. Direction of disturbing force
b)
A. Mass of rotor
c)
B. Angular velocity and bearing friction
d)
D. Radius at which the weight is consentrated
82.
Left horizon bar of attitude indicator move down, this mean the aircraft is
a)
D. Right Banking
b)
A. Climbing
c)
B. Descending
d)
C. Left Banking
83.
To much bank when compared with the rate of turn, will make the aircraft
a)
A. Slip
b)
B. Skid
c)
C. Climb
d)
D. Descend
84.
Air driving force for spinning a gyro instrument may be provided by
a)
C. A ventury system
b)
A. A suction pump
c)
B. Compressor bleed air
d)
D. A and C are true
85.
One component required in an instrument pneumatic system using a wet-type air pump that is not needed by a system using a dry-type pump is a/an
a)
B. Oil separator
b)
A. Pressure regulator
c)
C. Suction relief valve
d)
D. Air pump
86.
EGWPS gets altitude data as a terrain reference from
a)
D. Low range radio altimeter
b)
B. Baromatic altimeter
c)
C. Encoding altimeter
87.
In the landing configuratin GPWS monitors the Radar Altimeter, ADC, ILS, and the
a)
C. Landing gears and flaps position
b)
A. Aileron, rudder, and elevator position
c)
B. Spoiler, slat, and stabilizer position
d)
D. Automatic direction finder
88.
Mode 3 of the GPWS will occure when there is
a)
B. Excessive barometric altitude loss after take of
b)
A. Rate of altitude change about 5000 ft/min
c)
C. Unwanted gears down
d)
D. Excessive airspeed loss and flaps extend
89.
Where is the Flight Data Recorder (FDR) usually located?
a)
C. Near the tail section
b)
A. In the radom
c)
B. On the mainpanel
d)
D. In the centre of the wing
90.
A flight data recorder should be capable of recording
a)
C. The first 25 hours with engine running
b)
A. The first 25 hours of flight
c)
B. The first 25 hours since first engine running
d)
D. The first 25 hours of aircraft flight
91.
How long a cockpit voice recorder can store a flight deck conversation?
a)
D. The first 120 min of flight
b)
A. The first 25 min of flight
c)
B. The first 45 min of flight
d)
C. The first 60 min of flight
92.
The fixed reference line mark attached on the compass bowl of a magnetic compass is called
a)
B. Lubber line
b)
A. Card line
c)
C. Heading line
d)
D. Reeder line
93.
A magnetic compas bowl is filled with a liquid to
a)
A. Dampen the float oscilation
b)
B. Reduce deviation error
c)
C. More easy for compass reading
d)
D. Retard precession of the float
94.
An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date the compass correction card when
a)
D. Any equipment is added that could affect compas deviation
b)
A. The compass is serviced
c)
B. An annual inspection of the aircraft
d)
C. Any air bubble or liquid is less than normal condition
95.
A compass error caused by local magnetic fields in the aircraft and can be compensated (adjusted) when compas swung is
a)
B. Deviation
b)
A. Deflection
c)
C. Inclination
96.
The angular difference between the true and magnetic north
a)
D. Variation
b)
A. Glide slope
c)
B. Angle of attack
d)
C. Deviation
97.
What is the fixed feature of an ADI?
a)
D. The aircraft symbol
b)
A. The glideslope pointer
c)
B. The lateral deviation bar
d)
C. Marker beacon
98.
The EFIS main system consist of
a)
B. EADI, EHSI, symbol generators
b)
A. EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI
c)
C. Mode control panel, RDMI, EHSI
d)
D. EICAS, ADI, HIS and Engine Instrument
99.
EADI displays show
a)
A. Direction and Aircraft Attitude
b)
B. Heading and weather radar
c)
C. Pitch, roll, and waypoint
d)
D. Airspeed, altitude, pitch and roll attitudes
100.
Typical displays on an EHSI are
a)
C. VOR, Map, Plan, and weather radar
b)
A. Engine indication
c)
B. Airspeed, altitude, pitch and roll attitudes
d)
D. VOR, plan, map and attitude
101.
When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are displayed on an HIS, the indication is
a)
B. That fuction is inoperative
b)
A. That fuction is normal operating
c)
C. To give warning that any displacement of instrument part
d)
D. To call attention to deviation from the desire setting, or flight path, or heading, etc.
102.
On a modern 'glass cockpit' aircraft, engine information will be displayed on
a)
C. EICAS or ECAM
b)
A. FMS
c)
B. EFIS
d)
D. Head up display
103.
What does EICAS mean?
a)
C. Engine indicating and crew alerting system
b)
A. Electronic indicator and control alerting system
c)
B. Electronic indicator and crew alerting system
d)
D. Engine indicating and calibrated air speed
104.
If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd symbol generator?
a)
D. Standby or back up
b)
A. Comparison with No. 1 symbol generator
c)
B. Comparison with no. 2 symbol generator
d)
C. Parity fuction
105.
Cathode - Ray Tube (CRT) or LCD in an EFIS is used to
a)
B. Display alphanumeric data and represent of aircraft instrument
b)
A. Transmit data between components
c)
C. Select the system configuration for flight situation
d)
D. Receive and process input signal
106.
The function of a Symbol Generator (SG) in an EFIS is to
a)
D. Receive and process input signal from aircraft sensor
b)
A. Display alphanumeric data and aircraft representation
c)
B. Generate electrical signal from gyro system
d)
C. Allow the pilot to select the system configuration
107.
Modern aircraft with electronic display would display information on airframe and engine on which system
a)
A. Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM)
b)
B. Flight management system
c)
C. EADI
d)
D. EHSI
108.
The primary purpose of an auto pilot is
a)
D. To reduce the work, strain, and fatigue of the pilot especially during long flight
b)
A. To fly a more precise for the pilot
c)
B. To detect the thunder storm and guide the aircraft on its track
d)
C. To obtain the navigation aid for extend over water flight
109.
The main purpose of a servo in an auto pilot system is
a)
C. Move the control surface as commanded
b)
A. Change mechanical energy to electrical energy
c)
B. Change pressure energy to mechanical energy
d)
D. Correct for displacement of the aircraft about it axis
110.
The following components of an auto pilot are sensing element, except
a)
C. Magnetic amplifier
b)
A. Vertical gyro
c)
B. Directional gyro
d)
D. Altitude controller
111.
Which channel of an auto pilot detect changes in pitch attitude of an aircraft
a)
B. Elevator channel
b)
A. Rudder channel
c)
C. Yaw channel
d)
D. Aileron channel
112.
A part of an auto pilot provides the human pilot to allow manual control of the aircraft by operation of the auto pilot is the
a)
D. Flight Controller (CP)
b)
B. Control column
c)
C. Control surface
113.
An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording
a)
C. On engine start-up
b)
A. When power is applied to the aircraft
c)
B. On take-off
d)
D. On engine start shut down
114.
Cockpit panels have matt colour finish. The purpose is
a)
B. The amount of glare is reduced to minimum
b)
A. Pilots feel more comfortable during daytime
c)
C. Dust and dirt are less evident on panels
d)
D. High intensity light is not required
115.
To prevent interference from outside magnetic fields, most electrical instrument case is made of
a)
C. Iron or steel
b)
A. Alumunium or bakelite alloy
c)
B. Magnesium alloy
d)
D. Composite material
116.
Which of the following instrument discrepancies could be corrected by an aircraft
a)
D. Mounting screw loose and any leaking at a line
b)
A. Red line missing
c)
B. Glass cracked and fogged
d)
C. Case leaking and paint chipped
117.
Aircraft instrument panels are usually shock-mounted to absorb
a)
A. Low frequency, high amplitude shock
b)
B. High frequency, low amplitude shock
c)
C. High energy impact shock caused by hard landing
d)
D. All vibration from engine operation
118.
What are the outputs from digital clock used for?
a)
A. Flight data acquisition unit, flight management computer and voice recorder
b)
B. EFIS and ECAM or EICAS
c)
C. VOR, ILS and DME
d)
D. Weather radar, TCAS and ACARS
119.
CADC or DADC outputs are
a)
C. Altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT
b)
A. Attitude, direction, and rate of turn
c)
B. Altitude, vertical speed, IAS, mach no
d)
D. Altitude, vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT
120.
A methode used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an enginering and monitoring ground station is
a)
C. TAWS
b)
A. TCAS II
c)
B. ACARS
d)
D. ACARS
121.
Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to
a)
C. Perform in-flight BITE only
b)
A. Give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status
c)
B. Display attitude and direction or heading of aircraft
d)
D. Perform in-flight and ground test of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE
122.
The centralized aircraft monitoring system uses the maintenance mode of operation
a)
A. On the ground only
b)
B. On the grounf and aircraft on jack
c)
C. In the air only
d)
D. Either ground or air
123.
Another name of Artificial Horizone is
a)
A. Attitude Directior Indicator
b)
B. Flight Director Indicator
c)
C. Horizontal Situation Indicator
d)
D. Standby Horrizone
124.
Another name of Directional gyro indicatior are?
a)
B. Horizontal situation indicator
b)
A. Course indicator
c)
C. Flight director indicator
d)
D. Attitude director indicator
125.
The acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing and the relative wind is known as the
a)
A. Angle of attack
b)
B. Angle of incidence
c)
C. Longitudinal dihedral angle
126.
Relative airflow is
a)
D. The vector that represents the movement of the undisturbed atmosphere relative to the aircraft
b)
A. The airflow directly above the aerofoil that helps to generate lift
c)
B. The wind relative to the atmosphere
d)
C. Opposite to the direction of movement of the aircraft relative to the flight path
127.
Which of the following type of aircraft structures reduce fuel consumption and increase range
a)
B. Winglets
b)
A. Wing fence
c)
C. Both A & B
128.
Refer to Bernoulli's principle that when a fluid (air) flowing through a tube reaches a constiction, the speed of the fluid flowing through that constriction is increased and it's pressure is decreased it's mean
a)
B. Divergent tube
b)
A. Convergent tube
c)
C. Square tube
129.
A flight condition in which angle of attack is reached at which the air ceases to flow smoothly over the upper surface on an airfoil, the air become turbulent & lift is lost. That condition is called
a)
C. Stall
b)
A. Cruising
c)
B. Climb
130.
What kind of wing to increase the lateral stability
a)
C. Dihedral wing
b)
A. High wing
c)
B. Low wing
131.
At sea level, what is the average atmospheric pressure in psi, "HG, and milibars respectively?
a)
C. 14,7 psi; 29,92"HG; 1013,25 mbar
b)
A. 1,47 psi; 29,92"HG; 1013,25 mbar
c)
B. 14,7 psi; 29,92"HG; 10,13 mbar
132.
What happens to the pressure of a fluid in a container wen it's heated?
a)
A. Pressure increase
b)
B. Pressure decrease
c)
C. Pressure remains the same
133.
Which are the propotions of gases below are correct?
a)
A. Nitrogen 78%, Oxygen 21%, and other gases 1%
b)
B. Nitrogen 21%, Oxygen 78%, and other gases 1%
c)
C. Nitrogen 10%, Oxygen 70%, and other gases 20%
134.
The rotary motion spiral back from the wing tip, moving in anticlockwise direction from RH wing and in clockwise direction from the LH wing tip is called?
a)
B. Induce drag
b)
A. Form drag
c)
C. Interference drag
135.
As the angle of attack of an airfoil increase, the centre of pressure will
a)
A. Move toward the leading edge
b)
B. Remain stationary because both lift and drag component increase proportionally the increased angle of attack
c)
C. Move towad the trailing edge
136.
Speaking about wing planform, where is the area of the rectangular wing stall begin?
a)
A. From the wing root toward to wingtip area
b)
B. From the wingtip toward to wing root area
c)
C. It's simultaneously stall at all area of the wing
137.
For a given type of specification of aircraft, more cargo loading will have
a)
A. Higher stalling speed than the less cargo loading
b)
B. Lower stalling speed than the less cargo loading
c)
C. It dows not effect on the stalling angle
138.
When an aircraft has tendency to keep a constant angle of attack with reference to the relative wind direction it said to have?
a)
A. Longitudinal stability
b)
B. Directional stability
c)
C. Lateral stability
139.
When the disturbed object tend to return to equilibrium, the object has
a)
B. Positive static stability
b)
A. Dynamic stability
c)
C. Positive dynamic stability
140.
An airplane's centre of lift is usually located aft of it's centre of gravity
a)
C. So that the airplane will have a nose heavy tendency
b)
A. To improve stability about the longitudinal axis
c)
B. So that the airplane will have a tail heavy tendency
141.
The centre of gravity (CG) moves in flight. Most likely cause of this is
a)
C. Fuel burn and L/G retraction
b)
A. Movement passenger
c)
B. Movement of the centre of pressure
142.
A high aspect ratio wing will give
a)
A. High profile and low induced drag
b)
B. Low profile and high induced drag
c)
C. Low profile and low induced drag
143.
Not a factor for increasing the lift
a)
B. Angle of bank
b)
A. AOA
c)
C. Velocity
144.
An aircraft washout wing, will tends to stall first at
a)
C. The root due to a higher ratio thickness/chord
b)
A. The tip due to a higher ratio thickness/chord
c)
B. The tip due to a lower ratio thickness/chord
145.
What effect would a forward CG have on an aircraft on landing?
a)
A. Increase stall speed
b)
B. Reduce stall speed
c)
C. Increase aspcet ratio
146.
If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position trim tab on the rudder?
a)
B. To the right
b)
A. To the centre
c)
C. To the left
147.
If an aircraft flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?
a)
B. Up
b)
A. Down
c)
C. Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
148.
With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing
a)
A. Increase
b)
B. Decrease
c)
C. remain the same
149.
Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying the lift constant it would be necessary to
a)
A. Lower the nose
b)
B. Keep the pitch attitude constant
c)
C. Raise the nose
150.
The transition point on a wing is the point where
a)
A. The boundary layer flow changes from laminar to turbulent
b)
B. The flow divides to pass above and below the wing
c)
C. The flow separates from the wing surface
151.
Vortex generators are fitted to
a)
B. Move transition point rearwards
b)
A. Move transition point forwards
c)
C. Advance the onset of flow separation
152.
The temperature and pressure remain the same, an aircraft requires a longer runway for takeoff on
a)
B. Damp day
b)
A. Dry day
c)
C. Sea level altitude
153.
When more water vapor in the air, the density will
a)
B. Less
b)
A. More
c)
C. Constant
154.
When banking an aircraft, the spoilers?
a)
A. Function with ailerons
b)
B. Function with flaps
c)
C. Not function
155.
What is the function of slats?
a)
A. Reduce stall speed
b)
B. Increase stall speed
c)
C. Reduce chamber of airfoil
156.
When leading edge of flaps is fully extended, what is the slot in wing for?
a)
A. To re-energise the boundary layer
b)
B. To reduce the boundary layer
c)
C. To make turbulence airflow
157.
A thick wing have
a)
A. Low fineness ratio
b)
B. High aspect ratio
c)
C. High fineness ratio
158.
To restore the original strenght on repair work of structural part, a number of rivets are required. The number of rivets varies according to
a)
A. The thickness of material being repaired and the size of damage
b)
B. The thickness of material being repaired and size of rivet used
c)
C. The size of damage and type of rivet
d)
D. The thickness of material being repaired
159.
The set back of bending of 90° can be calculated using formula
a)
A. S.B. = R + T
b)
B. S.B. = R + 1/2 T
c)
C. S.B. = (0.01743 x R + 0.0078 x T) x N
d)
D. Answer A and C are correct
160.
The damage (crack) on fuselage skin will be repaired by riveting. The required strength is approximately 6600 lbs. the diameter of rivet used 1/8" and shear stregth 344 lbs. Bearing strength of material 366 lbs. How many rivets are required on each side of the damage?
a)
A. 17 Rivets
b)
A. 16 Rivets
c)
A. 32 Rivets
d)
A. 34 Rivets
161.
What is the minimum edge distance of a rivet on a riveting joint?
a)
C. 2 diameter rivet
b)
A. 2,5 diameter rivet
c)
B. 3 diameter rivet
d)
D. 3,5 diameter rivet
162.
Electric resistance welding is a welding process in which the heat produced by
a)
A. A low-voltage, high-amperage current applied to the metals to be welded through a heavy, low-resistance copper conductor
b)
B. A high-voltage, low-amperage current applied to the metals to be welded through a heavy, low-resistance copper conductor
c)
C. A low-voltage, high-amperage current applied to the metals to be welded through a heavy, high-resistance copper conductor
d)
D. high-voltage, high-amperage current applied to the metals to be welded through a heavy, high-resistance copper conductor
163.
These are three type of flames commonly used on gas welding. These are
a)
C. Neutral flame, reducing flame, and oxidizing flame
b)
A. Neutral flame, carbonizing flame, and oxiding flame
c)
B. Balance flame, reducing flame, and oxidizing flame
d)
D. neutral flame, balance flame, and oxiding flame
164.
The diameter of pilot drill for pre-drilling of rivet hole should be
a)
D. The same as diameter of rivet
b)
A. 0,001" higher than diameter of rivet
c)
B. 0,001" lower than diameter rivet
d)
C. Max 0.006" higher than diameter of rivets
165.
The head of the soft hammer may be made of
a)
C. Brass or lead
b)
A. Stainless steel
c)
B. Iron
d)
D. Alumunium
166.
The heavy duty screwdriver is made with
a)
A. A heavy blade and square shank
b)
B. A heavy blade and round shank
c)
C. A light blade and square shank
d)
D. A light blade and round shank
167.
The general purpose hacksaw blade is usually used for cutting cast iron, bearing metal, tool steel and solid alumunium. This kind of blade has
a)
B. 18 teeth per inch
b)
A. 14 teeth per inch
c)
C. 24 teeth per inch
d)
D. 32 teeth per inch
168.
The best file used for finishing sharp corner is
a)
B. Knife file
b)
A. Triangular file
c)
C. Half round file
d)
D. Flat file
169.
What is the most important criteria of pure alumunium materials over other materials for aircraft structure?
a)
C. Corrosion resistant
b)
A. strength
c)
B. Weight
d)
D. Hard
170.
Alclad is a metal consisting of?
a)
B. Pure Al surface layers on a Al alloy-core
b)
A. Al-alloy surface layers and a pure Al core
c)
C. A homogeneus mixture or pure Al and Al-Alloy
d)
D. 100% pure alumunium
171.
When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for penetration?
a)
B. The penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal
b)
A. The penetration should be 22 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal
c)
C. The penetration should be covered of the base metal
d)
D. Look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of every high bead
172.
The punch which have taper all the way to the face is
a)
D. Drive punch
b)
A. Pin punch
c)
B. Centre punch
d)
C. Prick punch
173.
The clamping devices to recommended for hold cylindrical work is
a)
B. V - block with clamp
b)
A. C - clamp
c)
C. Bench vice
d)
D. Paralel Clamp
174.
If a clad sheet of alumunium is 0.032 inch thick, the pure alumunium is
a)
B. 0.0016 inch
b)
A. 0.0061 inch
c)
C. 0.0081 inch
d)
D. 0.00192 inch
175.
MS20426 D 5-4 is one of the most common fasteners used on the aircraft repair. "D" signifies rivet's
a)
A. Material
b)
B. Diameter
c)
C. Length
d)
D. Thread
176.
The predominant alloying element of stainless steel is?
a)
B. Chromium
b)
A. Silicon
c)
C. Vanadium
d)
D. Iron
177.
A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend is reffered to as the?
a)
A. Bend allowance
b)
B. Neutral line
c)
C. Bend radius
d)
D. Metal size
178.
What is the best coolant to prevent drill from breaking, dulling, or burning?
a)
A. Water
b)
B. Grease
c)
C. Oil
d)
D. Palm oil
179.
The preferred way to make permanent repairs on composites is by
a)
D. Laminating on new repair plies
b)
A. Bonding on metal or cured composite patches
c)
B. Riveting on metal or cured composite patches
d)
C. Riveting on new repair plies
180.
The material that normally used as conductor on aircraft electrical system is (are)
a)
A. Alumunium and copper
b)
B. Gold
c)
C. Copper only
d)
D. Aluminium only
181.
On micrometer, the part having the division of 0.001 of an inch is
a)
B. Thimble
b)
A. Sleeve
c)
C. Spindle
d)
D. Anvil
100 %
