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off shoring

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fill in the missing parts in the following text:


(a)   - This happens when an organization relocates some of its operations overseas, usually due to cost advantages.

2.

Which of the following is not a feature of a good system of employee appraisal at a business?

a)

If performance is less than satisfactory, it should be followed by counseling and training

b)

It should result in new SMART targets for the employee for the forthcoming year

c)

In case of a less than satisfactory performance, it should always result in a warning letter to the employee or a dismissal

d)

Appraisals should ideally be against a pre-agreed criteria for an employee

3.

Which of the following is not a direct reason for conducting appraisals?

a)

To help to identify training needs

b)

To help improve workforce planning

c)

To help assess an employee’s performance against agreed targets

d)

To help management reward high achieving employees through promotions and bonuses

4.

Fill in the missing parts in the following text:


(a)   - A major and vital aspect of human resource management, this refers to the procedures/processes involved in the hiring of the right employees, with the right aptitudes and attitudes.


{Training, Recruitment process, or Appraisal???} Type it exactly as it is inside the parenthesis/brackets.

5.

Fill in the missing parts in the following text:


(a)   - The career advancement of an employee in terms of their hierarchical ranking and professional responsibilities.


{Job progress or Promotion???} Type it exactly as it is inside the parenthesis/brackets.

6.

What HRM stands for:

a)

Human Resource Mapping

b)

Human Resource Management

c)

Human Resource Making

7.

A type of appraisal system that provides feedback from a range of people who work with or interact with the appraisee, such as their line manager, co-workers, subordinates and even customers.

a)

Formative

b)

360-degree appraisal

c)

Summative

d)

Self-appraisal

8.

Which of the following does not directly contribute to and aid in workforce planning?

a)

Demographic trends in population

b)

Promotional strategies of the business

c)

Labor turnover in recent years

d)

State of the economy and unemployment rate in the industry

9.

Which of the following is not an advantage of induction training?

a)

Enables an employee to embrace the role and expectations of the new job

b)

Enables employers to set clear expectations

c)

Diverts/diversifies activities of senior managers adding more tasks to their jobs

d)

Creates fewer disruptions

10.

Type of training that takes place within the organization, so employee are performing tasks at the place of work.

a)

Induction & On-the-job

b)

Off-the-job

c)

On-the-job

11.

Which term describes when a business can no longer afford to employ a worker, or when a job ceases to exist, on account of seasonal or technological factors?

a)

Redundancy

b)

Reinstatement

c)

Redeployment

d)

Dismissal

12.

Flexible working practice that involves employees being away from the office as they rely on the use of telecommunications technologies, e.g. internet and mobile technologies.

a)

Teleworking & Part-Time Working

b)

Teleworking & Homeworking

c)

Temporary & Teleworking

d)

Homeworking & Three-Day Weekend

13.

Which of the following does not qualify as an advantage of internal recruitment?

a)

Getting new ideas into the business

b)

Motivational tool for existing workers

c)

Relatively cheap

d)

Less risky as internal candidates are tried and tested

14.

Which term describes the process of scrutinizing the various roles and responsibilities of a job prior to recruitment?

a)

Job description

b)

Job analysis

c)

Market analysis

d)

Performance appraisal

15.

The most accurate description for: Working away from the office using electronic forms of communication technologies such as smartphones and Wi-Fi broadband is?

a)

Homeworking

b)

Teleworking

c)

Portfolio working

d)

Job sharing

16.

Training and developing mental skills to improve work related performance is referred to as what?

a)

On-the-job training

b)

Behavioural training

c)

Induction training

d)

Cognitive training

17.

Which of the following statements is least likely to be true about formative appraisals?

a)

Can help to improve labor productivity

b)

Helps to identify training needs

c)

Can only be conducted using tests

d)

Helps to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the employee

18.

Which of the following practices would not help businesses improve their staff retention rate?

a)

Increased working hours

b)

Opportunities for professional development

c)

Employee loyalty award schemes

d)

Opportunities for promotion

19.

Which document details the ideal profile of a desirable candidate, including the required or preferred qualifications, skills and experiences?

a)

Job advertisement

b)

Job description

c)

Job analysis

d)

Person specification

20.

What is the management process of forecasting an organization’s current and future staff needs? It is a part of?

a)

Workforce planning

b)

Work patterns and practices

c)

Training

d)

Recruitment

21.

What is the Labour Turnover of AEON Citimart for the year 2020; if the number of staff that leaves every month during the year 2020 was 36 pax/people?

, taking into account that AEON Citimart has employed an average of 3 new people per day during the year 2020 plus the core team that is a constant of 300 people. Then, what is their Labour Turnover of AEON Citimart?

a)

19.726

b)

30.967

c)

72

d)

27.186

22.

.... is the coordinated management of interdependent projects over a finite period of time in order to achieve a set of business goals.

a)

Resources

b)

Time

c)

Scope

d)

Project Management

23.

Below are the critical success factors in project management, except:

a)

Recruitment Process

b)

Decision-Making Process

c)

Project Scope

d)

Team Work

24.

.... is the process of developing a planned approach to change in an organization.

a)

Project Management

b)

Supply Chain Management

c)

Change Management

d)

None of Them

25.

Below are the three steps of OPM3, except:

a)

Knowledge

b)

Improvement

c)

Time

d)

Assessment

26.

.... is defined as a set of logically related tasks performed to achieve a defined business outcome.

a)

Business Process

b)

Project Management

c)

Customer Relationship Management

d)

Supply Chain Management

27.

This phase addresses timing of processes and the changes needed to meet the original set of goals in BPR Methodology

a)

As Is

b)

To Be

c)

Testing and Measurement

d)

None of Them

28.

... is when a company selects an outsourcing partner from another country.

a)

Outsourcer

b)

Off-Shoring

c)

Outsourcee

d)

ERP

29.

The right to control what information needs to be safeguarded and what can be made available to the public.

a)

Privacy

b)

Accuracy

c)

Property

d)

Accessibility

30.

Below are the e-SCM components, except:

a)

E-logistics

b)

E-procurement

c)

Replenishment Systems

d)

E-business

31.

Provide ongoing support for the client and to assist in the operation of the product or service purchase.

a)

Campaign Management

b)

Sales Management

c)

Service Management

d)

Complaint Management

32.

What is a job description?

a)

The process of identifying what a particular job entails

b)

A document which outlines the applicant's educational achievements, professional qualifications and skills

c)

A document that provides details of a particular job 

d)

A document that gives the profile of the ideal candidate for a job 

33.

Tests used to assess a candidate's skills of numeracy, literacy and general knowledge are:

a)

Psychometric tests

b)

Aptitude testing

c)

Intelligence tests

d)

Trade tests

34.

Which of the following labour mobility refers to the extent to which workers are able and willing to relocate to another area for employment purposes?

a)

Occupational mobility

b)

Occupational immobility

c)

Geographical mobility

d)

Geographical immobility

35.

Which of the following refers to the number of staff away from work as a percentage of the firm's total workforce, per time period?

a)

High labour turnover

b)

Absenteeism

c)

Labour turnover

d)

Average number of staff

36.

The ageing population in economically developed countries has many implications on workforce planning:

a)

Higher labour productivity levels

b)

Changing consumption patterns

c)

Lower labour productivity levels

d)

Increased labour mobility

37.

What is the main method of selection for internal and external recruitment?

a)

Shorlisting

b)

Interview

c)

Aptitude testing

d)

Application form

38.

Which of the following training refers to exercising and developing the mental skills of employees?

a)

Behavioural training

b)

Cognitive training

c)

Induction

d)

Mentoring

39.

What are the advantages of off-the-job training?

a)

Fewer disruptions to daily operations

b)

A wider range of skills and qualifications

c)

Cheapest form of training

d)

Improve the productivity of workers

40.

Target setting is a part of appraisals, and should be SMART:

a)

Summative, measurable, adaptative, realistic and time bound

b)

Specific, measurable, adaptive, realisitc and time bound

c)

Specific, measurable, achievable, realistic and time bound

d)

Summative, measurable, achievable, realistic and time bound

41.

An appraisal which takes place on an on-going basis to enable employees to improve their job performance is a:

a)

Formative appraisal

b)

Summative appraisal

c)

360-degree feedback

d)

Self-appraisal

42.

Which of the following refers to the termination of a worker's employment due to their incompetence or breach of employment contract?

a)

Dismissal

b)

Redundancy

43.

How can you define teleworking?

a)

Employees are looking for job opportunities overseas

b)

Employees work away from the office by using electronic forms of communication

c)

Employees work from home by using electronic forms of communciation

d)

Employees have the right to choose when they work

44.

The practice of relocating business functions or activities abroad is:

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Offshoring

c)

Re-shoring

d)

Re-sourcing

45.

Which of the following social media is mainly used as part of the recruitment process?

a)

Instagram

b)

Twitter

c)

LinkedIn

d)

Facebook

46.

Today, more business are choosing to re-shore their operations, why?

a)

Increasing use of information communications technologies (ICT)

b)

Unethical treatment of people in the workplace

c)

Unethical business practices

d)

High rates of labour turnover

47.

Is it necessary to have a good environment to promote creativity?

a)

Yes

b)

No

48.

What's Shawn's position in the company he works in?

a)

He is a lawyer.

b)

He is a product manager.

49.

At what time must Shawn have the presentation done?

a)

11:00 am

b)

9:00 am

50.

Shawn feels stressed because ____________.

a)

He has a lot of work.

b)

He is missing big ideas.

c)

He doesn't want to work.

d)

He has many ideas.

51.

Shawn's supervisor's name is __________.

a)

Vincent

b)

Victor

c)

John

d)

Lisa

52.

What did Vincent do to help Shawn?

a)

He built a new work place.

b)

He built a new building.

c)

Hired a new employee.

53.

What elements did the new workplace have? *multiple answers.

a)

Open-plan offices.

b)

Big cafeteria.

c)

Common areas.

d)

Wellness areas.

54.

Where does Shawn have his best ideas?

a)

Outside the office.

b)

In the office.

c)

At the park.

55.

Why are not many people creative?

a)

There are many distractors around.

b)

They don't want to think.

56.

Where does Lisa have her best ideas?

a)

At the university.

b)

In the garage.

57.

If the CEO of Firestone in Liberia says that his only responsibility is to satisfy shareholders, he is following the ___ doctrine

a)

Utilitarian

b)

Human rights

c)

Friedman

d)

Kant

58.

When Nike says that they pay their workers in Honduras $2 per day because that is what other companies pay, they follow the ___ doctrine

a)

naive immoralist

b)

righteous moralist

c)

Utilitarian

d)

Kant

59.

The utilitarian approach to ethics could be compared to

a)

a scale that weigh the good more than the bad

b)

a balance sheet where good is more than bad

c)

an evaluation of consequences so that benefits are more than negatives

d)

All the above

60.

Righteous Moralist approach is that ____ ethics are appropriate for companies to follow in foreign countries

a)

home country

b)

host country

c)

the ethics of other companies in the host country

d)

United Nations

61.

Who said: the only social responsibility of business is to increase profits, so long as the company stays within the rules of law

a)

Emmanuel Kant

b)

Friedman

c)

Karl Marx

d)

Bill Gates

62.

“When in Rome, do as the Romans do” is typical of the ___ethical approach

a)

cultural relativism

b)

utilitarian

c)

Kantian

d)

Friedman

63.

The roots of unethical behaviour lies in

a)

Personal ethics

b)

Unrealistic performance expectations

c)

Leadership

d)

Organizational culture

e)

All the above

64.

The____ prohibits U.S. companies from paying bribes to foreign government officials in order to gain business

a)

United Nations

b)

Foreign Corrupt Practices Act

c)

World court

d)

International Law

65.

When work conditions in a host nation are inferior to those in an MNC's home nation, what standards should be applied?

a)

Home country's standards

b)

Host country standards

c)

Something in-between

66.

Ethical approaches are influenced by

a)

religion

b)

culture

c)

values

d)

all the above

67.

Blue ocean strategies tap into...

a)

very competitive markets

b)

unknown markets

c)

well structured markets

d)

forgotten markets

68.

Having a good ... plan should lead you to making the right decision that will get you the most profits.

a)

strategy

b)

strategical

c)

strategic

d)

strategized

69.

The ... potential refers to amount of sales or revenues the organization generates.

a)

growth

b)

growing

c)

grew

d)

growed

70.

When a company thrives it ...

a)

is in a recession.

b)

does poorly.

c)

is in decline.

d)

does well.

71.

We wanted to make sure Billy was a good fit for our ... culture.

a)

corporation

b)

corporated

c)

corporate

d)

corporating

72.

A strategic move is an action with a particular...

a)

purpose in relation to objectives.

b)

goal the company wants to reach.

c)

message to shareholders.

d)

strategy to make more money.

73.

A company dominates a market when...

a)

it's doing well in a market.

b)

it just started selling in a market.

c)

it stops selling in a market.

d)

it's the biggest competitor there.

74.

To establish a foothold in a market means...

a)

starting to sell in a market for first time.

b)

occupying small part of market.

c)

outdoing the main competitors.

d)

loosing against competitors.

75.

Job ... will be an important issue in next year's election.

a)

creative

b)

created

c)

creating

d)

creation

76.

A lot of ... advice can be found in her book.

a)

value

b)

valuable

c)

valued

d)

valuing

77.

The goal of most firms is to choose a strategy that

a)

maximizes the value of the firm for its shareholders

b)

that minimizes costs

c)

that emphasizes high sales

d)

that controls both costs and expenses

78.

__________ is a ratio or rate of return concept.

a)

A. Profitability

b)

B. Performance

c)

C. Cash flow

d)

D. Efficiency

79.

. Two basic conditions determine a firm's profits:

a)

A) the firm's costs of production and the state of the economy

b)

B) the amount of value customers place on the firm's good and services and the firm's costs of production

c)

C) the quality of a firm's products and the industry the firm participates in

d)

D) the industry the firm participates in and the state of the economy

80.

The percentage increase in net profits over time is

a)

A) capital return

b)

B) profitability

c)

C) net profits

d)

D) profit growth

81.

A strategy that focuses on lowering production costs is referred to as a:

a)

A. differentiation strategy.

b)

B. cost minimization strategy.

c)

C. low cost strategy.

d)

D. efficiency strategy.

82.

A consumer surplus can be thought of as _____________.

a)

A. what the consumer has “left-over” after a purchase

b)

B. how much extra a consumer has to pay for a product

c)

C. value for the money

d)

D. the higher price the consumer must pay for getting a quality product

83.

In the context of value chain analysis, the primary activities of a firm include:

a)

A) R&D, human resources, materials management, and production

b)

B) service, human resources, production, and materials management

c)

C) company infrastructure, information systems, human resources, and materials management

d)

D) R&D, production, marketing & sales, and service

84.

Global expansion allows firms to achieve all of the following except _______________________.

a)

A) minimize returns by failing to capture skills developed in foreign countries

b)

B) realize location economies by dispersing value creation activities on the optimal location

c)

C) realize cost economies from experience effects generated by serving a larger market from a central location

d)

D) expand the market for their domestic product offerings by selling those products in international markets

85.

Companies that are successful at global expansion are successful at transferring their

a)

A. competitive advantage

b)

B. comparative advantage

c)

C. core competencies

d)

D. core advantage

86.

Economies that arise from performing a value creation activity in the optimal location for that activity are referred to as _________________.

a)

A) factor economies

b)

B) production economies

c)

C) location economies

d)

D) value creation economies

87.

When individuals learn the most efficient ways to perform particular tasks, there are

a)

A) location economies

b)

B) value creation effects

c)

C) experience curve effects

d)

D) learning effects

88.

Economies of scale arise from all of the following sources EXCEPT _______________________.

a)

A) locating production in the optimal location

b)

B) spreading fixed costs over a large volume

c)

C) serving global markets

d)

D) bargaining with suppliers to bring down the cost of key inputs

89.

When a firm needs to minimize its unit costs, the firm is facing __________________.

a)

A. pressure for cost reduction

b)

B. pressure to be locally responsive

c)

C. pressure for location economies

d)

D. pressure for experience effects

90.

Responding to _______________ requires that a firm differentiate its product offering and marketing strategy from country to country in an effort to respond to differences in consumers tastes and preferences, business practices, distribution channels, competitive conditions, and government policies.

a)

A) pressure for cost reductions

b)

B) pressure for experience effects

c)

C) pressure for location economies

d)

D) pressure to be locally responsive

91.

A firm that is positioned in the upper left hand corner of the cost reductions/local responsiveness grid is facing

a)

A) high pressure for local responsiveness and high pressure for cost reductions

b)

B) low pressure for local responsiveness and high pressure for cost reductions

c)

C) high pressure for local responsiveness and low pressure for cost reductions

d)

D) low pressure for local responsiveness and low pressure for cost reductions

92.

. All of the following add to the pressure to be locally responsive except _____________.

a)

A) national differences in infrastructure

b)

B) differences in accepted business practices

c)

C) consumers with low switching costs

d)

D) host government demands

93.

Firms such as Intel or Texas Instruments that produce products serving universal needs follow a _______ strategy.

a)

A) global standardization

b)

B) localization

c)

C) international

d)

D) transnational

94.

Apple Inc. suit with strategy _____________

a)

international

b)

global standardization

c)

localization

d)

transnational

95.

The best strategy for Mcdonalds is

a)

international

b)

localization

c)

global standardization

d)

transnational

96.

strategy to get A in PBS3233

a)

flattering with lecturer

b)

hardworking

c)

answer all assessment correctly

d)

doing the best in final exam

97.

Services are intangible in nature.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Crossed Cheques are to be deposited only in the payees account.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

The central bank of India is--------

(a)  

100.

The bank which controls and coordinates currency and credit policy of India is (a)  

101.

The commercial banks of India are governed by (a)  

102.

The bank which acts as a government banker is (a)  

103.

The banking services provided through internet is called

a)

a)C – banking

b)

b) Exchange banking

c)

c)E – banking

d)

d) Wide banking

104.

Kotak Mahindra bank is an example of:

a)

a) Public Sector Bank

b)

b) Private Sector bank

c)

c) Cooperative bank

d)

d) Specialized bank

105.

Name the document

(a)  

106.

Identify the two terms given in the picture

(a)  

107.

Identify the name of the bank

(a)  

108.

Identify the name of the Bank by looking into the logo and tagline

(a)  

109.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding culture? 

a)

Culture is static.

b)

Culture varies across and within nations.

c)

Culture is a system of values and norms that are shared among a group of people

d)

Culture involves the knowledge and beliefs of people.

110.

The system of values and norms that are shared among a group of people and that when taken together constitute a design for living best defines:

a)

society

b)

value systems

c)

principle

d)

culture

111.

Social rules and guidelines that prescribe appropriate behavior in particular situations are best described as: 

a)

norms

b)

values

c)

culture

d)

society

112.

A group of people who share a common set of values and norms form a:

a)

Caste

b)

Class

c)

Society

d)

Country

113.

_____ are the routine conventions of everyday life

a)

Folkways

b)

Mores

c)

Rites

d)

Belief

114.

An act, as simple as shaking hands when meeting new people is an example of:

a)

Mores

b)

Folkways

c)

Behavior

d)

Social stratification

115.

Which of the following statements about mores is true?

a)

Mores are the routine conventions of daily life.

b)

Mores are actions of little moral significance

c)

In many societies, certain mores have been enacted into law

d)

People who violate mores may be thought of as ill-mannered, but they are not considered to be evil

116.

Which of the following refers to the extent to which individuals can move out of the strata into which they are born? 

a)

Caste stratification

b)

Class system

c)

Social mobility

d)

Individual potential

117.

Which of the following is a closed system of stratification in which social position is determined by the family into which a person is born, and change in that position is usually not possible during an individual's lifetime? 

a)

Caste system

b)

Class system

c)

Social system

d)

Cultural system

118.

Religion may be defined as:

a)

routine conventions of everyday life.

b)

social rules that govern people's acts toward each other.

c)

shared beliefs and rituals that are concerned with the realm of the sacred

d)

a set of moral principals, or values that are used to guide and shape behavior

119.

Which of the following sociologists made a connection between Protestant ethics and

"the spirit of capitalism"?

a)

Karl Marx

b)

Max Weber

c)

Amartya Sen

d)

Adam Smith

120.

Which of the following observations is correct?

a)

The economic principles established in the Koran are against free enterprise

b)

The economic principles of Islam prohibit the payment or receipt

of interest.

c)

The Koran speaks disapprovingly of earning profit through trade and commerce

d)

None are correct

121.

The _____ dimension of Hofstede's study explores how a society deals with the fact

that people are unequal in physical and intellectual capabilities.

a)

power distance

b)

uncertainty avoidance

c)

individualism vs collectivism

d)

masculinity vs feminism

122.

The individualism versus collectivism dimension of Hofstede's study explored:

a)

the extent to which different cultures socialized their members into accepting ambiguous situations and tolerating uncertainty

b)

the relationship between the individual and his fellows

c)

the relationship between gender and work roles

d)

none are correct

123.

Which of the following is an example of ethnocentrism?

a)

A manager looks down on his subordinates who are in lower caste, compared to him

b)

An upper-middle class woman talks rudely to a sales person, because she looks down upon individuals belonging to the working-class

c)

An American manager criticizes the cultural practices of Saudi Arabia, when he is

sent there on business, because it differs from his own cultural norms

d)

None are correct