To determine pulselessness in an unresponsive adult patient, palpate the _____ pulse. In an infant, palpate the _____ pulse.

Your patient is a 58-year-old male. He is unresponsive, breathless, and pulseless. You should perform CPR at the rate of _____ compressions per minute.

A patient is receiving CPR and has had an endotracheal tube inserted by an advanced provider. Which of the following is correct?

If a patient is unresponsive and can’t maintain his own airway and you suspect trauma, open the patient’s airway by using a _____ maneuver.

Which of the following terms describes occasional and gasping respirations?

In CPR, the rate of compressions for adult, child, and infant is how many per minute?

The highest level of EMS provider is:

Emergency Medical Responder care is usually authorized by:

As an Emergency Medical Responder, which of the following should you set as your top priority at the scene of an emergency?

A(n) ____ is a facility that is capable of advanced care on a 24-hour basis and that meets criteria established by the American College of Surgeons.

Patients of legal age who are competent and who accept your care are giving____ consent.

Standard Precautions may include:

An Emergency Medical Responder possesses all of the following skills EXCEPT:

In an emergency in which a patient is so severely injured that a clear decision cannot be made, you have the right to provide care based on _________ consent.

A careful and deliberate walk around a scene, scanning for dangers or hazards, is known as a:

Appropriate lifestyle changes to aid in dealing with stress would include all of the following EXCEPT:

An Emergency Medical Responder who flees a scene because of potential violence and positions himself behind a brick retaining wall is using which technique?

A patient with a terminal illness has an outburst where she yells “Why is this happening to me?” This patient is exhibiting what stage of the grieving process?

Disease-causing agents are called:

Practice to prevent exposure to disease during patient contact is called:

If an Emergency Medical Responder has an exposure and the contamination involves the eyes, it is recommended that irrigation be done for a minimum of:

If you observe potential signs of violence at a scene, what should your first action be?

If you find danger from a threatening person at a scene, do all of the following EXCEPT:

The Emergency Medical Responder must balance the need for rapid response to emergencies with the avoidance of becoming part of the incident itself, using the concepts of:

An Emergency Medical Responder’s obligation to keep patients from getting hurt further is the goal of:

An Emergency Medical Responder should position herself to communicate with a patient:

The personal space around a patient is _____ feet in all directions.

Which of the following is a barrier to communication?

A person who is lying down on her left side is in a(n) _____ position.

A person who is standing erect, with arms at sides and palms forward, is in a(n) ____ position.

The opposite of anterior, which refers to the front, is _____, which refers to the back.

The spinal column is divided into how many sections?

The ________ is the longest and strongest bone in the body.

The shoulder girdle consists of:

A person who is lying face up on his back is in a(n) _____ position.

How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum?

Which organ is particularly sensitive to an inadequate supply of oxygen and may, as a result, cause the patient to exhibit such signs as restlessness and anxiety?

How many bones are in the spinal column?

The skull, rib cage, and spinal column are referred to together as the:

Proximal means close, or near the point of reference, and _____ means distant, or far away from the point of reference.

The fluid that surrounds the brain is called:

Manual _____ is the technique used to keep the head and neck aligned when the patient has a suspected neck injury.

Common mechanisms of injury include all of the following EXCEPT:

Trauma assessment is largely:

The _____ is a general idea of how bad a person’s injuries may be, based upon the mechanism of injury.

Bright red blood that spurts from a wound is called _____ bleeding.

Which type of dressing should be applied to an open chest wound?

The grating sound of bone ends rubbing together is called:

The force of trauma applied over a large area is referred to as:

A(n) _____ is a cut to the skin and/or to the layers of the soft tissue beneath the skin, caused by a sharp object.

The covering for a wound, designed to control bleeding and to protect the wound, is called a(n):

Bruising behind the ears, which is a delayed sign of a skull fracture, is called:

Which of the following best describes how a dressing and bandage should be applied?

Impaled objects usually should be secured in place—EXCEPT when the object is impaled in the:

The posturing that occurs with a closed head injury is an involuntary movement of the patient’s limbs, referred to as:

Trauma to the skeletal system and associated muscles, tendons, and joints is a(n):

In a(n) ___________musculoskeletal injury, the skin overlying the injured bone perforates the skin from the inside out.

_______ force causes an injury away from the site of impact because the force is transferred to other parts of the body.

Which type of injury occurs when muscles and tendons are overworked?

Shortness of breath, extended exhalations and non-productive cough are signs/symptoms of what Respiratory compromise?

A person in early stages of shock oftentimes demonstrates a pulse that is:

Accessory muscle use in the neck is an indication of:

The oxygenated blood supply for the heart is provided by which blood vessels?

A patient with asthma may make what type of sound when breathing—a sound that sometimes can be heard even without a stethoscope?

In the condition known as _____, a patient has difficulty breathing because inefficient beating of the heart causes fluid to build up in the lungs.

1.       A _____ occurs when one of the coronary arteries is blocked, preventing blood from getting to heart muscle.

A substance that causes an abnormal immune response is called an:

A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction is referred to as what type of shock?

Which of the following is a sign of anaphylaxis?

_____ is a medication that a person can carry in an auto-injector in case of a severe allergic reaction.

What is a side effect of an Epi-Pen®?

A sign of respiratory distress known as _____ occurs when abdominal and neck muscles are used for breathing.

The consistent delivery of adequate oxygen to the cells is called:

The type of shock caused by a failure of the heart is referred to as:

A sign of the late stages of shock, in which the body can no longer compensate, is:

In a life-threatening condition known as a ______, a pneumothorax puts pressure on the heart and great vessels of the chest, causing profound shock.

Heat loss involving the transfer of heat to an object without physical contact is known as:

Most body heat is lost through which part of the body?

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for a patient’s response to cold?

A sign of mild hypothermia is:

Shortness of breath, wheezing and non-productive cough are signs/symptoms of what Respiratory compromise?

Shortness of breath, wheezing and productive cough are signs/symptoms of what Respiratory compromise?

In the condition known as a _________, air works its way in between the chest wall and the lung, causing the lung to collapse.

Which one of the following is NOT part of scene size-up?

The patient’s response to your question about how he is feeling or what is wrong is called the:

The letter “A” of the mnemonic “AVPU,” used for determining responsiveness, stands for:

A finding that is relayed from the patient but that cannot be observed or measured is a(n):

The “P” in SAMPLE history stands for:

Taking multiple vital signs over time is referred to as:

Which of the following senses is usually NOT used when assessing vital signs?

The general assessment technique that involves feeling patients with one’s hands is called:

The “D” in the “BP-DOC” mnemonic stands for:

The first part of the head-to-toe examination is:

Which of the following is NOT one of the five decisions in the scene size-up for the Emergency Medical Responder?

The primary assessment includes which of the following steps?

What is a factor in more than half of motor vehicle crashes involving emergency vehicles?

When using warning lights and the siren, the driver of an emergency vehicle should exercise:

The EMS vehicle that the Emergency Medical Responder responds in should be inspected:

Which of the following components is NOT part of the daily safety inspection for a response vehicle?