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BGT Mega Quiz

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Newtons third law?

a)

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

b)

Every object continues in its state of motion or uniform motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force

c)

The external forces acting on an object are proportional to the product of its mass and the acceleration produced by the force

d)

Every point mass attracts every other point mass by a force acting along the line intersecting both points

2.

What is the practical application of newtons third law?

a)

Jet thrust

b)

Electric current flow

c)

Chemical reaction rates

d)

Magnetic field generation

3.

The Gas Turbine Engine uses the principle of:

a)

Newton’s Third Law of motion

b)

Creating thrust equal to the weight of the aircraft

c)

Expelling air at the same speed as that of the aircraft

d)

The fluid flywheel

4.

What is Charles law?

a)

At constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.

b)

At constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature.

c)

At constant volume, the pressure of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.

d)

At constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.

5.

What is Boyles law?

a)

At constant temperature, the pressure and the volume of a gas are inversely proportional.

b)

At constant temperature, the pressure and the volume of a gas are directly proportional according to Boyle's law.

c)

Boyle's law states that the volume of a gas decreases as its pressure decreases, regardless of temperature.

d)

Boyle's law only applies to gases that are at very low temperatures.

6.

Which of the following is an example of Potential Energy?

a)

Temperature

b)

Volume

c)

Pressure

d)

Velocity

7.

What property is exhibited by accelerating gas flow?

a)

That the total energy is constant

b)

The gas particles will move at a slower speed than before.

c)

The volume of the gas will decrease.

d)

The gas flow will become more chaotic and disorganized.

8.

Why is the Brayton Cycle in a turbine engine referred to as an open or continuous cycle?

a)

Because intake, compression combustion and exhaust are all occurring at the same time.

b)

Because it doesn't have a fixed amount of working fluid, unlike a closed cycle. In an open cycle, the working fluid is constantly flowing into and out of the system.

c)

Because it takes in air from the atmosphere, uses it to generate power, and then exhausts it back into the atmosphere. This process is continuous and open to the surrounding environment.

d)

Because it doesn't require any external cooling or heat rejection, unlike a closed cycle. Instead, the exhaust gases are expelled directly into the atmosphere, making it a continuous process.

9.

During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes place:

a)

Continuously

b)

Once every revolution

c)

Once every other revolution

d)

Only during the start cycle

10.

Where in a turbofan engine is the pressure highest?

a)

In the diffuser

b)

In the combustion chamber

c)

In the compressor

d)

In the turbine exhaust nozzle

11.

Where in a turbojet engine is the gas velocity the highest?

a)

Exiting the exhaust nozzle.

b)

Exiting the combustion chamber.

c)

Entering the compressor.

d)

Through the diffuser

12.

Where in a turbine engine is the gas temperature highest?

a)

At the flame in the combustion chamber

b)

In the turbine section of the engine where the combustion gases expand and generate thrust.

c)

At the exhaust nozzle, where the hot gases exit the engine and generate propulsion.

d)

At the compressor section of the engine.

13.

A nozzle is said to be “choked” when:

a)

the gas flow through it is subsonic

b)

the gas flow through it reaches its sonic value

c)

the gas temperature rises

d)

the gas flow through it is supersonic

14.

What happens to velocity through a convergent duct, subsonic flow?

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Remains the same

d)

Initially decreases and then dramatically increases

15.

How does temperature, density, pressure and velocity of a gas flow vary through a convergent duct at subsonic speeds?

a)

Temperature, density, and pressure reduce and velocity increases.

b)

Temperature, density and velocity increase and pressure reduces.

c)

Temperature and pressure increase, and density and velocity reduce.

d)

Temperature and velocity increase and pressure and density reduce.

16.

How does temperature, density, pressure and velocity of a gas flow vary through a divergent duct at subsonic speeds?

a)

Temperature, density and pressure increase, and velocity reduces.

b)

Temperature, density, and pressure decrease and velocity increases.

c)

Temperature and pressure decrease, density and velocity increase.

d)

Temperature and density increase, pressure, and velocity decrease.

17.

How does temperature, density, pressure and velocity of a gas flow vary through a convergent duct at supersonic speeds?

a)

Temperature, density and pressure increase, and velocity reduces.

b)

Temperature, density, pressure, and velocity increase.

c)

Temperature, density, and pressure decrease, and velocity increases.

d)

Temperature increases, density and pressure decrease, and velocity remains constant.

18.

How does temperature, density, pressure, and velocity of a gas flow vary through a divergent duct at supersonic speeds?

a)

Temperature, density, and pressure reduce and velocity increases.

b)

Temperature, density, and pressure increase and velocity decreases.

c)

Temperature, density, and pressure remain constant, and velocity fluctuates.

d)

Temperature, density and pressure increase, and velocity remains constant.

19.

Air passing through a convergent duct experience:

a)

a decrease in temperature and pressure with an increase in velocity

b)

an increase in temperature and velocity with a decrease in pressure

c)

an increase in temperature and pressure with a velocity decrease

d)

adiabatic expansion

20.

What are the basic sections of a turbine engine?

a)

Intake, compressor, combustion chamber, turbine, and exhaust section

b)

Intake, exhaust, combustion chamber, gearbox, and fuel system section

c)

Intake, compressor, power turbine, exhaust section and fuel system section

d)

Inlet, diffuser, burner, compressor, and afterburner section.

21.

What is the main similarity between a turbine engine and a reciprocating engine?

a)

Both the turbine and reciprocating engines are internal combustion.

b)

Both the turbine and reciprocating engines have the same number of moving parts.

c)

Both engines require the use of magnets to generate power.

d)

They both require the use of a live hamster to operate.

22.

How does the combustion cycle of a turbine engine compare with that of a reciprocating engine?

a)

A turbine engine combustion takes place at a near constant pressure, while in a reciprocating engine combustion takes place at near constant volume.

b)

In a turbine engine, fuel is injected directly into the combustion chamber, whereas in a reciprocating engine, fuel is injected into the intake manifold.

c)

In a turbine engine, the combustion process is slower than in a reciprocating engine.

d)

In a turbine engine, the combustion process is slower than in a reciprocating engine.

23.

What is the main advantage of a turbine engine over a reciprocating engine of the same power output?

a)

The turbine engine has a much higher power to weight ratio than a reciprocating engine of similar power output.

b)

The turbine engine is more reliable than a reciprocating engine of similar power output.

c)

A reciprocating engine is more prone to mechanical failure than a turbine engine of similar power output.

d)

The turbine engine is more difficult to control than a reciprocating engine of similar power output.

24.

What are the main types of turbine engine?

a)

Turboshaft, turboprop, turbojet and turbofan

b)

Turboshaft, ramjet, turbojet and turbofan

c)

Pulsejet, ramjet, turbojet and turbofan

d)

Turboshaft, turboprop, turbocompound and turbofan

25.

What is the functional difference between a turboprop and turboshaft?

a)

A turboprop engine has an output shaft which drives a gearbox for a propeller while a turboshaft engine has an output shaft which drives a gearbox for something other than a propeller, e.g. an helicopters main rotor gearbox.

b)

A turboprop engine has an output shaft which drives a gearbox for a water pump while a turboshaft engine has an output shaft which drives a gearbox for a generator.

c)

Unlike turboprop engines, which are used mainly for passenger and cargo transport, turboshaft engines are primarily used for military purposes.

d)

Turboprop engines are typically more fuel-efficient than turboshaft engines, but they are also less powerful.

26.

The accessory gearbox drive of a gas turbine engine is generally from a bevel gear located at:

a)

N1

b)

N2

c)

Low pressure compressor

d)

None of the above

27.

The combination of a turbine and a compressor is a:

a)

Spool

b)

Crankshaft

c)

Turbo

d)

Jet fan engine

28.

In a twin spool engine:

a)

The LP compressor is connected to the HP compressor.

b)

The HP turbine is connected to the LP compressor, the LP turbine is connected to the HP compressor.

c)

The LP turbine is connected to the LP compressor, the HP turbine is connected to the HP compressor.

d)

The HP turbine is connected to the LP turbine, the HP compressor is connected to the LP compressor.

29.

Gas turbines use for lubrication:

a)

synthetic oil.

b)

mineral oil with additives (compound).

c)

mineral oil straight.

d)

multi-grade 20/50.

30.

The fuel-cooled oil cooler:

a)

heats the oil and cools the fuel

b)

heats the fuel and cools the oil

c)

heats the fuel only

d)

cools the oil only

31.

Magnetic Chip Detectors are fitted in the engine:

a)

to facilitate early detection of cracks in the compressor blades.

b)

to facilitate early warning of cracks in the turbine blades.

c)

to provide a warning of impending failure in the engine bearings.

d)

to prevent a build up of starch in the scavenge oil filter.

32.

The magnetic chip detectors are fitted in:

a)

the pressure line between the pressure pump and the engine.

b)

suction line between the reservoir and the pressure pump.

c)

return line between the engine and the scavenge pump.

d)

return line after the FCOC.

33.

For a pressure relief lubricating system, select the correct statement:

a)

the flow and pressure change with engine speed.

b)

the pressure relief valve is fitted in series with the pump.

c)

the pressure remains the same for all engine operating parameters.

d)

the relief valve opens when pressure has reached the required pressure. Any excess flow is returned by a dedicated line to the base of the engine for scavenging.

34.

Which of the following would be classed as prudent when carrying out Engine Ground Runs?

a)

Only carry out engine runs with a tailwind.

b)

Fit debris guards when running.

c)

Only do ground runs on tarmac.

d)

Only do ground runs on concrete.

35.

In a multispool engine, which spool does the starter rotate?

a)

High pressure spool.

b)

Low pressure spool

c)

Experimental spool

d)

Differential spool

36.

Failure of the engine to light up is shown by:

a)

the failure of the engine to turn and no TGT

b)

low rpm fuel flow indication, and no TGT

c)

TGT increasing but no rpm

d)

no rpm and no TGT

37.

After engine start, the engine igniters are normally deactivated by:

a)

an electric interlock system

b)

a speed switch

c)

the time switch

d)

centrifugal force

38.

The term “self sustaining speed” means that:

a)

the aircraft can roll forward with no further opening of the throttles

b)

the speed from which the engine can accelerate to idle without the help of the starter motor

c)

the speed from which the engine can accelerate to full power within 5 seconds

d)

the engine will run independently of external help

39.

In a twin spool engine self-sustaining speed is normally reached at:

a)

60% N2

b)

60% N1

c)

30% N2

d)

30% N1

40.

In a twin spool engine the typical idle speeds are:

a)

60% N2 25% N1

b)

25% N2 60% N1

c)

40% N2 30% N1

d)

80% N2 45% N1

41.

A “Hung Start” is indicated by:

a)

high EGT - high fuel flow - low rpm

b)

high EGT - idle fuel flow - low rpm

c)

low EGT - idle fuel flow - low rpm

d)

low EGT - high fuel flow - high rpm

42.

A “Hung Start” occurs when:

a)

the engine accelerates but does not light up

b)

the engine lights up but does not accelerate to self-sustaining speed

c)

the engine stabilizes above self-sustaining speed

d)

there is a double igniter failure

43.

What factors may lead to a hot start?

a)

All of these

b)

Low battery voltage

c)

Low air pressure

d)

Air inlet blockage

44.

One indication that a compressor bleed valve has stuck closed at low rpm is:

a)

possible compressor stall

b)

an inability to achieve full power

c)

that bleed air is reduced

d)

that the engine will stop

45.

A gas turbine engine which has both high and low energy ignition systems uses

the high energy system for (i), and the low energy system for (ii):

a)

(i) engine starting (ii) high altitude relighting

b)

(i) high altitude relighting (ii) take-off from contaminated runways

c)

(i) take-off from snowy runways (ii) engine start

d)

(i) take-off from flooded runways

(ii) take-off from snowy runways

46.

The low energy ignition system would be used:

a)

only for starting the engine on the ground.

b)

during take-off from wet runways.

c)

for relight at high altitude.

d)

during a blow out (motoring over) cycle.

47.

Precautionary use of igniters may be necessary during:

a)

flight through heavy tropical rainstorm.

b)

ground running.

c)

flight through sandy conditions.

d)

flight through very dry air.

48.

A relight envelope:

a)

shows the flame stability limits

b)

shows airspeed and altitude limitations for an in-flight restart

c)

shows fuel/air mixture limitations for an in-flight restart

d)

contains the in-flight restart igniter plugs

49.

A Relight is:

a)

the action of restarting a flamed-out engine, usually while airborne

b)

what occurs when the engine drain valve is stuck open

c)

the initiation of the after-burning system

d)

what must be prevented after a “wet start”

50.

A cannular combustion system is:

a)

a set of flame tubes, each of which is mounted in a separate air casing

b)

a set of flame tubes enclosed in a common air casing

c)

one common flame tube enclosed in a common air casing

d)

superior to the annular system because it only requires one igniter

51.

One advantage of an annular combustion chamber system is that:

a)

the diameter of the engine is reduced

b)

there is unrestricted airflow at maximum rpm

c)

there are no flame propagation problems

d)

the air casing area is greater

52.

Swirl vanes in the combustion chamber:

a)

increase the velocity of the airflow

b)

reduce the velocity of the airflow

c)

prevent compressor stall

d)

help to stabilize combustion

53.

Shrouding of stator blade tips is designed to:

a)

prevent tip turbulence

b)

ensure adequate cooling

c)

minimize vibration

d)

prevent tip losses

54.

The purpose of the tertiary airflow created in the combustion chamber is to:

a)

reduce the gas temperature and cool the flame tube

b)

form a toroidal vortex, which anchors and stabilizes the flame

c)

reduce the gas temperature and cool the burner head

d)

ensure complete combustion of the fuel

55.

The air entering the combustion chamber is divided; a small percentage is used in combustion, the rest:

a)

is syphoned off for airframe anti-icing purposes

b)

is used only for cooling the gases before they exit the combustion chamber

c)

is used to cool both the gases exiting the chamber and the walls of the air casing

d)

is used to reduce the oil temperature and cool the turbine blades

56.

What percentage of air entering the internal combustor is used for combustion?

a)

50-60%

b)

65-80%

c)

25-40%

d)

55-70%

57.

When would you select ‘continuous’ ignition?

a)

When volcanic ash clouds have been forecast in the area

b)

Take-off, landing and when encountering significant turbulence or precipitation

c)

Starting and shutting down

d)

When using reverse thrust

58.

Nozzle guide vanes are fitted before the turbine:

a)

to increase the velocity of the airflow.

b)

to decrease the velocity of the gas flow therefore increasing its pressure.

c)

to increase the velocity of the gas flow therefore reducing its pressure.

d)

to increase the temperature of the gas flow.

59.

Over temp in a turbine engine is most critical where?

a)

First stage of turbine assembly

b)

Second stage of turbine assembly

c)

Third stage of turbine assembly

d)

Fourth stage of turbine assembly

60.

The mixture of impulse and reaction blade shape in the average turbine blade is such that:

a)

the inner half is impulse and the outer half is reaction.

b)

the inner half is reaction and the outer half is impulse.

c)

the leading edge is reaction and the trailing edge is impulse.

d)

the trailing edge is reaction and the leading edge is impulse.

61.

The impulse-reaction blade is twisted along its length so that:

a)

there is a greater angle at the base than at the tip.

b)

the gas flow is accelerated through the turbine.

c)

the gas does equal work along the whole of its length.

d)

the gas flow is decelerated through the nozzle guide vanes.

62.

The diameter of the exhaust nozzle is very important. What would be the result of too large a diameter?

a)

expansion is decreased, thrust decreased

b)

expansion is decreased, thrust increased

c)

expansion is increased, thrust decreased

d)

expansion is increased, thrust increased

63.

The main contributory factors which cause creep in turbine blades are:

a)

high temperature and tensile loading.

b)

high rpm and torque loading.

c)

high rpm and high gas speeds.

d)

high temperature and high gas speeds.

64.

Blade creep is:

a)

movement of the turbine blades around the turbine disc.

b)

permanent elongation due to heat and centrifugal force.

c)

temporary expansion due to temperature change.

d)

temporary elongation due to centrifugal forces.

65.

What happens when exhaust velocity is greater than forward speed?

a)

Thrust

b)

Deceleration

c)

Engine overheating

d)

Stress cracking from rapid cooling

66.

What happens at the exhaust of a converging/diverging ducted exhaust?

a)

Pressure decreases, velocity increases

b)

Pressure increases, velocity increases

c)

Pressure increases, velocity decreases

d)

Pressure decreases, velocity decreases

67.

The velocity of the gases in the exhaust unit is held to:

a)

Mach 0.5 to minimize turbulence

b)

Mach 0.75 to optimize the pressure distribution

c)

Mach 0.85 to maximize thrust

d)

Mach 1 to maximize acceleration

68.

The exhaust cone:

a)

straightens the gas flow before it goes into the turbine assembly

b)

prevents the hot gases flowing across the rear turbine face

c)

increases the velocity of the gases

d)

decreases the pressure of the gas

69.

What exhaust system does a high-performance military jet use?

a)

Convergent-divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Divergent

d)

Divergent-convergent

70.

How do designers reduce noise produced by turbine engines?

a)

Reduce exhaust gas velocity

b)

Increase Exhaust gas temp

c)

Use a convergent divergent duct

d)

Increase exhaust velocity

71.

Use of reverse thrust below the recommended speed may cause:

a)

over stressing of the gear oleos.

b)

ingestion of the exhaust gases and foreign objects.

c)

more fuel to be provided to the burners.

d)

the TGT limit to be exceeded, in which case the reverse thrust lever will return to the forward thrust position.

72.

Before reverse thrust can be selected, the forward thrust lever must be:

a)

pulled back to idle power.

b)

positioned to reverse minimum power.

c)

put back to the reverser deploy position.

d)

positioned to reverse maximum power.

73.

A reverse thrust warning light illuminates:

a)

only when the reverser doors are fully deployed in the reverse thrust position.

b)

when the reverser doors are stowed in the forward thrust position.

c)

when the reverser doors are not stowed in the forward thrust position.

d)

whenever reverse thrust is selected.

74.

Is reverse thrust more efficient at:

a)

High Speeds

b)

Low Speeds

c)

Is equally efficient at all speeds

d)

Is more efficient when the aircraft is flying upside down

75.

How does a turboprop reverse thrust?

a)

By changing blade angle

b)

By diverting the engine's exhaust gases forward

c)

By deploying a tailhook to slow the aircraft on landing

d)

By reducing fuel flow and hydraulic pressure to the CSU

76.

How does a high bypass turbofan commonly reverse thrust in commercial jets?

a)

Flipping a switch that deploys mechanical spoilers on the wings to disrupt airflow and slow the plane

b)

Opening small doors in the engine cowling that redirect some of the engine's exhaust gases forward to create a reverse thrust effect

c)

Deflecting cold bypass air

d)

Rotating the exhaust nozzle so that it points forward, creating reverse thrust by redirecting some of the engine's exhaust gases forward

77.

A big fan engine gets reverse thrust by:

a)

reversing the direction of rotation of the compressor.

b)

deflecting the exhaust gases.

c)

blocking the bypass air.

d)

reversing the hot stream gases.

78.

An aircraft uses clamshell doors for thrust reversal to:

a)

direct the gas flow rearwards.

b)

change the direction of the exhaust gas.

c)

block the flow of exhaust gas.

d)

absorb any change in thrust.

79.

What can occur in AVTUR but not AVGAS at high altitudes?

a)

Water in suspension in fuel freezes forming ice crystals which can block filters.

b)

AVGAS is more prone to vapor lock at high altitudes compared to AVTUR

c)

AVGAS is more prone to corrosion at high altitudes compared to AVTUR

d)

AVTUR has a lower specific gravity than AVGAS, making it more suitable for use at high altitudes.

80.

What is the difference between JP and Jet A fuels?

a)

Jet A is only used in small aircraft, while JP is used in large commercial airliners

b)

JP is a military designation and Jet A is a commercial designation

c)

Jet A is a more environmentally friendly fuel than JP due to its lower sulphur content.

d)

JP is used in colder climates, while Jet A is used in warmer regions.

81.

Fuel is heated to:

a)

prevent waxing

b)

ensure vapour losses are minimized

c)

make it more viscous

d)

make it easier to flow under all conditions

82.

Why are fuel/oil heat exchangers preferred?

a)

A small quantity of oil can heat a large quantity of fuel and stop ice blocking the filter

b)

They increase the mileage of the aircraft by a factor of 100

c)

They can help the engine run on water instead of fuel

d)

A large quantity of oil can heat a small quantity of fuel and stop ice blocking the filter

83.

In a Fuel/Oil heat exchanger, which statement is correct?

a)

Large quantity of fuel flow small quantity of oil flow to allow fuel to draw away more heat from the oil

b)

Always used in combo with air coolers because not enough cooling is given

c)

By giving heat to fuel it increases its calorific value

d)

Turboprops only use air coolers

84.

Fuel booster pumps are situated in

a)

the fuel tanks

b)

the line between the main fuel tanks and the engine

c)

low pressure side of the engine

d)

high pressure side of the engine

85.

The ratio of air to kerosene to give the greatest heat release during combustion is:

a)

45:1

b)

15:1

c)

130:1

d)

12.5:1

86.

how can water be detected in turbine fuel?

a)

Visually

b)

Detector paste

c)

Weight

d)

All of theses

87.

An Ideal intake duct would do what?

a)

Provide constant pressure airflow to the compressor under all flight conditions.

b)

Decrease the engine's initial power output to avoid compressor stall.

c)

Disrupt the airflow to the compressor to increase turbulence.

d)

Increase the temperature of the air entering the engine.

88.

What is the purpose of an intake?

a)

Reduce drag and increase pressure

b)

Increase drag and decrease pressure

c)

Reduce pressure and deliver airflow to the fan/compressor face at an even pressure spread

d)

Increase pressure and redirect airflow onto the high pressure compressor

89.

What does the air intake for a typical high bypass turbo fan do to the pressure and velocity of the air entering the compressor, is the duct convergent or divergent?

a)

Divergent, decreases velocity and increases pressure.

b)

Convergent, decreases velocity and increases pressure.

c)

Convergent, increases velocity and decreases pressure.

d)

Divergent, increases velocity and decreases pressure.

90.

During a climb to altitude drag on the compressor blades:

a)

Increases giving good efficiency.

b)

Increases giving poor efficiency.

c)

Reduces giving good efficiency.

d)

Reduces giving poor efficiency.

91.

The compressor idling speed of an uncompensated gas turbine engine will increase:

a)

at higher ambient temperature

b)

with higher than sea level density

c)

at altitudes lower than sea level

d)

at lower ambient temperature

92.

What happens to airflow pressure and velocity through both rotors and stators in an axial flow compressor?

a)

Velocity decreases through rotors and decreases through stators and increases in pressure through both.

b)

Velocity decreases through rotors and increases through stators and decreases in pressure through both.

c)

Velocity increases through rotors and decreases through stators and increases in pressure through both.

d)

Velocity decreases through rotors and increases through stators and increases in pressure through both.

93.

One stage of an axial flow compressor consists of:

a)

One rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes

b)

One stator assembly and one row of guide vanes

c)

One rotor and one impeller assembly

d)

One impeller and one diffuser assembly

94.

As air passes through an axial flow compressor, a pressure rise takes place in:

a)

the impeller and the diffuser

b)

the rotor blades only

c)

both the rotor blades and the stator vanes

d)

the stator vanes only

95.

The pressure rise across a centrifugal compressor:

a)

occurs in the impeller only

b)

occurs in the diffuser only

c)

is shared almost equally by the impeller and the diffuser

d)

is always greater in the diffuser than in the impeller

96.

A centrifugal compressor turbine compared to an axil flow has the following advantage:

a)

Less frontal area

b)

Lower weight

c)

Less increase per stage

d)

Efficient over a range of mass flow and pressure ratio combinations

97.

The major disadvantage of a centrifugal compressor is that:

a)

it cannot cope with a large mass flow of air

b)

it cannot be used for a turbo jet engine

c)

a larger turbine must be used

d)

it is more prone to damage than the axial flow compressor

98.

An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is that it is:

a)

dynamically balanced

b)

more robust and is easier to manufacture

c)

unaffected by turbulence

d)

able to handle a larger mass of air than an axial flow compressor

99.

The pressure rise across each stage of an axial flow compressor is:

a)

greater than that of a centrifugal compressor

b)

between 1.1 and 1.2 to one

c)

between 3 and 5 to one

d)

twice the inlet pressure

100.

To gain a greater pressure ratio than 4:1:

a)

two centrifugal compressors can be placed in parallel

b)

two centrifugal compressors can be placed in series with each other

c)

the compressor diameter must be reduced

d)

the cascade vanes must be convergent

101.

The compression ratio is:

a)

The ratio between inlet pressure and compressor discharge pressure

b)

The ratio between the compressor inlet pressure and the exhaust outlet pressure

c)

Equal to the number of compressor stages

d)

Is not a real thing

102.

What is the definition of the bypass ratio of a turbofan engine?

a)

The ratio of the mass of the air bypassing the engine core, to the mass of the air passing through the engine core.

b)

It is a key factor in determining the noise level of the engine, as a higher bypass ratio typically results in higher noise emissions.

c)

Is a measure of the efficiency of the engine in terms of how much thrust is generated for a given amount of fuel consumption.

d)

The ratio of the mass of the fuel injected into the engine core, to the mass of the air passing through the engine core.

e)

The ratio of the mass of the oil used for lubrication, to the mass of the air passing through the engine core.

103.

The Bypass Ratio of an engine is the ratio of:

a)

Primary air to tertiary air.

b)

Cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine.

c)

Exhaust gas pressure to air intake pressure.

d)

Primary air to secondary air.

104.

What are variable inlet guide vanes?

a)

The low pressure compressor

b)

The low pressure turbine

c)

The first stage vanes after the engine inlet

d)

The last stage vanes

105.

The ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor stage of an axial flow compressor are called:

a)

the first stage stator blades

b)

variable inlet guides vanes

c)

first stage diffuser blades

d)

nozzle guide vanes

106.

Variable inlet guide vanes:

a)

deflect air past the compressor

b)

adjust the relative airflow position

c)

deflect air past the turbine

d)

induce air into a centrifugal compressor

107.

Compressor blades are twisted from root to tip:

a)

to decrease the pressure

b)

to maintain a correct angle of attack

c)

to reduce the relative airflow

d)

to give added rigidity to the blade structure

108.

What do stators in the compressor do?

a)

Decrease velocity and increase pressure

b)

Increase velocity and increase pressure

c)

Decreases both velocity and pressure

d)

Increases both velocity and pressure

109.

What is the purpose of variable stator vanes?

a)

To control and regulate airflow through a compressor.

b)

To direct airflow onto next compressor blades, used in high compression ratio engines.

c)

To adjust the fuel flow rate in a jet engine.

d)

To provide extra lift during take-off and landing of an aircraft.

110.

The purpose of the diffuser vanes in a centrifugal compressor is to:

a)

increase the charge temperature

b)

convert kinetic energy into pressure energy

c)

convert pressure energy into kinetic energy

d)

increase the air velocity

111.

What happens to airflow through a diffuser?

a)

Pressure and temperature increase and velocity decreases

b)

Pressure and velocity increase and temperature decreases

c)

Temperature increases and velocity and pressure decrease

d)

Pressure and temperature decrease and velocity increases

112.

As air flows through the turbine section energy is removed, what design feature of the turbine section is evidence of this?

a)

Turbine A/A reduces

b)

Turbine diameter increases as air flows through

c)

Turbine casing thickness increases

d)

Turbine stage count increases

113.

Cascade vanes are fitted in which part of the centrifugal compressor?

a)

the air inlet

b)

the outlet elbow

c)

the impeller

d)

the diffuser

114.

The cross-sectional area of the air annulus is reduced as it approaches the combustion chamber:

a)

to maintain the axial velocity of the air toward the combustion chamber

b)

to maintain the volume of the air under rising pressure

c)

to prevent an increase of the velocity of the air under rising pressure

d)

to allow longer blades to be used towards the latter stages of the compressor

115.

Bleed air for engine anti-icing is provided by:

a)

the bleed valves

b)

the turbine stages

c)

the compressor

d)

the combustion chambers

116.

A compressor blade will stall when:

a)

the air axial velocity and rotational speed relationship is disturbed

b)

the mass airflow and speed relationship is constant

c)

the speed of the gas flow through the turbine falls below Mach 0.4

d)

the compression ratio exceeds 10 to 1

117.

Compressor surge will occur when:

a)

all stages are at maximum efficiency

b)

all stages have stalled

c)

all stages are at maximum rpm

d)

there is a partial breakdown of airflow through the compressor

118.

A compressor stall causes:

a)

the vibration level to increase with a decrease in the turbine gas temperature

b)

an increase in the turbine gas temperature and the vibration level

c)

the rotation of the engine to stop suddenly

d)

the airflow through the engine to stop suddenly

119.

From a Pilots perspective, where i a compressor stall most likely to occur?

a)

Bird Strike

b)

Max crosswind landing

c)

High speed cruise at max certified altitude

d)

Lowering flap

120.

What effect will severe icing in the intake have on a high bypass engine?

a)

The axial velocity of the air will decrease with an increase in the angle that the resultant airflow forms with the compressor blades chord line and a possible stall.

b)

The axial velocity of the air will increase with a reduction in the angle of attack of the airflow with the compressor blades and a possible stall.

c)

The axial velocity of the air will decrease with a reduction in the angle of attack of the airflow with the compressor blades and a possible stall.

d)

The axial velocity of the air will increase with an increase in the angle of attack of the airflow with the compressor blades and a possible stall.

121.

In the event of a surge occurring the correct action to be taken is:

a)

to close the throttle quickly

b)

to close the throttle slowly

c)

to open the throttle fully

d)

to close the LP fuel valve

122.

Fuel is regulated on rapid engine acceleration:

a)

to prevent inducing a compressor stall and surge

b)

to prevent detonation in the combustion chambers

c)

because the rapid response of the compressor might cause a flame out

d)

because the cooling effect of too much fuel would cause a drop in pressure in the combustion chamber

123.

What is the first indication of large compressor stall?

a)

Loud Bang

b)

Condensation builds up

c)

Decreasing turbine temperatures

d)

Buffeting wings

124.

What are the indications of a compressor stall?

a)

Popping surging noise, high EGT, fluctuating RPM

b)

A sudden increase in fuel efficiency, low EGT

c)

Smoke emanating from the compressor inlet, fluctuating RPM

d)

The nose pitches down and the aircraft sinks

125.

Bleed valves are automatically opened:

a)

at low engine rpm to prevent the compressor stalling

b)

at maximum rpm to prevent compressor stall

c)

at low rpm to prevent the turbine stalling

d)

during engine acceleration to prevent turbine surge

126.

How are turbine discs cooled?

a)

Oil sprayed on the face of the blade

b)

Air drawn from the compressor

c)

Air drawn from the exhaust

d)

Bypass air redirected to turbines

127.

The jet pipe is insulated from the airframe by:

a)

a combination of cooling air and insulating material

b)

heat insulation materials

c)

a cooling air jacket

d)

semi-conducting geodetic structures

128.

Where is the bleed air for turbine cooling sourced from?

a)

Start of LP compressor as temperature is too high in HP compressor.

b)

From both the HP and LP compressors

c)

From the HP compressor

d)

From the APU

129.

The pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor is:

a)

Equal to the number of compression stages

b)

The ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet pressure

c)

The ratio between exhaust inlet and exhaust outlet pressure

d)

Never greater than 5 to 1

130.

The fuel flowmeter is situated:

a)

between HP shut off valve and fuel nozzles

b)

between LP pump and the FCOC

c)

between LP pump and HP pump

d)

just after FCU

131.

In a gas turbine engine oil pressure is measured:

a)

in the engine.

b)

after the pressure pump.

c)

in the return line.

d)

in the FCOC to ensure oil pressure is always above fuel pressure.

132.

In a gas turbine engine oil temperature is measured:

a)

as it leaves the fuel-cooled oil cooler (FCOC).

b)

before entering the engine.

c)

immediately after leaving the engine.

d)

in the engine.

133.

Which of the following statements defines EPR correctly?

a)

Exhaust pipe restriction

b)

Engine pressure ratio

c)

Exhaust pressure reduction

d)

Exhaust pressure ratio

134.

What is the acronym used to describe ratio of turbine outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure?

a)

EPR

b)

TGT

c)

JPT

d)

EPT

135.

In a turbofan engine, the fan speed is controlled by:

a)

A reduction gear.

b)

The turbine.

c)

A wastegate.

d)

Varying the pitch.

136.

Which of the following best describes the term "fan speed (N1)"?

a)

The speed of the aircraft's engines during take-off

b)

The rpm of the low-pressure compressor/turbine spool and/or fan

c)

The rpm of the high-pressure compressor/turbine spool and/or fan

d)

The speed of the aircraft's landing gear during descent

137.

What indication is taken before the turbine section?

a)

TIT

b)

TGT

c)

EGT

d)

JPT

138.

What factor taken alone will increase thrust?

a)

Increased pressure

b)

Increased temperature

c)

Decreased density

d)

Increased moisture content

139.

Which type is most efficient below 400kts?

a)

Turbo Prop

b)

High Bypass

c)

Low Bypass

d)

Gear Turbofan

140.

Select the correct order of best propulsive efficiency, from low to high airspeed.

a)

High bypass ratio turbojet, Low bypass ratio turbojet, Pure turbojet, Turboprop

b)

Low bypass ratio turbojet, Pure turbojet, Turboprop, High bypass ratio turbojet

c)

Pure turbojet, Turboprop, High bypass ratio turbojet, Low bypass ratio turbojet

d)

Turboprop, High bypass ratio turbojet, Low bypass ratio turbojet, Pure turbojet

141.

A pure turbojet engine gives:

a)

A large acceleration to a small mass of air

b)

A small acceleration to a large mass of air

c)

A large acceleration to a large mass of air

d)

A small acceleration to a small mass of air

142.

What two factors determine/affect a turbojets propulsive efficiency?

a)

Pressure and RPM

b)

Density and Speed

c)

Temp and Speed

d)

Temp and RPM