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Meats Evaluation Event 2019 & 2017

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What was enacted on June 30, 1906, to prevent the adulteration and mishandling of meat products?

a)

Meat Inspection Act

b)

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

c)

Humane Slaughter Act

d)

Wholesome Meat Act

2.

What does the acronym USDA stand for?

a)

United States Department of Agriculture

b)

United States Development of Agriculture

c)

United States Department of Animals

d)

United States Development of Standards

3.

The method of slaughter is performed by handling and processing animals in accordance with the Quran and conforming to Islamic dietary laws.

a)

Kosher

b)

Captive Bolt Stunning

c)

Halal

d)

None of them

4.

The first implementation of HACCP system for food safety is credited to?

a)

Kraft for the U.S. Army

b)

Johnson and Johnson and the National Sanitation Foundation

c)

Oklahoma State University

d)

Pillsbury for NASA

5.

In what year did the FSIS release the Safe Food Handling Label, now required on all raw meat products?

a)

1978

b)

1993

c)

1994

d)

2011

6.

Growth-promoting implants are approved for use to be placed in the ear of swine.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Ractopamine hydrochloride and zilpaterol hydrochloride are examples of what?

a)

Beta-agonists

b)

Growth hormones

c)

Antioxidants

d)

Cure accelerators

8.

Which of the following nutrients is NOT a major component of fresh meat?

a)

Water

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Protein

d)

Fat

9.

( ) is an essential amino acid for children, but not adults.

a)

Isoleucine

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

Arginine

d)

Valine

10.

Which is not a fat-soluble vitamin?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

K

11.

( ) fats contain only single bonds between carbon atoms, while ( ) contain one or more double bonds between carbon atoms.

a)

Monosunsaturated ; Polyunsaturated

b)

Monounsaturated; Saturated

c)

Unsaturated; Saturated

d)

Saturated; Unsaturated

12.

Lean Meat contains less fat than peanut butter, cheddar cheese or Swiss cheese.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Muscles are comprised o thousands of basic muscle contractile units known as?

a)

Sarcomeres

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Molecules

d)

Fibers

14.

Meat varies in tenderness based on the muscle it is from?

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Actin is the primary contractile protein comprising the thick filament of the sarcomere.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The "Brisket" primal comes form which species?

a)

Beef

b)

Lamb

c)

Pork

d)

Poultry

17.

Which of the following is NOT considered a primal of beef carcasses?

a)

Side/Belly

b)

Loin

c)

Chuck

d)

Flank

18.

What regulatory standard describes a ham with less than 17% Protein Fat-Free (or PFF)?

a)

Ham Water Added

b)

Ham with Natural Juices

c)

Country-Cured Ham

d)

Ham and Water Product

19.

Which Government agency requires and oversees meat labeling?

a)

Livestock and Poultry Program

b)

Meat Grading and Certification

c)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

d)

Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS)

20.

Which of the following is NOT mandatory to be labeled on the FSIS-regulated meat product?

a)

Establishment Number

b)

Name and Address of Producer or Distributor

c)

Country of Origin

d)

Ingredient List

21.

Meat products derived from livestock raided on pasture and have received antibiotics can e considered "Certified Organic"?

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Maturity classes divide meat into categories based on age. In which species are maturity calsses not used?

a)

Beef

b)

Lamb

c)

Pork

d)

All of the answers utilize maturity classes

23.

Marbling is the small flecks of fat within the ribeye muscle.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

What is examined for determination of degrees of marbling in beef carcasses?

a)

Round

b)

Ribeye

c)

Loin eye

d)

Feathering

25.

A lamb carcass with two spool joints would be classified as a ( ).

a)

Lamb

b)

Ram

c)

Young mutton

d)

Mutton

26.

From a safety point of view, it is okay to consume or re-freeze raw meat that has been stored at room temperature for more than two hours.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which practice is NOT listed on the USDA-FSIS Safe Handling Instructions?

a)

Keep refrigerated or frozen

b)

Wash raw meat before cooking

c)

Thaw in a refrigerator or microwave

d)

Cook thoroughly

28.

Select the preferred method to thaw frozen meat

a)

Submersing in warm water

b)

On a window sill

c)

Ina a refrigerator

d)

Ina a bowl on the kitchen counter

29.

Ground meat should be refrigerated quickly and used within______ days of purchase?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

10

d)

14

30.

Meat can be cooked directly from a frozen state without first being defrosted.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

It is better and safer to handle leftover eats by

a)

Refrigerating quickly and letting the product cool at a fast rate

b)

Refrigerating slowly and letting the product cool at a slow rate

c)

Discarding all leftovers

d)

Feeding them to pets

32.

Proper freezing of meat should be at a temperature at or below

a)

0 degrees F

b)

0 degrees C

c)

0 degrees Centigrade

d)

32 degrees F

33.

Which of these is NOT considered a dry cooking method?

a)

Broiling

b)

Braising

c)

Grilling

d)

Smoking

34.

Which of the following cuts would be best suited for braising?

a)

Chuck shoulder pot roast

b)

Top loin steak

c)

Ribeye Steak

d)

Tenderloin

35.

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the labeling of processed meats?

a)

All ingredients must be listed by level of protein

b)

All ingredients must be listed in order of decreasing weight

c)

All ingredients do not have to be approved by FSIS

d)

All ingredients must be listed in order of increasing weight

36.

Variety meats may be included in cold cuts even if they are not listed on the label.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Finished frankfurters shall not contain more than______% fat

a)

30

b)

25

c)

40

d)

15

38.

Skeletal Meat is defined as the edible muscle tissue of an animal attached to the bone. Which is not considered a skeletal muscle?

a)

Brisket

b)

Shoulder steak

c)

Tripe

d)

Rump roast

39.

_____ is defined as "any substance with the intended use of which results or may reasonably be expected to result-directly or indirectly- in its becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food"

a)

Antimicrobial

b)

Food Additive

c)

Letter assurance

d)

Processing aid

40.

Which was one of the first food additives to change taste and preserve foods?

a)

Salt

b)

Red pepper

c)

Thyme

d)

Coriander

41.

Sodium nitrite is well known for preventing the growth of ______?

a)

Norovirus

b)

Aspergillus spp.

c)

Listeria monocytogenes

d)

Clostridium botulinum

42.

Ascorbic acid is used as an antioxidant is processed meats. Ascorbic acid is also known as_____?

a)

STPP

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin B9

43.

Which is not considered a natural flavor additive for processed meats?

a)

Garlic

b)

Celery

c)

Onion

d)

Artificial sweeteners

44.

Which additive is not considered a meat tenderizer?

a)

Papain

b)

Erythorbate

c)

Ficin

d)

Bromelain

45.

______ is an ingredient used to retard mold growth on the outside of certain processed meat products

a)

Dehydration

b)

Sodium erythorbae

c)

Potassium sorbate

d)

Di-hydrogen monoxide

46.

Which of the following is not one of the seven principles of HACCP?

a)

Conduct a hazard analysis

b)

Identify critical control points

c)

Recognize potential failures

d)

Estavlish corrective actions

47.

In HACCP systems, the term CCP refers to

a)

Critical control parameters

b)

Critical control points

c)

Cautionary control points

d)

Crucial control points

48.

Proper cooking is a method to minimize food-bacteria

a)

True

b)

False

49.

What is the most common cause of foodborne illness?

a)

Unsanitary harvest facilities

b)

Mishandling of food

c)

Lapse in HACCP documentation

d)

Unhealthy lie animal prior to harvest

50.

Which foodborne pathogen is known to cause miscarriage in pregnant women?

a)

E. coli 0157;H7

b)

Listeria Monacytogenes

c)

Salmonella

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

51.

Which of the following would be classified as "lamb"?

a)

2 Break Joints

b)

2 Spool Joints

c)

1 Break, 1 Spool Joint

d)

Joints are not evaluated when determining the physiological age of lamb

52.

Which component of meat is responsible for the body structure and chemical reactions essential to life?

a)

Water

b)

Fat

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Protein

53.

There are this many primal cuts in beef, pork, and lamb respectively:

a)

7, 4, 5

b)

7, 5, 5

c)

6, 5, 5

d)

6, 4, 5

54.

Which of the following agencies does NOT monitor residue levels in meat?

a)

EPA

b)

BSE

c)

FSIS

d)

FDA

55.

A serving size of lean meat is:

a)

8oz

b)

6.5oz

c)

3.5oz

d)

3oz

56.

Which is the thick myofilament in the sarcomere?

a)

Actin

b)

Bundle

c)

Fiber

d)

Myosin

57.

All of the following are examples of retail packaging EXCEPT...

a)

Boxed Beef

b)

Modified Atmosphere Packing

c)

Overwrap

d)

Vacuum Packing

58.

The Nutritional Labeling and Education Act requires which of the following on a nutritional label?

a)

Number of Calories per Serving

b)

Number of Calories from Total Fat and Saturated Fat

c)

Serving Size

d)

All of the above

59.

Hormone and antibiotic withdrawal periods are set by the__and then monitored through the __

a)

FSIS and FDA

b)

FDA and FSIS

c)

EPA and FSIS

d)

FSIS and EPA

60.

Which piece of legislation was passed in 1906 to prevent the adulteration and misbranding of meat products?

a)

Adulteration Act

b)

Humane Methods of Slaughter Act

c)

Humane Slaughter Act

d)

Meat Inspection Act

61.

Beef is more commonly aged than pork or lamb because...

a)

Pork and lamb are harvested at a younger age so are naturally more tender

b)

Pork and lamb are typically higher in fat content so are naturally more tender

c)

Pork and lamb are typically leaner so are naturally more tender

d)

Pork and lamb are much higher in protein content so are naturally more tender

62.

Which is the suggested maximum caloric fat intake in a person's daily diet?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

63.

Approximately__ of graded beef in the United States grades at USDA Prime.

a)

0%

b)

2%

c)

12%

d)

22%

64.

Which of the following involves vacuum packing meat in moisture-proof vapor film, then refrigerated for various time periods?

a)

Dry aging

b)

Organic Seasoning

c)

Smoking

d)

Wet Aging

65.

Feed and feedstuffs are withheld from animals 12 hours prior to slaughter to...

a)

Alter the chemical content of the meat for increased tenderness

b)

Increase docility in the animal for easier handling

c)

Minimize slaughter production costs

d)

Reduce microbial contamination from visceral punctures

66.

When was the first major outbreak of Escherichia coli 0157:H7? It was traced to ground beef from a major fast-food chain.

a)

1973

b)

1983

c)

1993

d)

2003

67.

Retail cuts of meat are label on a uniform basis

a)

according to the Uniform Retail Meat Identity Standards

b)

according to the individual retail store's preferred name

c)

according to the names provided by the Meat Inspection Act

d)

according to the names provided by the Food Science Agency

68.

Which component found in meat contains the most energy per gram?

a)

Fat

b)

Iron

c)

Protein

d)

Water

69.

Short-Fed cattle are cattle that are fed in a feedlot from

a)

130-170 days

b)

90-130 days

c)

50-90 days

d)

Over 170 days

70.

What term is given to the total weight of the food product minus the weight of the packaging materials?

a)

Gross weight

b)

Net weight

c)

Packaged weights

d)

Serving weights

71.

What are the numerical measurements of the percentage of boneless, closely trimmed retail cuts of a carcass?

a)

Inspection stamps

b)

Maturity classes

c)

Quality grades

d)

Yield grades

72.

What are the amounts of drug, antibiotic or hormone left behind in a product after withdrawal period has passed?

a)

Enduring amounts

b)

Lingering effects

c)

Residual levels

d)

Half-life component

73.

Primal cuts are all BUT which one of the following?

a)

sold in grocery stores for customer convenience

b)

broken down into sub-primals then retail cuts

c)

known by different names for each species

d)

large pieces into which a carcass is divided

74.

What is the grade "A" maturity beef that has a marbling score of "Small"?

a)

Low Standard

b)

Low Select

c)

Low Choice

d)

Low Prime

75.

Which of the following is. a process of identifying possible sources of food adulteration during processing? It must be in place in all federal and state meat processing facilities.

a)

AMS

b)

HACCP

c)

NASA

d)

OSHA