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Hazmat

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which federal agency has the following definition of

Hazardous Materials?

 

“A substance or material which has been determined by

the Secretary of Transportation to be capable of posing

an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property

when transported in commerce, and which has been

so designated…”

a)

ocupacional safety & health administration (osha)

b)

u.s. department of transportation (DOT)

c)

environmental protection agency (EPA)

2.

Which federal agency has the following definition of

Hazardous Substances?

 

“Any substance listed in 40 CFR Table 302.4 that, when

released into the environment above a certain amount,

must be reported and, depending upon the threat to the

environment, federal involvement may be authorized…”

a)

Environmental protection agency (EPA)

b)

U.S. Department of transportation (DOT)

c)

occupational safety & health administration (osha)

3.

Defined 18 United States Code (USC) section 2332a

•Any destructive device as defined by section 921 of

   this title; includes explosives, incendiaries, and

   projectiles.    

•Any weapon designed or intended to cause death or

   serious bodily injury through the release,

   dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous

   chemicals; or their precursors.

•Any weapon involving a biological agent, toxin or vector.

•Any weapon that is designed to release radiation or

   radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life.

a)

weapons of mass destruction

b)

hazardous waste

c)

radioactive materials

d)

oxidizers

4.

which federal agency has the following definition of

Hazardous Substances?

 

“Any substance designated or listed under paragraphs (a)

through (d) of this definition, exposure to which results

or may result in adverse effects on the health or safety

of employees”

a)

environmental protection agency (EPA)

b)

occupational safety & health administration (OSHA)

c)

U.S. Department of transportation (DOT)

5.

The Hazardous Materials First Responder Operations

Level personnel operate in a (a)   manner that

involves no chemical contact.

6.

what are the six events of the general hazardous materials behavior model

a)

disintegration, runaway linear cracking, closures open up, punctures, splits and tears, rapid relief

b)

stress, breach, release, engulf, impinge, harm

c)

cloud, plume, cone, stream, pool, irregular deposits

d)

detonation, violent rupture, rapid relief, spill/leak

7.

what are the three types of stress events of the general hazardous materials behavior model

a)

thermal, mechanical, chemical

b)

radiation, thermal, etiological

c)

asphyxiation, chemical, radiation

d)

asphyxiation, chemical, etiological

8.

A term for chemicals that are regulated under the

Resource, Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

(40 CFR, part 261.33) “Cradle to Grave Law.”  These

materials in transport are regulated by DOT

(49 CFR, parts 170-179).

a)

weapons of mass destruction

b)

defensive

c)

hazardous waste

d)

radioactive material

9.

what are the four types of release events of the general hazardous materials behavior model

a)

stress, breach, release, engulf

b)

Detonation, violent rupture, rapid relief, spill/leak

c)

pool, stream, plume, cone

10.

what are the three types of impingement events of the general hazardous materials behavior model

(a)  

11.

what are the five types of breach events of the general hazardous materials behavior model

a)

breach, runaway linear cracking, splits and tears, detonation, punctures

b)

detonation, violent rupture, rapid relief, spill/leak, punctures

c)

Disintegration, Runaway linear cracking, closures open up, punctures, splits and tears

12.

What are the six types of harm events of the general hazardous materials behavior model

a)

thermal, radiation, asphyxiation, chemical, etiological, mechanical

b)

violent rupture, thermal, irregular deposits, chemical, disintegration, punctures

c)

etiological, detonation, rapid relief, plume, thermal, punctures

13.

what are the six steps of the D.E.C.I.D.E. process

(a)  

14.

The tactics used by the hazardous materials first responder operations level personnel focus on the tactics to change the actions of what three elements of the incident

a)

product

b)

chemical

c)

thermal

d)

container

e)

environment

15.

what process allows the responder to identify critical information about a potential hazardous material problem before the emergency incident occurs? Responders can collect important information about materials and facilities, to enhance their ability to operate in a safe manner and develop control strategies and prepare for special tactical operations.

(a)  

16.

what are the seven type of engulfment events of the general hazardous materials behavior models

a)

spherical/hemispherical

b)

cloud, plume, cone

c)

stream, pool, irregular deposits

d)

detonation, violent rupture, stream

e)

pool, cone, spill/leak, detonation

17.

what is the OSHA regulation that dig dig safe procedures for handling emergency response involving hazardous materials

a)

29 CFR 1910.120(q)(3)

b)

22 CFR 1910.120(q)(3)

c)

12 CFR 1910.120(q)(3)

d)

32 CFE 1910.120(q)(3)

18.

what is the name of the federal regulation that requires anyone possessing certain hazardous materials over a certain quantity to report those hazardous materials to the local government local fire department and state government so that the local community can understand and be aware of chemical hazards in their communities? This regulation is also known as the emergency planning and community, right to know act.

a)

local emergency planning committee

b)

Superfund amendments and re-authorization act

c)

aerial locations of hazardous atmospheres

d)

secondary devices intended to harm responders

19.

what is the name of the group of people that is required in each jurisdiction by the super fund amendments and re-authorization act in responsible for planning and preparing for hazardous materials emergencies within their jurisdiction

a)

Ariel locations of hazardous atmospheres

b)

superfund amendments and reauthorization act

c)

secondary devices intended to harm responders

d)

local emergency planning committee

20.

when approaching the hazardous materials scene, it is better to approach (a)  

21.

what should be one of the primary concerns of emergency responders when responding to a potential terrorist or criminal hazardous materials incident

a)

local emergency planning committee

b)

secondary devices intended to harm responders

c)

aerial locations of hazardous atmospheres

d)

Super fund amendments and reauthorization act

22.

what are the items described by the evade acronym?

(a)  

23.

what is the NSP a standard upon which hazardous materials training is designed

(a)  

24.

what is the name of the software in which you can enter local data and leak information and generate plume projections?

a)

Ariel locations of hazardous atmospheres

b)

secondary devices intended to harm responders

c)

superfund amendments and reauthorization act

d)

local emergency planning committee

25.

what are the four or five levels of training described in NFPA 1072?

(a)  

26.

what are the nine operations mission specific items listed in chapter 6 of NFPA 1072?

(a)  

27.

what is the primary difference between training levels, awareness and operations as defined in NFPA 1072?

(a)  

28.

what does the acronym CBRNE describe

(a)  

29.

when notifying other agencies of your hazardous materials incident, what information should you be prepared to provide?

(a)  

30.

what are the three physical states in which you may find a hazardous material?

(a)  

31.

A material with a melting point above ambient temperature

(a)  

32.

what are the eight steps in the process of assessing a hazardous materials incident?

(a)  

33.

A material with a boiling point of less than 68°

(a)  

34.

The temperature at which a liquid changes to a vapor at its maximum rate

(a)  

35.

as a materials temperature increases within a container. What reaction would you expect to see in the vapor pressure

(a)  

36.

A material with a boiling point of more than 68°

(a)  

37.

Materials with low boiling points have (a)   vapor pressure’s, and are therefore categorized as volatile

38.

The pressure, a vapor of a liquid exerts on its container when vapor and liquid are in equilibrium

(a)  

39.

The ratio of the density of a volume of gas as compared to the same volume of air?

(a)  

40.

The ratio of the density of a volume of liquid as compared to the same volume of water

(a)  

41.

Materials with high boiling points have (a)   vapor pressure’s

42.

Materials with a specific gravity, less than 1 will (a)   in water

43.

Materials with a vapor density greater than 1 will (a)   in air

44.

The liquid materials, ability to mix with another liquid

(a)  

45.

A material with (a)   volatility will produce large amounts of vapor and will evaporate very quickly. These materials are quickly dispersed, and increase the size of the hazard area.

46.

The ability for a material to stay in an area for long periods of time

(a)  

47.

The solid materials, ability to dissolve in water

(a)  

48.

The ability for a solid to pass directly to a gas state

(a)  

49.

Chemical reaction in which small molecules combine to form larger molecules releases large amounts of energy?

(a)  

50.

The process by which one substance combines with another

(a)  

51.

Materials that ignite spontaneously in the air are called?

(a)  

52.

Materials that react in liberate heat and gases when they come in contact with water or the moisture in the air?

a)

oxidizers

b)

water reactive

c)

radioactive materials

d)

sublime

53.

Materials that give up oxygen very easily to support the combustion of flammable or combustible materials

(a)  

54.

transmit energy through space in the form of particles and energy rays. This energy is produced from the breakdown of the nucleus of atoms.

a)

water reactive materials

b)

oxidized materials

c)

radioactive materials

55.

absorbed dose is the measurement of radiation transferred to a material by radiation. This is measured in RADs. Equivalent dose is the measurement of the amount of ionization to air caused by x-rays or gamma radiation. The unit of measure is the roentgen.

effective dose is the correction of the equivalent dose to apply the radiation affect to humans. The unit of measure is called?

a)

REM (roentgen equivalent man)

b)

REM (radiation evacuation material)

c)

REM (radioactive equivalent man)

56.

alpha radiation

a)

alpha radiation is a particle with four protons and two neutrons, it has a negative electrical charge, and I travel great distances

b)

alpha radiation is an energy wave has no electrical charge and travels 2 to 4 inches

c)

alpha radiation is a particle with two protons and two neutrons, it has a positive electrical charge and has a travel distance of 3 to 6 inches

57.

beta radiation

a)

Beta radiation is a particle with one proton and one electron, it has a positive electrical charge and travels 1 to 2 feet

b)

beta radiation is a particle with one electron, it has a negative electrical charge, and travel distance is several feet

c)

beta radiation is an energy wave with one neutron, a positive electrical charge, and travels great distances

58.

neutron radiation

a)

neutron radiation is a particle with one neutron, it has a neutral, electrical charge, and travels great distances

b)

neutron radiation is an energy wave with one electron a positive electrical charge and has a travel distance of 3 to 4 inches

c)

neutron radiation is a particle with one neutron, and one electron, has an positive electrical charge, and has no travel distance

59.

gamma radiation

a)

gamma radiation is an energy wave with one neutron, no electrical charge, and a travel distance of 1 to 2 inches

b)

gamma radiation is a energy wave with no electrical charge, and travels at great distances

c)

gamma radiation is a particle with one electron, a positive electrical charge, and a travel distance of 2 feet

60.

what is considered neutral on the pH scale?

a)

two

b)

five

c)

seven

d)

10

61.

Materials with a pH of more than seven are called?

(a)  

62.

The temperature at which a material will generate enough papers tonight in the presence of a outside pilot, ignition source, flame, or spark, but will not assisting combustion

a)

Fire point

b)

flash point

c)

ignition temperature

d)

flammable range

63.

The temperature at which material will generate enough vapors doing night in the presence of eight outside pilot, ignition source, and will continue to burn

a)

ignition temperature

b)

Fire point

c)

Flash point

d)

flammable range

64.

The minimum temperature required to cause ignition without an outside pilot ignition source

a)

ignition temperature

b)

Flash point

c)

fire point

d)

flammable range

65.

vapor a gas concentration amount by volume in air that will burn or explode if an ignition source is present

a)

ignition temperature

b)

fire point

c)

flammable range

d)

Flash point

66.

flammable range is usually expressed in these two terms

(a)  

67.

chemicals that displace oxygen are referred to as ____ asphyxiant. Chemicals that interfere with the bloods ability to carry oxygen are referred to as _____ asphyxiants

(a)  

68.

what are the four routes of exposure for hazardous materials?

(a)  

69.

what does the term ORM – D mean

(a)  

70.

In relation to the transportation of poisonous substances, which hazard zone indicates the greatest danger? And which packing group and the kids, the most protective packing

(a)  

71.

what four pieces of information are located on a placard?

(a)  

72.

with respect to DOT placarding requirements, table 1 commodities have to be placarded at ____ amount. Table to commodities have to be placarded at _____

(a)  

73.

in relation to chemical labels, which signal word indicates the highest level of hazard

(a)  

74.

what does STCC mean, and where would you see it used?



(a)  

75.

what does CAS mean?

(a)  

76.

what is three pieces of information must be located on a pipeline maker

(a)  

77.

how would the responder contact the shipper during a hazardous materials incident?

(a)  

78.

what reference document is intended to aid the responder during the initial 30 minutes of a hazardous material incident?

(a)  

79.

when a fire involves an explosive, what is the top priority response?

a)

Control the fire

b)

evacuation

c)

determine the explosive

80.

using the ERG, what are the three primary types of information provided in each guide

(a)  

81.

using the ERG, what are the two potential hazard defined in each guide?

(a)  

82.

using the ERG, if the material is highlighted in green in the blue or yellow sections, how do you decide whether to go to the green section or orange section 1st

(a)  

83.

using the ERG, how would you determine your initial hot zone for your incident, for a chemical not highlighted in green?

(a)  

84.

using your ERG, if you’re shipping paper says a chemical is allyl alcohol, which section in the ERG would you begin searching for information?

a)

The green section

b)

The red section

c)

The blue section

d)

The yellow section

85.

using your ERG if you believe you have a hazardous material, but you do not have any identifying information, to which guide would you turn to

a)

Guide 111

b)

Guide 112

c)

Guide 231

d)

Guide, 101

86.

using your ERG, what is the difference between a small spill, and a large spill

a)

small spill <55 gallons

Large spill >55 gallons

b)

small spill < 65 gallons

Large spill >65 gallons

c)

small spill < 45 gallons

Large spill > 45 gallons

d)

small spill < 75 gallons

Large spill >75 gallons

87.

what organization, operating nationally provides 24/7 access to information about shippers, carriers, and hazardous materials, technical information, through an industry call center?

(a)  

88.

what is the phone number to CHEMTREC

a)

800-515-8500

b)

800-424-9300

c)

800-566-1200

d)

800-215-7800

89.

True or false

If hazardous materials are being used in a workplace, you should be able to obtain copies of the safety data sheets for all chemical used in that work place by contacting the facility operator

(a)  

90.

Who is tasked with creating a safety data sheet for a particular chemical?

(a)  

91.

using the SDS for heptane, what is the auto ignition temperature?

a)

350°C

b)

246°C

c)

526°C

d)

275°C

92.

using the SDS for sulfuric acid, what is the specific gravity?

a)

1.65

b)

2.58

c)

1.84

d)

1.48

93.

using the SDS for anhydrous ammonia, what are the lower and upper flammable limits

Hint: it’s percentages

(a)  

94.

what is the definition of a bulk container for a solid

a)

maximum capacity greater than 119 gallons

b)

maximum capacity greater than 882 pounds

c)

water capacity greater than 1000 pounds

95.

what is the definition of a bulk container for a liquid?

a)

maximum capacity greater than 119 gallons

b)

water capacity greater than 1000 pounds

c)

maximum capacity greater than 882 pounds

96.

what is the definition of a bulk container for a gas?

a)

maximum capacity greater than 119 gallons

b)

water capacity greater than 1000 pounds

c)

maximum capacity greater than 882 pounds

97.

what are a sub class of book packages with capacities varying from 119 gallons to around 800 gallons that are used to transport solids and liquids

(a)