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FUNDAMENTALS Perioperative Nursing Care

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why should pts stop smoking as soon as possible with scheduled surgery?

a)

Delays wound healing

b)

Increases difficult clearing airway

c)

Causes strokes

d)

Causes pneumonia

2.

Which age group has less physiological capacity to adapt to the stress of surgery?

a)

Adolescents

b)

School aged children

c)

Older adults

d)

Adults

3.

Why does surgery increase the need for nutrition?

a)

Adequate nutrition prevents internal bleeding

b)

Adequate nutrition promotes tissue repair

c)

Adequate nutrition decreases edema

d)

Adequate nutrition increases resistance to infection

4.

What happens as a pt's weight increases?

a)

Decreased ventilation and heart function

b)

Increased risk of post op atelectasis, pneumonia, and death

c)

Increased risk for pressure injuries

d)

Increased ventilation and heart function

5.

Partial or complete obstruction of the upper airway during sleep

a)

Hypoventilation sleep apnea

b)

Pulmonic sleep apnea

c)

Central sleep apnea

d)

Obstructive sleep apnea

6.

What changes happen to the body during obstructive sleep apnea?

a)

Decreased cardiac output

b)

Decreased sympathetic output

c)

Decreased oxygen saturation

d)

Decreased blood pressure

7.

What is risky for a pt with obstructive sleep apnea?

a)

Incentive spirometry

b)

Conscious sedation

c)

Post op ambulation

d)

Drinking

8.

Immunosuppression imposes what risks with surgery?

a)

Amputation

b)

Risk for infection

c)

Inadequate wound healing

d)

Blood clotting

9.

What happens due to stress response from surgery?

a)

Negative nitrogen balance

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Water and sodium retention

d)

Potassium loss

10.

Which pts have a greater risk of fluid and electrolyte alterations due to surgery?

a)

Preexisting diabetes and renal diseases

b)

GI or cardiovascular abnormalities

c)

Spine and bone defmormities

d)

Brain or nerve damage

11.

Postoperative nausea and vomiting can cause

a)

Wound splitting

b)

Aspiration

c)

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

d)

Pain

12.

Which of the following increases the risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting?

a)

Opioids and inhaled anesthetics

b)

Increased fluid and electrolyte intake

c)

Eating 24 hours before surgery

d)

ENT, abdominal, and gynecology surgeries

13.

Which factors increase risk of a venous thromboembolism?

a)

Joint replacement

b)

Surgery longer than 90 minutes

c)

Mobility reduction after surgery

d)

Cancer or cancer treatment

14.

Who is at risk for developing a venous thromboembolism?

a)

An obese pt with dehydration

b)

A 5 year old pt with a paper cut

c)

A 60 year old critical care pt with a known clotting disorder

d)

An anorexic pt with hypoglycemia

15.

Loss of all sensation and consciousness

a)

Moderate conscious sedation

b)

General anesthesia

c)

Local anesthesia

d)

Regional anesthesia

16.

Loss of sensation in one are of the body

a)

Moderate conscious sedation

b)

General anesthesia

c)

Local anesthesia

d)

Regional anesthesia

17.

Loss of sensation at a specific site

a)

Moderate conscious sedation

b)

General anesthesia

c)

Local anesthesia

d)

Regional anesthesia

18.

High risk surgery

a)

Major surgery

b)

Minor surgery

19.

Low risk surgery

a)

Major surgery

b)

Minor surgery

20.

Not time sensitive

a)

Urgent surgery

b)

Elective surgery

c)

Emergency surgery

21.

Scheduled within 24-48 hours to alleviate symptoms, repair, or restore a body part

a)

Urgent surgery

b)

Elective surgery

c)

Emergency surgery

22.

Pt is transported to the OR ASAP to preserve life and function

a)

Urgent surgery

b)

Elective surgery

c)

Emergency surgery

23.

Removal of a diseased part

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Ablative

d)

Diagnostic

24.

Used to confirm or rule out a condition

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Ablative

d)

Diagnostic

25.

Used to alleviate discomfort or other disease symptoms without producing a cure

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Cosmetic

d)

Transplant

26.

Used to restore function

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Cosmetic

d)

Transplant

27.

Used to improve appearance

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Cosmetic

d)

Transplant

28.

Replaces a malfunctioning body part, tissue, or organ

a)

Reconstructive

b)

Palliative

c)

Cosmetic

d)

Transplant

29.

What are surgeries classified by?

a)

Specialty

b)

Seriousness

c)

Urgency

d)

Purpose

30.

ASA classification of pt with a mild systemic disease w/o substantive changes

a)

ASA 1

b)

ASA 2

c)

ASA 3

d)

ASA 4

31.

ASA classification of a normal healthy pt

a)

ASA 1

b)

ASA 3

c)

ASA 4

d)

ASA 5

32.

ASA classification of a pt declared brain dead and whose organs are being removed for donor purpose

a)

ASA 1

b)

ASA 3

c)

ASA 4

d)

ASA 5

33.

ASA classification of a pt with a systemic disease that is a constant threat to life

a)

ASA 1

b)

ASA 3

c)

ASA 4

d)

ASA 5

34.

ASA classification of a pt with severe systemic disease with substantive changes

a)

ASA 1

b)

ASA 3

c)

ASA 4

d)

ASA 5

35.

Poor control of blood glucose during and after surgery can lead to

a)

Gangrene

b)

Blood clots

c)

Risk of infection

d)

Poor healing

36.

Observation, post anesthesia recovery score, and discharge occur during which phase of postoperative care?

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

37.

Focused assessment, v/s every 5-15 mins, recovery from anesthesia, airway management, dressing assessment, pain control, fluid therapy, mobility and sensation assessmnet occur during which phase of postoperative care?

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

38.

Assessment of airway, circulation, temperature, fluid & electrolyte, neuro, skin, metabolism, GI, GU, mobility, comfort, and nutrition occurs during which phase of postoperative care?

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

39.

Rare genetic life threatening complication of anesthesia where a hypermetabolc state occurs within skeletal muscles that become triggered

a)

Benign Hypothermia

b)

Benign Hyperthermia

c)

Malignant Hypothermia

d)

Malignant Hyperthermia

40.

Malignant hyperthermia results in increased

a)

Intracellular calcium ions

b)

Extracellular calcium ions

c)

Intracellular sodium ions

d)

Extracellular sodium ions

41.

Malignant hyperthermia results in

a)

Increased CO2, O2, and K+ levels

b)

Metabolic and respiratory acidosis

c)

Production of heat

d)

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

42.

Early signs of malignant hyperthermia include

a)

Tachypnea and tachycardia

b)

Heart arrhythmias and muscle rigidity

c)

Hypotension and hypoventilation

d)

Hyperkalemia and hypercarbia