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A&P 2 EXAM 1

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

On a scale from 1-10 how do we feel about this exam? (10 = could ace the exam)

a)

1-2

b)

3-4

c)

5-6

d)

7-8

e)

9-10

2.

Blood has a variety of functions, which one is not a function of blood

a)

Maintaining body temperature by absorbing and distributing heat

b)

Preventing infections

c)

Transport metabolic waste to lungs and kidneys for elimination

d)

Carrying oxygen from the cells to the lungs

e)

These are all functions of blood

3.

Buffy coat consists of

a)

WBC

b)

Plasma

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Platlets

4.

Most significant protein found in blood plasma and is a major contributor to osmotic pressure

a)

Globulins

b)

Albumin

c)

Fibrinogen

d)

Hemoglobin

5.

How many oxygen molecules can a single hemoglobin carry?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

1

d)

8

6.

Which structure releases EPO?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Bone Marrow

c)

Spleen

d)

Pancreas

7.

An increase in EPO would cause BP to

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain the Same

8.

You encounter a patient with a bacterial infection, what WBC count would you find abnormal?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Basophils

9.

An abnormal T lymphocyte count indicates

a)

Production of antibodies

b)

Asthma

c)

Inflammation

d)

Potential Tumor

10.

Viewing a specimen under the microscope you find a parasite, this patient's _____________ would be abnormally high

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Neutrophils

11.

Vaccines are designed to trigger antibody production. The goal is to stimulate what WBC?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

B Lymphocytes

c)

Monocytes

d)

Neutrophils

12.

All WBC come from myeloid stem cells

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The correct sequence of events in coagulation would be

a)

Prothrombin -> Thrombin -> Fibrinogen -> Fibrin

b)

Prothrombin -> Prothrombin Activator -> Fibrinogen -> Fibrin

c)

Prothrombin -> Fibrinogen -> Thrombin -> Fibrin

d)

Fibrinogen -> Fibrin -> Prothrombin -> Thrombin

14.

In activation of prothrombin, Factor X will be coupled with _______ to form prothrombin activator

a)

Factor V

b)

PF3

c)

Ca2+

d)

All are coupled with Factor X

15.

To achieve the quickest response in coagulation it would be ideal to go through what pathway?

a)

Extrinsic

b)

Intrinsic

16.

Which ion is primarily responsible for the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Chloride

d)

Calcium

17.

Due to a birth defect of the circuitry of the heart causes blood to reenter the left atrium from the left ventricle. This particular birth defect affects what valve in the heart?

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Pulmonary valve

c)

Bicuspid valve

d)

Aortic valve

18.

The pulmonary artery carries

a)

Oxygenated blood to the heart

b)

Deoxygenated blood towards the lungs

c)

Oxygenated blood away from the heart

d)

Deoxygenated blood away from the lung

19.

What veins drain into the right atrium

a)

Superior vena cava

b)

Inferior vena cava

c)

Coronary Sinus

d)

Pulmonary vein

e)

Pulmonary Trunk

20.

Which chamber of the heart generates the highest pressure during systole?

a)

Left ventricle

b)

Right atrium

c)

Left atrium

d)

Right ventricle

21.

Generates impulses at 75x/minutte

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Bundle of His

22.

This would be an example of

a)

Sinus Rhythm

b)

Junctional Rhythm

c)

Heart Block

d)

Arrhythmia

23.

Absent of the T wave complex would indicate issues in

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Ventricular repolarization

c)

Ventricular depolarization

d)

Atrial repolarization

24.

A patient HR reads 80 bpm and their cardiac output (CO) was determined to be 8000. What is the stroke volume?

(a)  

25.

If there is increased vagal stimulation to the heart, how does cardiac output change?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain the Same

26.

An increase in afterload would cause SV to

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain the same

27.

An increase in SV could be associated with

a)

EDV decreases

b)

Increase in preload

c)

ESV increase

d)

Decreasing contractility

28.

An increase in ESV would cause CO

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

29.

Which of the following changes would decrease myocardial oxygen demand?

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Increased contractility

c)

Decreased preload

d)

Increased afterload

30.

A person with uncontrolled hypertension over a long period of time would have direct consequences on their

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Brain

d)

Heart

31.

If the fluid is not exiting the capillaries what might be effected

a)

Osmotic pressure

b)

Hydrostatic pressure

c)

Systolic pressure

32.

Which one is not associated with resistance

a)

Blood viscosity

b)

Vessel length

c)

Vessel Diameter

d)

All are associated with resistance

33.

If baroreceptor firing increase, what happens to total peripheral resistance

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain the same

34.

Which of the following would lead to an increase in venous return?

a)

Standing still for prolonged periods

b)

Increased skeletal muscle contraction

c)

Decreased blood volume

d)

Increased intrathoracic pressure

35.

When total peripheral resistance increases, what happens to mean arterial pressure

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain the same

36.

Firing of cardioinhibitory center causes CO

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain the same

37.

If arterial compliance decreases, how does systolic blood pressure change

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No effect

38.

What causes fluid to exit capillaries into tissues?

a)

Osmotic pressure greater than hydrostatic pressure

b)

Net filtration pressure equaling zero

c)

Hydrostatic pressure greater than osmotic pressure

d)

Albumin

39.

From arteriole to venule, the osmotic pressure of the capillary

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remain the same

40.

After the review, 1-10, how prepared do we feel about the exam?

a)

1-2

b)

3-4

c)

5-6

d)

7-8

e)

9-10