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AP Unit 3 Review

Total questions: 173

Worksheet time: 29hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
An isotope has three forms.  30% have a mass of 4 amu, 20% have a mass of 5 amu and 50% have a mass of 3 amu.  Average atomic mass will be closest to
a)
2 amu
b)
3 amu
c)
4 amu
d)
5 amu
2.

Calculate the average atomic mass of silver.

a)

106.38649amu

b)

111.91896amu

c)

107.8677amu

d)

121

3.
An element has two naturally occurring isotopes. One is 10.013 amu and is 19.9% abundant. The other is 11.01 amu and is 80.1% abundant. What is the average atomic mass? What element is it?
a)
9.012, Beryllium
b)
12.011, Carbon
c)
6.941, Lithium
d)
10.812, Boron
4.
A neutral atom of Carbon-13 has ________ electrons and _________ neutrons
a)
13, 13
b)
6, 7
c)
7, 7
d)
6, 6
5.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of __________ but different number of __________ . Therefore, isotopes of the same element have different masses. 
a)
protons, neutrons
b)
protons, electrons
c)
neutrons, protons
d)
electrons, protons
6.
The  mass of an atom is located  in the ___________ and the volume of an atom is made of the ____________
a)
electron cloud, nucleus
b)
electron cloud, energy levels
c)
nucleus, electron cloud
d)
nucleus, neutrons
7.

Do the following atoms belong to the same element?

- Aluminum-27

- An atom with 14 protons and 13 neutrons

a)

Yes because they have the same number of protons

b)

Yes because they have the same mass

c)

No because they have different number of protons

d)

No because they have different number of neutrons

8.
A neutral atom of the isotope 2612Mg would consist of
a)
12 protons, 26 neutrons, 26 electrons
b)
26 protons, 12 neutrons, 26 electrons
c)
26 protons, 14 neutrons, 14 electrons
d)
12 protons, 14 neutrons, 12 electrons
9.
On the periodic table, how is atomic mass represented?
a)
As an average of the mass of different isotopes
b)
as the exact mass of every atom
c)
as the mass of the most common isotopes
d)
As the masses of all protons added together
10.
What do the peaks on the mass spectrum represent?
a)
anions
b)
different isotopes
c)
atoms with differing numbers of electrons
d)
numbers of electrons
11.

What do the heights of the peaks represent in the mass spectrum?

a)

number of isotopes

b)

relative abundance of each isotope

c)

average atomic mass

d)

charge:mass ratio

12.

How many isotopes are shown in this mass spectrum?

a)

1

b)

84

c)

86

d)

4

13.

Use your periodic table. There are two isotopes of rubidium: 85Rb and 87 Rb. Which is more abundant?

a)

equally abundant

b)

rubidium-85

c)

rubidium-85.47

d)

rubidium-87

14.

What is the average atomic mass for this element?

a)

10 amu

b)

10.8 amu

c)

19.9 amu

d)

11 amu

15.

Bromine has two major isotopes giving it an atomic mass of 79.904 amu. Based on this information, which of the following statements can explain the atomic mass value?

a)

The isotope Bromine-81 is more common than Bromine-79

b)

Bromine-79 and Bromine-81 exist in approximately equal proportions

c)

Bromine-78 is about twice as abundant as Bromine-81

d)

The two major isotopes of Bromine have 45 neutrons and 46 neutrons

16.

Which is true of the 243Am3+ ion?

a)

148 protons, 145 electrons, 243 neutrons

b)

95 protons, 95 electrons, 148 neutrons

c)

95 protons, 98 electrons, 243 neutrons

d)

95 protons, 92 electrons, 148 neutrons

17.

A pure sample of an element was vaporized and injected into a mass spectrometer and the data was plotted on the graph to the right. The mass values for the isotopes were found to be: A-56 (55.935 amu), A-54 (53.949 amu), A-57 (56.935 amu), and A-58 (57.933 amu). What is the most precise average atomic mass?

a)

55.846 amu

b)

54.916 amu

c)

55.911 amu

d)

54.140 amu

18.
Compute the average atomic mass for silicon:
a)
27.977
b)
28.09
c)
28.976
d)
The average mass cannot be determined from provided information.
19.
What is the name of the pictured isotope?
a)
Chlorine-Schmorine
b)
Chlorine-17
c)
Chlorine-35
d)
Chlorine-18
20.

Which element does this mass spectrum most likely represent?

a)

neon

b)

scandium

c)

boron

d)

sodium

21.

What do you expect the molar mass to be for this element?

a)

91.4 g/mol

b)

90.0 g/mol

c)

4 g/mol

d)

50. g/mol

22.

How many isotopes of this element are shown in the mass spectrum?

a)

98

b)

7

c)

100

d)

95.9 g/mol

23.
The average atomic mass for nitrogen is 14.0067 amu.  If you have a sample of nitrogen atoms, what is the chance that one randomly selected atom will have a mass of 14.0067 amu?
a)
0.0%
b)
0.0067%
c)
90%
d)
100%
24.

A gas phase atom with the electron configuration

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6 loses three electrons. What is the electron configuration of the resulting gas phase ion?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d4

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d3

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 4s1 3d5

25.

Which element has atoms with four valence electrons in its ground state?

a)

Ca

b)

Cr

c)

Si

d)

S

26.

Gas-phase atoms of which elements have an occupied 5d orbital in their ground state?

a)

Ag (Z=47)

b)

Ba (Z=56)

c)

Eu (Z=63)

d)

Ir (Z=77)

27.

Which must represent an atom in an excited state?

a)

1s22s22p1

b)

1s22s22p3

c)

1s22s22p33s1

d)

1s22s22p5

28.

Which pair consists of species that are isoelectronic?

a)

Na+, K+

b)

Cl, Cl-

c)

Fe2+, Mn2+

d)

Ar, Ca2+

29.

Which is the electron configuration for an Fe(III) ion in its ground state? (notice it's an ion - what orbits would it lose electrons from?)

a)

[Ar]3d5

b)

[Ar]3d6

c)

[Ar]4s23d3

d)

[Ar]4s23d6

30.

Atoms of element X have an electronic configuration of 1s22s22p63s23p3. The compound most likely formed with magnesium is:

a)

MgX

b)

MgX2

c)

MgX3

d)

Mg3X2

31.

Which is an impossible electron configuration?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

32.

Which is the ground-state configuration for the atoms of a transition element?

a)

b

b)

c

c)

d

d)

e

33.

Which represents an atom that has four valence electrons?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

34.

Which represents an atom of a transition metal?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

35.

Which of the following statements about quantum theory is INCORRECT?

a)

The energy and position of an electron cannot be determined simultaneously.

b)

Lower energy orbitals are filled before higher energy orbitals.

c)

When filling orbitals of equal energy, two electrons will occupy the same orbital (box) before filling a new orbital (box).

d)

No two electrons can have the same spin in the same orbital (box).

36.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The exact location of an electron can be determined if we know the energy.

b)

An electron in a 2s orbital requires the same amount of energy to be removed as an electron in a 2p orbital.

c)

Ni has two unpaired electrons in its 3d orbitals.

d)

In the buildup of atoms, electrons occupy the 4f orbitals before the 6s orbitals.

37.

Which existing element would the chemistry of element 119 most resemble?

a)

Rn (Z=86)

b)

Fr (Z=87)

c)

Ra (Z=88)

d)

Ac (Z=89)

38.

Which atom has the highest electronegativity?

a)

Na

b)

P

c)

Cl

d)

Br

39.

Of the elements listed, which has the highest first ionization energy?

a)

Li

b)

Be

c)

Na

d)

Mg

40.

Properties of the alkaline earth metals that increase from Be to Ba include which of the following?

i. Atomic radius

ii. Ionization energy

iii. Ionic radius

a)

i and ii only

b)

i and iii only

c)

ii and iii only

d)

i, ii, and iii

41.

In which lists are the ions arranged in order of decreasing size?

a)

S2-, Br-, K+, Ca2+

b)

Br-, S2-, K+, Ca2+

c)

K+, Ca2+, Br-, S2-

d)

Ca2+, K+, S2-, Br-

42.

The removal of an electron from which gaseous atom requires the greatest amount of energy?

a)

Na

b)

Cl

c)

K

d)

Br

43.

In which series are the species listed in order of increasing size?

a)

N, O, F

b)

Na, Mg, K

c)

Cr, Cr2+, Cr3+

d)

Cl, Cl-, S2-

44.

Which equation represents the first ionization of calcium?

a)

Ca(s) → Ca+(g) + e-

b)

Ca(g) → Ca+(g) + e-

c)

Ca+(g) → Ca2+(g) + e-

d)

Ca2+(g) + e- → Ca+(g)

45.

Electronegativities change both down a group and across a period. In general these changes are to:

a)

increase down a group; increase across a period

b)

increase down a group; decrease across a period

c)

decrease down a group; increase across a period

d)

decrease down a group; decrease across a period

46.

When the atoms: Ba, Cs, Mg, Na are arranged in order of increasing size, what is the correct order?

a)

Cs < Na < Mg < Ba

b)

Mg < Na < Ba < Cs

c)

Mg < Ba < Na < Cs

d)

Ba < Mg < Na < Cs

47.

Which element has the largest radius?

a)

Br

b)

K

c)

Mg

d)

Na

48.

Which pair of symbols identifies two elements that are metalloids?

a)

B and Ge

b)

Mg and Si

c)

P and As

d)

Ti and V

49.

Which of the following properties generally decreases across the periodic table from sodium to chlorine?

a)

first ionization energy

b)

atomic mass

c)

electronegativity

d)

atomic radius

50.

Order the elements S, Cl, and F in terms of increasing atomic radii.

a)

S, Cl, F

b)

Cl, F, S

c)

F, S, Cl

d)

F, Cl, S

51.

Which of the following would have the largest SECOND ionization energy?

a)

Mg

b)

Cl

c)

S

d)

Na

52.

The first ionization energy of Mg is 735 kJ/mol. The second ionization energy is

a)

735 kJ/mol

b)

less than 735 kJ/mol

c)

greater than 735 kJ/mol

d)

more information is needed to answer the question

53.

Which of the following concerning second ionization energies is true?

a)

That of Al is higher than that of Mg because Mg wants to lose the 2nd electron, so it is easier to take the 2nd electron away.

b)

That of Al is higher than that of Mg because the electrons are taken from the same energy level, but the Al atom has one more proton

c)

That of Al is lower than that of Mg because Mg wants to lose the 2nd electron, thus the energy change is greater

d)

That of Al is lower than that of Mg because the 2nd electron taken from Al is in a p orbital, thus it is easier to take

54.

Which would have the largest radius?

a)

Mg2+

b)

P3-

c)

P

d)

Si

55.

Which would have the smallest radius?

a)

Na+

b)

Mg2+

c)

Al3+

56.

As you move down a GROUP on the periodic table the atomic radius get bigger. This is because ____________.

a)

The atoms have more neutrons in the nucleus.

b)

The atoms have more protons in the nucleus.

c)

The atoms have more energy levels for the electrons

d)

The atoms have greater repulsion forces between the protons and electrons

57.

As you move across a period on the periodic table the atomic radius tend to get smaller because, ______________.

a)

the atoms have more mass making them heavier.

b)

more neutrons, making the nucleus bigger.

c)

the atoms have more protons, pulling the electrons closer.

d)

the atoms have less energy levels for the electrons to occupy.

58.
Which of the following will have a higher electronegativity than arsenic (As)?
a)
Carbon (C)
b)
Neon (Ne)
c)
Antimony (Sb)
d)
Germanium (Ge)
59.
Atoms that have a high electronegativity, _______________.
a)
give up their electrons more easily.
b)
hold on to their electrons more tightly.
c)
have more electron shells.
60.
Ionization energy is...
a)
the energy required to add an electron to a specific atom
b)
how much energy it takes to remove an electron from an atom
c)
the energy required to shield the outer electrons from the nucleus
d)
a measure of the ability of an atom to attract electrons
61.

The amount of energy released when an electron is added to a neutral atom to form a negative ion

a)

Atomic Radii

b)

Ionization Energy

c)

Electronegativity

d)

Electron Affinity

62.

Electron affinity trends is . . . .

a)

generally increases across a period, and a trend of decreasing electron affinity going down groups would be expected.

b)

generally decreases across a period, and a trend of decreasing electron affinity going down groups would be expected.

c)

generally increases across a period, and a trend of increasing electron affinity going down groups would be expected.

d)

generally decreases across a period, and a trend of increasing electron affinity going down groups would be expected.

63.

Which element has lower electron affinity?

a)

Bromine is lower than Calcium

b)

Chlorine is lower than Fluorine

c)

Berylliumis lower than Magnesium

d)

Aluminium is lower than Sodium

64.

A chemical reaction has the equation 2A + B → C. In which case is B the limiting reactant?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

65.

Which of the following reactions could be modeled using the following representation?

a)

AgCl → Ag+ + Cl-

b)

AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3

c)

AgCl + K → Ag + KCl

d)

Ag+ + e- → Ag

66.

A 64 g sample of NaCl (molar mass of 58.44 g/mol) reacts with 57 g of fluoride gas (molar mass of 38 g/mol) in the following equation: 2 NaCl(s) + F2(g) → 2 NaF(s) + Cl2(g)

Which particulate representation could be used to describe the species present in the reaction vessel after the process has gone to completion?

a)
b)
c)
67.

Choose the best description below for the image

a)

physical change with no change in mass

b)

physical change with a change in mass

c)

chemical change with no change in mass

d)

chemical change with a change in mass

68.

Choose the best description below for the image

a)

physical change with no change in mass

b)

physical change with a change in mass

c)

chemical change with no change in mass

d)

chemical change with a change in mass

69.

Hydrogen and oxygen react explosively to form water (write the balanced equation). If the explosion is louder when more water is formed, which balloon will make the loudest noise?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

70.

Consider the following reaction:

CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) → CCl4(g) + 4HCl(g)

What mass of CCl4 is formed by the reaction of 2.00 g of methane with an excess of chlorine?

a)

4.8 g

b)

0.21 g

c)

308 g

d)

19.2 g

71.

In the reaction of:

CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O

What is the ratio of moles CH4 to moles O2?

a)

For every 1 mol CH4, there is 1 mol O2

b)

For every 1 mol CH4, there are 2 mol O2

c)

For every 4 mol CH4, there are 2 mol O2

72.

With the equation given below, how many moles of oxygen are required to react with 8 moles of H2S?


2 H2S + 3 O2 → 2 SO2 + 2 H2O

a)

3

b)

8

c)

12

d)

20

73.

With the equation given below, how many grams of Fe are required to react with 36 g of O2?


4 Fe + 3 O2 → 2 Fe2O3

a)

1.50 g

b)

83.78 g

c)

18.02 g

d)

1.125 g

74.

In the reaction of sodium reacting with oxygen gas to form sodium oxide. The theoretical yield is calculated to be 2.5g, but 2.0 g of sodium oxide is actually recovered in the lab. Determine the % yield of sodium oxide.

a)

.8%

b)

77.4%

c)

80%

d)

125%

75.

With the equation given below, how many atoms of zinc are required to produce 2 mol ZnCl2?


Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

a)

2

b)

3.0 x 1023

c)

6.0 x 1023

d)

1.2 x 1024

76.

With the equation given below, how many grams of hydrogen gas are produced when 100 g of hydrochloric acid (HCl) reacts.


Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

a)

2.8 g

b)

1.4 g

c)

50 g

d)

35 g

77.

For the Balanced Reaction: 3 Mg + 1 Fe2O3 → 3 MgO + 2 Fe; What is the Ratio of moles of MgO to moles Fe?

a)

1:3

b)

2:3

c)

1:2

d)

3:2

78.
2 KClO3 → 2 KCl + 3 O2
How many moles of oxygen are produced when 6.7 moles of KClO3 decompose completely?
a)
6.7 mol
b)
1.0 mol
c)
10.1 mol
d)
4.5 mol
79.
If a chemist calculates the maximum amount of product that could be obtained in a chemical reaction, he or she is calculating the
a)
theoretical yield
b)
mole ratio
c)
actual yield
d)
percentage yield
80.

What is the measured amount of a product obtained from a chemical reaction?

a)

mole ratio

b)

theoretical yield

c)

percentage yield

d)

experimental/actual yield

81.
Mole ratios are obtained from the
a)
balanced chemical equation
b)
periodic table
c)
molar mass
82.
When does a chemical reaction stop?
a)
When the lab is finished
b)
When the excess reactant is used up
c)
When the limiting reactant is used up
d)
Chemical reactions never stop
83.

Which substance is the limiting reactant?

a)

GaCl3

b)

Rb2S

c)

RbCl

d)

Ga2S3

84.

Which substance is the excess reactant?

a)

GaCl3

b)

Rb2S

c)

RbCl

d)

Ga2S3

85.

Albert Einstein’s explanation of the photoelectric effect confirmed which of the following concepts?

a)

Electrons can absorb energy and change levels in atoms.

b)

Light energy can be converted into the mass of electrons.

c)

Electrons have both particle and wave properties.

d)

Light has both particle and wave properties.

86.

What is the chemical symbol for the element depicted in the PES graph?

(a)  

87.

What is the chemical symbol for the element depicted in the PES graph?

(a)  

88.

Which of the following explains the differences in the position and intensity of the 2p peaks between carbon and nitrogen?

a)

Nitrogen is larger in size making the electrons in the 2p orbit farther from the nucleus and thus easier to remove

b)

Carbon experiences a larger effective nuclear charge on the 2p electrons and are thus harder to remove.

c)

Nitrogen experiences a larger effective nuclear charge and has more electrons in the 2p orbital.

d)

Carbon experiences a greater shielding effect from the 2s and 1s electrons making the 2p electrons easier to remove.

89.

Refer to the photoelectron spectrum of neon shown below to answer the question.

Peaks A, B, and C represent the binding energies of electrons in which subshells of neon?

a)

1s, 2s, 2p

b)

2p, 2s, 1s

c)

1s, 1s, 1s

d)

2s, 2p, 2p

90.

Which peak shows electrons closest to the nucleus

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

91.

Refer to the photoelectron spectrum of neon shown below to answer the question.

Which of the following statements best accounts for peak A being to the left of peaks B and C?

a)

The electron configuration of neon is 1s2 2s2 2p6.

b)

Neon has 8 electrons located in its valence shell.

c)

Core (not valence) electrons of an atom experience a much higher effective nuclear charge than valence electrons

92.

What is the electron configuration for the photoelectron spectroscopy graph?

a)

1s22s22p63s23p64s2

b)

1s22s22p63s23p3

c)

1s22s22p63s23p6

d)

1s22s22p63s2

93.

A sample containing atoms of C and F was analyzed using x-ray photoelectron spectroscopy. The portion of the spectrum showing the 1s peaks for atoms of the two elements is shown above. Which of the following correctly identifies the 1s peak for the F atoms and provides an appropriate explanation?

a)

Peak X, because F has a smaller first ionization energy than C has.

b)

Peak X, because F has a greater nuclear charge than C has.

c)

Peak Y, because F is more electronegative than C is.

d)

Peak Y, because F has a smaller atomic radius than C has.

94.

How many peaks would be expected for a PES spectum for Calcium?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

95.

Which of these elements would have the same number of PES peaks as Fluorine?

a)

Neon

b)

Beryllium

c)

Sodium

d)

Chlorine

96.

Which electrons would be ejected with the most kinetic energy according to the spectrum below?

a)

The ones in the peak at 151

b)

The ones in the peak at 7.9

c)

The ones in the peak at 1.09

d)

The ones in the peak at 0.58

97.

How many valence electrons does the element pictured in the PES spectrum below have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

98.

Refer to the photoelectron spectrum of neon shown below to answer the question.

Which of the following statements best accounts for peak C being three time the height of peak B?

a)

The intensity of the photoelectron signal at a given energy is a measure of the number of electrons in that energy level.

b)

Electrons represented by peak B have approximately triple the binding energy than those represented by peak C

c)

In a photoelectron spectrum, as binding energy increases the relative number of electrons decreases.

d)

The height of peaks in a photoelectron spectrum does not have any relation to the structure of the atom

99.

Using the data in the two PES, what do you expect the binding energy of the 1s electrons in oxygen (atomic number 8) to be?

a)

0 - 50 eV

b)

50 - 400 eV

c)

400 - 700 eV

d)

700 - 1000 eV

100.

Which of the following best explains the relative positioning and intensity of the 2s peaks in the following spectra?

a)

Be has a greater nuclear charge than Li and more electrons in the 2s orbital

b)

Be electrons experience greater electron-electron repulsions than Li electrons

c)

Li has a greater pull from the nucleus on the 2s electrons, so they are harder to remove

d)

Li has greater electron shielding by the 1s orbital, so the 2s electrons are easier toremove

101.

Looking at the spectra for Na and K below, which of the following would best explain the difference in binding energy for the 3s electrons?

a)

K has a greater nuclear charge than Na

b)

K has more electron-electron repulsions than Na

c)

Na has one valence electron in the 3s sublevel

d)

Na has less electron shielding than K

102.

Looking at the spectra for Na and K below, which of the following would best explain the difference in signal intensity for the 3s electrons?

a)

K has a greater nuclear charge than Na

b)

K has more electron-electron repulsions than Na

c)

Na has one valence electron in the 3s sublevel

d)

Na has less electron shielding than K

103.

Which electronic transition in a hydrogen atom releases the greatest amount of energy?

a)

n=3 → n=2

b)

n=5 → n=3

c)

n=6 → n=5

d)

n=3 → n=6

104.

What is the wavelength of a photon of red light (in nm) whose frequency is 4.64 x 1014 Hz.

a)

646 nm

b)

1.55 x 106 nm

c)

155 nm

d)

464 nm

105.

True/False: The SI unit for frequency is hertz (Hz)

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Green light can have a wavelength of 512 nm. The energy of a photon of this light is:

a)

1.02 x 10-31 J

b)

5.12 x 10-7 J

c)

3.88 x 10-19 J

d)

5.86 x 1014 J

107.

How many of the following is/are incorrect?

i. The main idea of the equation E=mc2 is that energy has mass

ii. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called photons.

iii. Electromagnetic radiation exhibits wave properties

iv. Energy can only occur in discrete units called quanta.

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

108.

In an investigation of the electronic absorption spectrum of a particular element, it is found that a photon having a λ = 500 nm provides just enough energy to promote an electron from the second quantum level to the third. From this information, we can deduce:

a)

the energy of the n = 2 level

b)

the energy of the n = 3 level

c)

the sum of the energies of n = 2 and n = 3

d)

the difference in energies between n = 2 and n = 3

109.

An atom that has gained energy beyond normal is said to be ...

a)

excited

b)

grounded

c)

naturalized

110.
The energy of an electron __________ as it moves further away from the nucleus
a)
increases
b)
decreases
111.

Light is emitted when electrons

a)

move from one atom to another.

b)

collide with one another, releasing energy.

c)

move from a lower energy level to a higher energy level.

d)

move from a higher energy level to a lower energy level.

112.

Flame tests can be used to identify an element. Each element emits characteristic waves of light when it is heated in a flame. What describes how the light is produced?

a)

Protons in the ground state lose energy and give off light.

b)

Protons in the ground state gain energy and are emitted from the nucleus, giving off light.

c)

Electrons in the ground state lose energy and move to an excited state, giving off light.

d)

Electrons in the ground state gain energy, move to an excited state, and give off light when they return to the ground state.

113.

When electrons are found in higher energy levels, further from the nucleus and are unstable we say that these electrons are in...

a)

the ground state

b)

the excited state

c)

the valence state

d)

the neutral state

114.
Line emission spectrum shown below happens when
a)
Electron transition from lower to higher energy level.
b)
Electron transition from higher to lower energy level.
c)
Electron exist in fixed energy states
d)
Electron transition between different energy levels.
115.
Why are line emission spectra of elements called "atomic fingerprints"?
a)
They are all the same
b)
They are all unique
c)
They are all similar
d)
They all contain colored light
116.

All stars are composed of a mixture of elements. When these elements are heated they emit specific amounts of electromagnetic radiation, known as an emission spectrum. Each element emits a unique, identifiable, spectrum.


Using the Bright-line emission spectrum chart below, identify the elements present in this modeled star (found in the line labeled “mixture”).

a)

Lithium and cadmium are in the mixture. Strontium is not in the mixture.

b)

Lithium and strontium are in the mixture. Cadmium is not in the mixture

c)

Cadmium and strontium are in the mixture. Lithium is not in the mixture

d)

All of the shown elements are present in the mixture.

117.

What subatomic particle is responsible for the spectral lines seen in emission spectra diagrams?

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

118.

If an electron moves from n=4 to n=2 it ____

a)

absorbs energy

b)

releases energy

119.
What gases are in the unknown mixture?
a)
Gas B & Gas D
b)
Gas C & Gas B
c)
Gas A & Gas D
d)
Gas D & Gas C
120.
The parallel lines represents...
a)
energy levels of the atom
b)
energy levels of the electrons
c)
energy levels of the photons
d)
energy levels of the nucleus
121.

What is the order of VISIBLE light in increasing energy?

a)

VIBGYOR

b)

ROYGBIV

122.

What are the type of spectra pictured called?

a)

Continuous Spectrum

b)

Emission Spectrum

c)

Absorption spectrum

123.
The blue section of the wave is measuring _________________.
a)
wavelength
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
amplitude 
124.

The diagram show

a)

formation of continous spectrum

b)

formation of line spectrum

125.

the diagram show

a)

the formation of continous spectrum

b)

the formation of line spectrum

126.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest wavelength?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
127.

Electromagnetic waves vary in

a)

the speed they travel in a vacuum.

b)

wavelength and frequency.

c)

the way they reflect.

d)

the orientation of their electric and magnetic fields.

128.

By passing starlight light through a ___the light is spread out into its component colors.

a)

spectrograph or spectrometer

b)

telescope

c)

prism or diffraction grating

d)

mirror

129.

A ___ can be used in place of a prism in a spectroscope & is inexpensive.

a)

plastic prism

b)

diffraction grating

c)

CCD

d)

lens

130.

You mixed two aqueous solutions together, expecting to see a precipitate form. Instead, after several minutes, you do not detect other visible changes. Which of the following is an observation for which you should have looked?

a)

gas bubbling

b)

heat evolving

c)

color change

d)

There are no other changes to look for because no reaction has occurred.

131.

Aqueous solutions of sodium sulfate and barium chloride are combined. Which of the following setups would be appropriate to collect the product(s) of this reaction?

a)
b)
c)
d)
132.

Which of the following is BEST described as a chemical change?

a)

I2(s) → I2(g)

b)
c)

The absorbance of a sample of 0.885 M CuCO4 is studied at various wavelengths using a spectrophotometer.

d)

Sn(s) → Sn2+(aq)

133.

Which of the following best described what happens to C4H6 when a 5.00 g sample is heated from -10°C to 22°C?

Boiling point = 10.9°C

Melting point = -136.2°C

Insoluble in water

Soluble in C6H6

Density: 0.676 g/mL

a)

A physical change occurs when the liquid boils at 10.9°C weakening the intermolecular forces between molecules.

b)

A physical change occurs when the liquid boils at 10.9°C breaking the single and double bonds between C atoms in the molecule.

c)

A chemical change occurs when the liquid boils at 10.9°C weakening the intermolecular forces between molecules.

d)

A chemical change occurs when the liquid boils at 10.9°C breaking the single and double bonds between C atoms in the molecule.

134.

A strong acid (HCl) is mixed with a strong base (NaOH) at room temperature. No indicator is used. Which of the following most accurately describes the process that occurs?

a)

A physical change occurs because the acid and base create a mixture.

b)

A physical change occurs, accompanied by the formation of gas and light.

c)

A chemical change occurs due to the formation of hydrogen bonds between adjacent water molecules.

d)

A chemical change occurs, due to the formation of O-H bonds in water.

135.

What involves the breaking or forming of intramolecular bonds?

a)

physical change

b)

chemical change

c)

boiling

d)

condensing

136.

What involves the change of intermolecular forces?

a)

physical change

b)

chemical change

c)

burning

d)

rusting

137.

Which reaction could be classified as both a physical and chemical change?

a)

CO2(s) → CO2(g)

b)

NaCl(s) → Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

c)

CO2(s) → C(s) + O2(g)

d)

NH2F(l) → ½N2(g) + H2(g) + ½F2(g)

138.

Which of the following processes represents a physical change?

a)

C6H12O6(s) → C6H12O6(l)

b)

SO3(g) + H2O(l) → H2SO4(aq)

c)

HBr(g) + NH3(g) → NH4Br(s)

d)

Na(s) + Cl(g) → NaCl(s)

139.

Which of the following scenarios is an example of a chemical process?

a)

A solution of H2O2 is heated, resulting in the evolution of oxygen gas.

b)

A piece of copper metal is rolled and drawn out into a thin wire.

c)

A mixture of plant pigments is separated using paper chromatography.

d)

A sample of solid iodine is placed under vacuum, causing it to sublime.

140.

The sublimation of CO2 is best classified as a:

a)

physical change because only intermolecular forces between CO2 molecules are disrupted

b)

physical change because only ionic bonds between C4+ and O2- ions are broken

c)

chemical change because C-O bonds are broken and C-C and O-O bonds are formed

d)

chemical change because covalent bonds between CO2 molecules are broken

141.

Which of the following statements comparing chemical and physical processes is most accurate?

a)

Chemical processes are characterized by changes in intramolecular forces, while physical processes are characterized by changes only in intermolecular forces.

b)

Physical processes are characterized by changes in intramolecular forces, while chemical processes are characterized by changes only in intermolecular forces.

c)

Both chemical and physical processes are characterized by changes in intramolecular forces.

d)

Both chemical and physical processes are characterized by changes only in intermolecular forces.

142.

Is this a chemical or physical process? CO2(g) → C(s) + O2(g)

a)

chemical

b)

physical

c)

both chemical and physical

143.

Is this a chemical or physical process? H2O(s) → H2O(l)

a)

chemical

b)

physical

c)

both chemical and physical

144.

Is this a chemical or physical process? MgCl2(s) → Mg+2(aq) + 2Cl-1(aq)

a)

chemical

b)

physical

c)

both chemical and physical

145.

Which substance is the precipitate in this reaction? FeCl3(aq) + NaOH(aq) Fe(OH)3(s) + NaCl(aq)

a)

FeCl3

b)

NaOH

c)

Fe(OH)3

d)

NaCl

146.

Boiling is an example of a __________

a)

Physical change because bonds are broken

b)

Physical change because IMFs are overcome

c)

Chemical change because bonds are broken

d)

Chemical change because IMFs are overcome

147.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the differences between the two equations shown below?

Equation 1: H2O(l) → H2O(g)

Equation 2: 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)

a)

Equation 1 represents a physical change because intermolecular forces are broken during the process, whereas Equation 2 represents a chemical change because intramolecular forces are broken

b)

Equation 1 represents a physical change because intramolecular forces are broken during the process, whereas Equation 2 represents a chemical change because intermolecular forces are broken

c)

Equation 1 represents a chemical change because intermolecular forces are broken during the process, whereas Equation 2 represents a physical change because intramolecular forces are broken

d)

Equation 1 represents a chemical change because intramolecular forces are broken during the process, whereas Equation 2 represents a physical change because intermolecular forces are broken

148.

The dissolution of 80.0 g sodium hydroxide in a 2.00 L volumetric flask brought to volume with distilled water at room temperature can be classified by which of the following?

a)

A physical change because only intermolecular forces are broken and the solution can be separated through evaporation, a physical process

b)

A chemical change because only intramolecular forces are broken and energy is released by the solution, a chemical change

c)

Both chemical and physical changes due to the breaking of ionic bonds, resulting in the interaction between the ions and the water molecules

d)

This type of change cannot be classified as either chemical or physical due to the complexity of the process on a molecular level

149.

Which of the following statements BEST explains why this reaction describes a CHEMICAL change, not a physical change?

7H2O(l) + 2Cr3+(aq) → Cr2O72-(aq) + 14H+(aq) + 6e-

a)

The number of electrons in the reactants is not the same as the number of electrons in the products

b)

The reactants include liquid and aqueous solutions, but all of the products are aqueous

c)

O-H bonds are broken in H2O to form bonds between Cr and O in Cr2O72-

d)

The reaction proceeds until the limiting reactant is depleted and then ceases rather than approaching equilibrium based on product and reactant concentrations

150.

A student places a sample of a pure metal in a crucible and heats it strongly in air. Data from the experiment are given in the table. The final mass was determined after the sample was cooled to room temperature. Which of the following statements related to the experiment is correct?

a)

The mass of the sample decreased, so physical changes occurred as the metal first melted and then boiled out of the crucible.

b)

The mass of the sample increased, so a chemical change occurred when bonds formed between the metal and another substance.

c)

There was nothing for the metal to react with, so only a physical change could have occurred.

d)

The sample was only heated, so neither a physical nor a chemical change occurred.

151.

A student mixes 20.0g of white KCl crystals with distilled water in a beaker. After the mixture was stirred, no crystals are visible and the solution is clear. After several days, all of the water evaporates and white crystals are found in the beaker. Which of following pieces of experimental evidence would best help the student to confirm that a new compound had not been made and that only a physical change occurred?

a)

The solution does not change color after stirring.

b)

The KCl crystals are no longer visible after mixing with water.

c)

There is a temperature change in the solution during the dissolving process.

d)

After the water has evaporated, the white crystals in the beaker have a mass of 20.0g.

152.

Which of the following is the net ionic equation for the following reaction?

Ba(NO3)2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)

a)

Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → NaNO3(s)

b)

Ba2+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + 2Na+(aq) + SO42-(aq) → BaSO4(s) + Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq)

c)

Ba2+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + 2Na+(aq) + SO42-(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2Na+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq)

d)

Ba2+(aq) + SO42-(aq) → BaSO4(s)

153.

What is the net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when solutions of sodium phosphate and zinc nitrate are mixed?

a)

Na3PO4(aq) + Zn(NO3)2(aq) → Zn3(PO4)2(s) + NaNO3(aq)

b)

2Na3PO4(aq) + 3Zn(NO3)2(aq) → Zn3(PO4)2(s) + 6NaNO3(aq)

c)

3Zn2+(aq) + 2PO43-(aq) → Zn3(PO4)2(s)

d)

Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → NaNO3(aq)

154.

Which of the following is one of the spectator ions in the following reaction?

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)

a)

NO3-

b)

I-

c)

PbI2

d)

Pb2+

155.

When balanced using the smallest, whole-number coefficients, the correct coefficients for the following equation are:

__AlCl3 + __H2SO4 → __Al2(SO4)3 + __HCl

a)

2, 1, 1, 2

b)

2, 3, 1, 6

c)

1, 3, 1, 3

d)

2, 3, 1, 3

156.

Which of the following represents the spectator ions in a reaction between solutions of calcium nitrate and potassium phosphate?

a)

NO3-

b)

K+ and NO3-

c)

Ca2+

d)

Ca2+ and PO43-

157.

Reactions occurring in solution can be represented by 3 different types of reaction equations: (1) molecular equation, (2) a complete ionic equation, and (3) a net ionic equation. Sometimes two or more of these wind up looking exactly the same. Consider the reaction between dilute aqueous solutions of magnesium hydroxide and sulfurous acid, a weak acid. Given the molecular equation for the reaction, which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the molecular equation (shown), the complete ionic equation, and the net ionic equation for this reaction?

Mg(OH)2(aq) + H2SO3(aq) → MgSO3(s) + 2H2O(l)

a)

all three equation types are the same

b)

all three equation types are different

c)

The molecular and complete ionic equations are the same, but the net ionic equation is different

d)

The molecular equation is different from the other two, but the complete ionic and net ionic equations are the same.

158.

If a solution of sodium bicarbonate is mixed with an equimolar solution of hydrochloric acid, aqueous sodium chloride, water, and carbon dioxide gas are produced. What is the net ionic equation for this reaction?

a)

NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2

b)

HCO3- + H+ → H2O + CO2

c)

Na+ + HCO3- + HCl → Na+ + Cl- + H2O + CO2

d)

HCO3- + HCl → Cl- + H2O + CO2

159.

What are the spectator ions in this reaction? Fe+3(aq) + 3Cl-1(aq) + Na+1(aq) + OH-1(aq) Fe(OH)3(s) + Na+1(aq) + Cl-1(aq)

a)

Fe+3 and Cl-1

b)

Na+1 and Cl-1

c)

Fe+3 and Na+

d)

Na+1 and OH-1

160.

What is the net ionic equation for this reaction? Fe+3(aq) + 3Cl-1(aq) + Na+1(aq) + OH-1(aq) Fe(OH)3(s) + Na+1(aq) + Cl-1(aq)

a)

Fe+3 (aq) + OH-1(aq) Fe(OH)3(s) 

b)

Na+1(aq) + Cl-1(aq) → NaCl(aq)

c)

Fe+3(aq) + 3Cl-1(aq) + Na+1(aq) + OH-1(aq) Fe(OH)3(s) + Na+1(aq) + Cl-

161.

Spectator ions _____________________________.

a)

undergo chemical change during a chemical reaction.

b)

do not undergo chemical change during a chemical reaction.

c)

wear spectacles during a chemical reaction.

162.
What precipitate forms when you mix lead (II) nitrate with sodium chloride?
a)
sodium nitrate 
b)
lead (II) chloride 
c)
sodium lead
d)
chloride nitrate 
163.
Which of the following does NOT form a precipitate?
a)
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) 
b)
Sr(NO3)2 (aq) + K2SO4(aq) →
c)
AgNO3(aq) + Na2S(aq) →
d)
 Pb(NO3)2(aq) + AgNO3(aq) →
164.

In this equation, CuCl2+ NaOH → Cu(OH)2 + NaCl, which product is insoluble?

a)

copper(II) hydroxide

b)

sodium chloride

c)

sodium hydroxide

d)

copper(II) chloride

165.
What is the result of the reaction between potassium bromide and ammonium sulfide?
a)
potassium sulfide precipitates
b)
ammonium bromide precipitates
c)
potassium ammonium precipitates
d)
no precipitate is formed
166.

Which of the following reactions does NOT have a net ionic equation?

a)

C9H20 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O

b)

AgNO3 + CaCl2 --> AgCl + Ca(NO3)2

c)

NH4I + PbOH --> NH4OH + PbI2

d)

Fe(NO3)2 + KOH --> KNO3 + FeOH

167.

Define: Solubility

a)

What is dissolved

b)

What does the dissolving

c)

A measure of how much solute can dissolve in solvent

d)

a charged ion

168.
Which of these lists contains only soluble substances?
a)
sodium nitrate, potassium chloride, calcium carbonate
b)
lead nitrate, lead chloride, lead sulfate
c)
calcium nitrate, copper chloride, ammonium phosphate
d)
silver nitrate, barium sulfate, copper carbonate
169.
Which pair could be spectator ions?
a)
NH4+ and Cl-
b)
Ca+2 and OH-
c)
Ag+ and Br-
d)
Sr+2 and CO3 -2
170.

Define: Net Ionic Equation

a)

a balanced chemical equation in which all the reactants and products are given by their chemical formulae.

b)

a chemical equation that shows all soluble species broken into their respective ions.

c)

a chemical equation showing only the species which are actively involved in the reaction.

171.

A neutralization (acid-base) reaction will (almost) always produce...

a)

water & salt

b)

water

c)

salt

d)

water & carbon

172.

Identify the complete ionic reaction for products of this reaction: (final answer is not balanced)

HCl + Mg(OH)2

a)

→ MgCl2 + H2O(l)

b)

→ Mg2+ + Cl-1 + H2O(l)

c)

→ Mg2+ + Cl-1 + H+1 + O2-

d)

→ MgCl2 + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

173.

What is the precipitate in the net ionic equation of CuClO4 + ZnI2

a)

CuI

b)

Zn(ClO4)2

c)

ZnClO4

d)

CuI2