wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Fundamenals Final review

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which nursing statement is a good example of the therapeutic communication technique of focusing?

a)

“I’m having a difficult time understanding what you mean.”

b)

“Describe one of the best things that happened to you this week.”

c)

“You mentioned your relationship with your father. Let’s discuss that further.”

d)

“Your counseling session is in 30 minutes. I’ll stay with you until then.”

2.

The three stages of the body’s physiological reaction to stress, including alarm, resistance and exhaustion.

a)

acculturative stress

b)

pressure

c)

frustration

d)

general adaptation syndrome

3.

The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) is how your body responds to

a)

stress

b)

anger

c)

emotion

d)

pain

4.

During stress, you are most likely to get sick during which stage?

a)

alarm

b)

resistance

c)

exhaustion

5.

During this stage of GAS, your SYMPATHETIC nervous system is activated.

a)

alarm

b)

resistance

c)

exhaustion

6.

During this stage of GAS, your body BEGINS USING all of its resources to COMBAT STRESS.

a)

alarm

b)

resistance

c)

exhaustion

7.

What can stress cause?

a)

Heart issues

b)

Mental health issues

c)

Stomach issues

d)

All of the above

8.

Last stage of grief is

a)

anger

b)

denial

c)

acceptance

d)

A and B

9.

the stage when one is beginning to turn to religion

a)

denial

b)

acceptance

c)

anger

d)

bargening

10.

Which is NOT part of stages of Grief

a)

Death

b)

Denial

c)

Anger

d)

Acceptance

11.

During which stage of the body's stress response are hormones released?

a)

Resistance

b)

Alarm

c)

Fatigue

d)

Recovery

12.

Experiencing grief is normal and healthy.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Anger is the first stage in the stages of grieving.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Denial is the first stage in the stages of grieving.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Acceptance is the last stage in the stages of grieving.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following is not a sign that the end of life is near?

a)

restlessness and agitation

b)

drowsiness

c)

new or worsening rash

d)

pauses or other changes in breathing

17.

What is aphasia?

a)

A language disorder caused by damage to the brain

b)

A speech disorder that affects articulation

c)

A speech disorder that affects voice

d)

A language disorder diagnosed at birth

18.

Which of the following is an expressive deficit of aphasia?

a)

Difficulty comprehending conversation

b)

Difficulty following directions

c)

Difficulty with naming and word retrieval

19.

Choose ALL the appropriate ways to overcome the communication barrier of a person with aphasia/speech impediment:

a)

encourage them to take their time

b)

ask short answer questions

c)

speak slowly and clearly

d)

use braille

20.

Difficulty breathing is called:

a)

apnea

b)

dysrhythmia

c)

dsypnea

d)

orthostatic

21.

Which oxygen delivery system would you use for the LOWEST flow of oxygen?

a)

Simple face mask

b)

Nasal cannula

c)

Non-rebreather

d)

Partial non-rebreather

22.
Identify the device that is used to measure oxygen levels in the blood, often placed on the finger.
a)
Oxygen monitor
b)
Pulse oximeter
c)
Pressure oximeter
d)
Saturation oximeter
23.

4. A nurse is supervising a student nurse who is performing tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following

actions by the student should should the nurse intervene?

a)

A. Removing the inner cannula and cleaning using universal precaution

b)

B. Suctioning the tracheostomy tube before performing tracheostomy care.

c)

C. Changing the old tracheotomy ties and securing the tube in place.

d)

D. Replacing the inner cannula and cleaning the site

24.

6. A patient with a tracheostomy needs to be suctioned. What would you do first before suctioning the patient?

a)

A. Have the patient bear down

b)

B. Assist the patient into Sim's position

c)

Disconnect pulse oximetry

d)

D. Hyperoxygenate the patient before suctioning

25.

Which sleep disorder is potentially dangerous in which the person stops breathing for short periods of time during sleep.

a)

Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome

b)

Insomnia

c)

Sleep Apnea

d)

Parasomnia

26.

How many stages of development are there in Erik Erikson's theory?

a)

9

b)

8

c)

10

d)

7

27.

What age is Autonomy vs. Doubt?

a)

Young adult

b)

Elementary and middle school years

c)

Late adulthood

d)

Toddler

28.
What stage am I?
Kids feel good about being productive, or they feel inferior for failing to do so.
a)
Initiative vs guilt
b)
Industry vs inferiority
c)
Identity vs role confusion
29.
What stage am I?
They look back on their lives and either see a sense of worth or failure.
a)
integrity vs despair
b)
Generativity vs stagnation
c)
Identity vs role con
30.

A 38-year-old woman quits her high-paying marketing job to focus on her children and become a school counselor. What stage would Erikson consider this to be:

a)

Identity vs. Role Confusion

b)

Generativity vs. Stagnation

c)

Integrity vs. Despair

d)

Industry vs. Inferiority

31.

Which of the individual's below is in the identity versus confusion stage?

a)
b)
c)
d)
32.

All of the following are domains of learning EXCEPT

a)

aptitude

b)

affective

c)

cognitive

d)

psychomotor

33.

The most common used domain. It deals with the intellectual side of learning.

a)

ability

b)

cognitive

c)

affective

d)

psychomotor

34.

Analyze

a)

COGNITIVE

b)

AFFECTIVE

c)

PSYCHOMOTOR

35.

Manipulate

a)

COGNITIVE

b)

AFFECTIVE

c)

PSYCHOMOTOR

36.

Valuing

a)

COGNITIVE

b)

AFFECTIVE

c)

PSYCHOMOTOR

37.

Evaluation

a)

COGNITIVE

b)

AFFECTIVE

c)

PSYCHOMOTOR

38.

Student is motivated to learn new material...

a)

COGNITIVE

b)

AFFECTIVE

c)

PSYCHOMOTOR

39.

Student accepts constructive criticism easily...

a)

COGNITIVE

b)

AFFECTIVE

c)

PSYCHOMOTOR

40.

A 15-month-old child weighs 26 lbs. and is 35 inches. What type of car seat below is considered the SAFEST for this child to use while riding in a motor vehicle?*

a)

rear-facing

b)

forward-facing

c)

booster seat

d)

seat belt

41.

Males and females start puberty at the same time.

a)

true

b)

false

42.

During early adolescence, youth undergo growth spurts in height, weight, and body proportions.

a)

true

b)

false

43.

Chemicals called hormones start off puberty changes.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

The adult human body contains approximately _________ % of water.

a)

25%

b)

60%

c)

75%

d)

100%

45.

Which of the following is a normal range for serum K+?

a)

2.5-3.5

b)

3.5-5.0

c)

5.0- 10.2

d)

10-20

46.

If your client has a K+ level of 2.5, this would be considered:

a)

hypokalemia

b)

hyperkalemia

c)

hyponatremia

d)

hypernatremia

47.

A serum sodium level of 152 would be considered :

a)

hypomagnesemia

b)

hypermagnesemia

c)

hyponatremia

d)

hypernatremia

48.

Which of the following are signs/symptoms of fluid volume excess? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

tented skin turgor with sluggish recoil

b)

hypotension

c)

JVD and anasarca

d)

crackles and orthopnea

e)

high blood pressure

49.

Electrolyte imbalances may cause dysrhythmias.

a)

true

b)

false

50.

Normal pH of arterial blood gases (ABGs)

a)

7.0- 8.5

b)

7.15 - 7.25

c)

7.35 - 7.45

d)

7.5 - 8.5

51.

The two body systems/organs that help to maintain or regulate acid-base balance are which of the following?

a)

lungs and pancreas

b)

brain and large intestine

c)

kidneys and lungs

d)

kidneys and heart

52.

The kidneys help to regulate the ________ in the body.

a)

acid- or oxygen & CO2

b)

base- or bicarbonate

53.

hypovolemia and dehydration are the same

a)

true

b)

false

54.

hypovolemia is also known as

a)

fluid volume deficit or decreased fluid in vascular compartment

b)

fluid volume excess or excess of fluid in vascular compartment

55.

A patient with tented skin turgor, dry mucous membranes and decreased urinary output is under your care. Which nursing intervention should be included in his plan of care?

a)

Administer IV and oral fluids

b)

Monitoring WBC

c)

Accessing color, odor and amount of sputum

d)

Clustering activities throughout the day

56.

Mary Jean, a first year nursing student, was rushed to the clinic department due to hyperventilation. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate for the client who is subsequently developing respiratory alkalosis?

a)

Administering IV fluids

b)

Encouraging slow, deep breaths

c)

Preparing to administer sodium bicarbonate

d)

Administering oxygen via nasal cannula

57.

Lab tests revealed that your patient’s sodium level is 170 mEq/L. Which clinical manifestation would you expect to assess?

a)

Tented skin turgor and thirst

b)

Muscle twitching and tetany

c)

Fruity breath and Kussmaul respirations

d)

Muscle weakness and paraesthesia

58.

Lee Angela’s lab test just revealed that her chloride level is 96 mEq/L. As a nurse, you would interpret this serum chloride level as:

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Within normal range

59.

Which of the following is the most important physical assessment parameter the nurse would consider when assessing fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

a)

Intake and output

b)

Skin turgor

c)

Cardiac rate and rhythm

d)

Osmotic pressure

60.

When assessing a patient for signs of fluid overload, the nurse would expect to observe:

a)

Vesicular lung sounds

b)

Bounding pulses

c)

Flat neck veins

d)

Poor skin turgor

61.

Normal serum sodium concentration ranges from:

a)

120-125 mEq/L

b)

125-130 mEq/L

c)

135-145 mEq/L

d)

140-148 mEq/L

62.

Nursing interventions for a patient with hyponatremia include:

a)

Restricting fluid intake

b)

Restricting sodium intake

c)

Encouraging water intake

d)

Administering hypotonic IV fluids

63.

Which therapeutic communication technique should the nurse use when communicating with a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations?

a)

“I wouldn't worry about these voices. The medication will make them disappear.”

b)

“My sister has the same diagnosis as you and she also hears voices.”

c)

“I understand that the voices seem real to you, but I do not hear any voices.”

d)

“Why not turn up the radio so that the voices are muted.”