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Worksheets

NOCTI exam prep

Total questions: 190

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The statute that deems any person driving a motor vehicle has consented to a chemical blood test to assess the blood’s alcohol content a

a)

Blood Alcohol Law

b)

Implied Consent Law

c)

Driving While Impaired Law

d)

Per Se Law

2.

Victim Advocates provide services for victims and

a)

Offenders

b)

Delinquents

c)

Witnesses

d)

Employees

3.

What is the Latin Criminal Justice term for “intent”?

a)

Actus Reus

b)

Mens Rea

c)

Mala in Se

d)

Mala Prohibitum

4.

Which of the body’s senses is MOST affected by pepper spray?

a)

Touch

b)

Sight

c)

Smell

d)

Hearing

5.

When dealing with a suspect of another gender or race the officer MUST

a)

Restrain the individual just in case he or she becomes hostile

b)

Treat all suspects with dignity and respect

c)

Speak to the suspect using slang interpretations

d)

Have another officer present before proceeding with a body search

6.

When communicating on the radio, why is it important to use standard phonetic alphabet terminology when relaying information?

a)

Critical combinations of letters and numbers can be better understood

b)

It keeps civilians from understanding police radio communication

c)

It is a more prestigious form of communication

d)

Using it demonstrates an officer’s understanding of federal law codes

7.

If an officer makes a stop or arrest based on a person’s race or ethnicity, it is an example of

a)

Racial Profiling

b)

Criminal Identification

c)

Cultural Diversity

d)

Crime Prevention

8.

The purpose of NIMS (National Incident Management System) is to have a coordinated plan for

a)

Victim Advocacy Training

b)

Multiple Agency Response

c)

Crash Reconstruction

d)

Traffic Pattern Analysts

9.

A crime punishable by death, or life in prison is a/an

a)

Violation

b)

Misdemeanor

c)

Infraction

d)

Felony

10.

To be effective, officers must utilize communications skills that involve ____ messages

a)

Emotional and Physical

b)

Complementary and Physical

c)

Verbal and Non-Verbal

d)

Dominery and Intimidating

11.

The term Double-Lock Handcuffs means to?

a)

Activate the mechanism so that the handcuffs will not close further

b)

Place the handcuffs on the wrists behind the back of the suspect

c)

Secure the handcuffs to the leg shackles

d)

Place the handcuffs back to back

12.

Groups in the United States organized around such themes as white supremacy, militant tax resistance, or extreme ideologies are known as ____ terrorists.

a)

Fundamental

b)

Domestic

c)

International

d)

National

13.

Police can use subpoenas or ____ to access social media postings during an investigation.

a)

Partitions

b)

Warrants

c)

Passwords

d)

Certiorari

14.

The term____, refers to a decision by a judge that a child has committed delinquent acts.

a)

Indictment

b)

Adjudication

c)

Accusation

d)

Finding of Guilt

15.

To be objective, police reports MUST be written…

a)

In the first person

b)

In the order that makes sense

c)

Without Prejudice or Bias

d)

From the victims view point

16.

The term Latent, as referring to a fingerprint, is a Latin word meaning…

a)

Cryptic

b)

Hidden

c)

Visible

d)

Smudged

17.

During an interview, when an individual crosses their arms in front while answering a question, the subject is thought to be…

a)

Definitely Lying

b)

Very Angry

c)

Defensive or Deceptive

d)

Open and Honest

18.

During a high risk or felony traffic stop, the officer should generally be positioned…

a)

Behind the window post of the suspect vehicle

b)

Beside the patrol vehicle for protection

c)

At the passenger side of the suspect vehicle

d)

Inside the patrol vehicle

19.

When public safety professionals are offered a free or discounted product or service based on their professional status, it is called a/an

a)

A Trade

b)

A Bribe

c)

An Incentive

d)

A Gratuity

20.

Criminal statures are removed, added, or modified by the ____ branch of government.

a)

Administrative

b)

Executive

c)

Legislative

d)

Judicial

21.

What historical event contributed to the rise of organized crime in the United States?

a)

World War 2

b)

Cigarette Sales

c)

Prohibition

d)

Crooked Police

22.

A prison intended to house the worst, most violent offenders and problem inmates from other institutions, is called a ____ facility.

a)

Classification

b)

Correctional

c)

Medium Security

d)

Super Max

23.

The ____ interprets the law to the jury.

a)

Judge

b)

Attorney

c)

The Bailiff

d)

Interpreter

24.

Compliance control relies on the pressures points on the body, which are composed of…

a)

Bone

b)

Muscle

c)

Pulse

d)

Nerves

25.

Wet evidence should be packaged in a paper bag because…

a)

Paper is easier to store

b)

It is less expensive than other materials

c)

It allows for growth for microorganisms

d)

It prevents the evidence from becoming moldy

26.

Prior to a pat down search, the officer should

a)

Mirandize the subject

b)

Wash his or her hands

c)

Inquire about weapons

d)

Have backup present

27.

As a general rule when establishing an initial perimeter of a crime scene, the officer should being with a ____defined perimeter

a)

Geographically

b)

Broadly

c)

Legally

d)

Narrowly

28.

The highest level of authority in criminal law is/are

a)

State Constitutions

b)

Federal Statutes

c)

The U.S. Constitution

d)

Federal Regulations

29.

School searches conducted by school administrators can be based on what standard of proof?

a)

Reasonable suspicion

b)

Rumors

c)

Hearsay

d)

Probable cause

30.

Because initial arrival at a domestic assault in progress can be lethal, where should the responding officer park?

a)

One house before and observe before approaching

b)

In the driveway and run up the front door

c)

On the next street over and go to the back door

d)

Up the street and take time getting there

31.

An Emergency Response Guide (ERG) describes the process for identifying…

a)

Hazardous Materials

b)

Treatment Plans

c)

Roots to Hospitals

d)

Medical Illnesses

32.

What is the shape of the hazardous materials placard?

a)

A Diamond

b)

Round

c)

Rectangle

d)

Trapezoidal

33.

During the booking process, the officer MUST…

a)

Let the suspect fingerprint him/herself

b)

Take possession of all of the suspects property

c)

Place the suspect in the general population

d)

Do only a pat down search of the suspect

34.

Anaphylaxis significantly impacts the ____ system.

a)

Respiratory

b)

Musculoskeletal

c)

Nervous

d)

Endocrine

35.

An agency’s use of force policy is a guideline that demonstrates…

a)

The increasing levels of liability that officers might face

b)

The trends in the use of force by other officers in the department

c)

How the officer should respond to the threat of lawsuit

d)

The reasonable amount of force that an officer may use in situations

36.

The term Loss Prevention means…

a)

A reactive approach to inventory control

b)

Recovery of stolen property

c)

Making sure only authorized personnel are in designated areas

d)

The reasonable amount of force that an officer may use in situations

37.

The standard test in a court setting to determine knowledge between right and wrong is known as…

a)

Pavlov’s Test

b)

Bipolar Disorder

c)

M’Naghten Rule

d)

Turrets Syndrome

38.

Most employers of private security officers prefer persons with prior experience and training as ____ officers.

a)

Law Enforcement

b)

Immigration

c)

Probation

d)

Parole

39.

A____ is a written count order directing a law enforcement officer to conduct a search or arrest a person.

a)

A Tort

b)

A Summance

c)

Subpoena

d)

Warrant

40.

Live computer scan for fingerprinting uses a process where the fingerprint is read by a/an…

a)

A Laser Scanner

b)

An Optical Scanner

c)

An LED Light

d)

An Ultra Violet Light

41.

A shooter observes a safety hazard while at firearm qualification the shooter should…

a)

Approach the Violator and correct the problem

b)

Turn around and inform the range officer

c)

Wait until the line is clear

d)

Raise your hand and yell cease fire

42.

In a confrontational situation with an unarmed, angry subject an officer should use ____ to gain control by causing the subject to reply to the officer.

a)

Laughter

b)

Questions

c)

Sarcasm

d)

Mace

43.

Evidence should be…

a)

Collectively stored with other items

b)

Secured in the patrol car

c)

Written on and clearly marked

d)

Properly documented and tagged

44.

The term for the process of subdividing the inmate population into meaningful categories to match offender needs with correctional resources is…

a)

Involvement

b)

Classification

c)

Management

d)

Booking

45.

The U.S. The Supreme Court is the highest level of a/an ____court.

a)

Appellate

b)

Trial

c)

Original

d)

Sentencing

46.

Courts that have the authority to review decisions of a lower court are known as ____ courts.

a)

District

b)

Appellate

c)

Magistrate

d)

Federal

47.

Before placing an arrestee in the patrol car, an officer should…

a)

Always put leg irons on the individual

b)

Make sure to notify a family member of the situation

c)

Complete a thorough search for contraband

d)

Allow the person to call and arrange bail

48.

The ____ Division generally has the most officers in a medium to large police agency.

a)

Technical and Support

b)

Criminal Investigations

c)

Patrol

d)

Juvenile

49.

Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the initial responding officer’s first action should be to.

a)

Position to exit the patrol car in the middle of the roadway

b)

Position patrol car in the middle of the roadway

c)

Ask to see the driver’s license

d)

Scan the scene fro volunteers

50.

An example of deadly force is…

a)

A Taser

b)

Pepper Spray

c)

A Canine

d)

A Firearm

51.

When responding to an emergency situation, a police officer should

a)

Proceed with due care and caution

b)

Exceed posted speed limits

c)

Obey all traffic laws

d)

Disregard all traffic alws

52.

Neighborhood watch programs aim to

a)

Teach residents how to apprehend suspects

b)

Provide citizens with arrest powers

c)

Involve citizens

d)

Teach residents self defense techniques

53.

When handling a suspect believed to possibly be infected with HIV, the officer should

a)

Wipe hands after contact with blood

b)

Wear latex or vinyl gloves

c)

Not touch the suspects bare skin

d)

Stand behind the suspect during arrest

54.

An officer gives a suspect an order, but the suspect fails to follow the order. The officer should use

a)

Verbal commands

b)

Physical contact

c)

Impact weapons

d)

Defense tactics

55.

The term “vicarious liability” means that

a)

Only one individual is liable

b)

Liability is shared

c)

Individuals are immune from liability

d)

Only those who admit guilt are liable

56.

An analysis of DNA provides information abut the ____ structure in the body

a)

Tissue

b)

Atomic

c)

Hematologic

d)

Molecular

57.

In 1841, a cobbler named John Augustus developed the concept of

a)

Retribution

b)

Parole

c)

Restitution

d)

Probation

58.

Which case held it unconstitutional to impose the death penalty if the crime was committed prior to the defendant being 18 years of age?

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

Roper v. Simmons

c)

Roe v. Wade

d)

Atkins v. Virginia

59.

The standard of proof necessary to find a defendant guilty in a civil trial, as opposed to a criminal trial, is

a)

Clear and convincing evidence

b)

Probable cause

c)

Preponderance of evidence

d)

Beyond a reasonable doubt

60.

The National Amber Alert System aides in the investigation of

a)

Stolen vehicles

b)

Identity theft

c)

Juvenile shoplifters

d)

Missing children

61.

The ____ is a computerized network linked to local police departments, providing information on stolen vehicles, wanted persons, stolen guns, and other crime related materials.

a)

LEO

b)

NCIC

c)

UCR

d)

CIRG

62.

In courtroom testimony, officers may use____ to refresh their memories.

a)

Police report

b)

Witness statements

c)

Prior incidents

d)

District attorney notes

63.

The ____ are the most expressive, and have the most connection to communication

a)

Hands

b)

Ears

c)

Arms

d)

Eyes

64.

The databank that allows federal, state and local crime laboratories to exchange and compare DNA profiles is known as…

a)

CALEA

b)

IAFIS

c)

FLETC

d)

CODIS

65.

The scientific approach to studying the nature, extent, cause, and control of criminal behavior is called

a)

Criminology

b)

Victimology

c)

Psychology

d)

Sociology

66.

A/an ____ warrant must be limited to the specific are and items described in the warrant.

a)

Arrest

b)

Consent

c)

Search

d)

Administrative

67.

A firearm should always be treated as if it is…

a)

Unloaded

b)

Safe

c)

Loaded

d)

Empty

68.

If an officer encounters a hearing impaired person, the officer should…

a)

Speak Slowly

b)

Shout Loudly

c)

Use the PA System

d)

Speak Rapidly

69.

When attempting to gain compliance, remember that verbal instructions must be…

a)

Advised

b)

Ignored

c)

Delayed

d)

Repeated

70.

The ____ generally deals with police corruption.

a)

Department of Protocol

b)

Training and Education Department

c)

Department of Internal Affairs

d)

The Mental Health Department

71.

The only remedy in civil court is…

a)

Monetary Compensation

b)

Electronic Monitoring

c)

Probation

d)

Incarceration

72.

Probable cause is found in WHICH amendment?

a)

Fourth

b)

Fifth

c)

Sixth

d)

Eighth

73.

A bifurcated phase process is used in a ____ trial.

a)

Civil Disobedience

b)

Capital Punishment

c)

Bench

d)

Misdemeanor

74.

At the start of every shift, and after transporting a prisoner in a police vehicle, the officer should…

a)

Turn the police radio off.

b)

Secure his/her weapon in the trunk

c)

Shutdown the laptop screen

d)

Check the backseat for contraband

75.

Law enforcement agencies fall under the ____ branch of government.

a)

Appellate

b)

Legislative

c)

Judicial

d)

Executive

76.

If an individual is exhibiting sings of psychosis an officer must Immediately request

a)

A mental health counselor

b)

A victim advocate

c)

Paramedics or EMS

d)

The chief or sheriff

77.

The most common method used to develop a fingerprint at a crime scene is

a)

Dusting

b)

Casting

c)

Inking

d)

Fuming

78.

One of the fastest growing crimes in the United States is

a)

Child abuse

b)

Identity theft

c)

Auto theft

d)

Drug sales

79.

Identity theft is an example of

a)

White collar crime

b)

Embezzlement

c)

Money laundering

d)

Confidence swindles

80.

When doing a standardized field sobriety test, an officer would use ____for a suspected impaired driver

a)

Touch your toes

b)

Horizontal gaze nystagmus

c)

Hop on one foot

d)

Recite the alphabet backwards

81.

Many police departments have turned to social media to connect with the ____ and promote their accomplishments.

a)

Prisoners

b)

Government

c)

Community

d)

Investigators

82.

An officer should place handcuffs on a person before

a)

Placing them in a patrol unit

b)

Issuing an arrest warrant

c)

Reading Miranda warnings

d)

Field sobriety tests

83.

In the Federal Bureau of Prison system. Which classification is also known as Federal Prison Camps

a)

High security

b)

Minimum security

c)

Low security

d)

Medium security

84.

To minimize contamination or alteration of a crime scene by EMT’s an officer should

a)

Guide medical personnel to victim(s)

b)

Provide medical assistance to the victim(s) without the EMT’s

c)

Bring victim(s) out to them

d)

Instruct medical personnel to be careful

85.

In ____, the U.S. Supreme Court upheld top and frisk procedures.

a)

Chamber v. Maroney

b)

Miranda v. Arizona

c)

Terry v. Ohio

d)

Gregg v. Georgia

86.

The ____ Maintains the Uniform Crime Reporting (UCR) System

a)

CIA

b)

DEA

c)

AFT

d)

FBI

87.

What is the first thing that a criminal justice professional should call into dispatch when conducing a traffic stop

a)

Color of vehicle

b)

Number of occupants

c)

Traffic stop location

d)

Vehicle registration

88.

Records are ____ records of all important facts in a case

a)

Permanent

b)

Positive

c)

Prescriptive

d)

Proprietary

89.

Which was the first United States city to create a paid and unified municipal police force

a)

Washington DC

b)

Chicago

c)

New York

d)

St. Louis

90.

Physical evidence that results from the transfer of small quantities of materials such as, hair, glass fragments, and gunshot particles is known as ____ evidence.

a)

Partial

b)

Excavation

c)

Trace

d)

Presumptive

91.

The sixth amendment guarantees an individual.

a)

Freedom of speech

b)

The right to a fair and speedy trial

c)

Freedom to assemble

d)

The right to bear arms

92.

The major objective of terrorist groups is

a)

Creating fear

b)

Explosives

c)

Property destruction

d)

Seizing property

93.

A process used to maintain and document the chronological history of evidence is known as

a)

Chain of custody

b)

Inventory control

c)

Evidence control

d)

Case identifiers

94.

Cultural diversity includes appreciating differences in age, race, gender, ethnicity, language and

a)

Employment

b)

Criminal history

c)

Education

d)

Sexual orientation

95.

The term ____ refers to negotiating an agreement in a criminal trial

a)

Guilty verdict

b)

Plea bargain

c)

Settlement

d)

Contract

96.

When conducting a search of a business found to have unsecured doors

a)

Simply secure the doors and provide extra patrol in the area

b)

Prior to entering notify dispatch with location and request backup

c)

The officer should search as soon as possible to avoid the possible escape of suspects

d)

Once the business owner arrives ask them to perform a search of the building

97.

The case of ____ established that the Supreme Court had the authority to nullify an act of Congress that violates the constitution

a)

Terry v. Ohio

b)

Roe v. Wade

c)

Martin v. Hunter Lessee

d)

Marbury v. Madison

98.

During a vehicle pursuit, when the vehicle stops, the officer should

a)

Reach inside the vehicle and remove the car keys

b)

Ram the suspect’s car to incapacitate the vehicle

c)

Run up to the suspect’s car as quickly ad possible

d)

Empty the vehicle using high-risk/felony stop procedures

99.

Skid marks on asphalt at an accident scent measure 64 feet in length. Given a drag factor of 0.75 use the formula below to calculate the minimum speed in miles per hour of the vehicle at the beginning of the skid.

S=5.5dfS=5.5\sqrt[]{d\cdot f}

a)

16.2

b)

26.4

c)

38.1

d)

40.9

100.

When an impact weapon is used the office should avoid s tricking the offenders

a)

Stomach

b)

Head

c)

Ribs

d)

Legs

101.

What are the three levels of prison classifications?

a)

Restricted, medium, and maximum

b)

Low, medium, and maximum

c)

Minimum, low, and maximum

d)

Pre-release, low, and medium

102.

When juvenile’s are the focus of Investigations, it is important that the officers always involved ____ is a part of the investigations.

a)

Close friends of the juvenile

b)

The child’s school principal

c)

Child welfare agencies in juvenile court services personnel

d)

Siblings

103.

The term____ refers to an act committed by a Juvenile that is considered a crime when committed by an adult

a)

Runaway

b)

Delinquency

c)

Tort

d)

Status offense

104.

When an officer responds to a domestic dispute, risk can be reduced by determine who is the

a)

Person that called 911

b)

Predominant offender

c)

Person with the worst injuries

d)

Person that talks the most

105.

Pretrial publicity could cause a motion ____ to be made prior to the beginning of the trial

a)

For a change of venue

b)

For suppression of evidence

c)

To continue jury selection

d)

To dismiss charges

106.

The ____ must prove guilt beyond a reasonable doubt

a)

Jury

b)

Judge

c)

Prosecution

d)

Defense

107.

The three levels of intent in civil law are strict liability, intentional wrong, and

a)

Defamation

b)

Incapacitation

c)

Negligence

d)

Surveillance

108.

When responding to a hazardous material spill, attempt to identify the type of hazardous material by

a)

Using binoculars to see placard

b)

Identifying the chemical by smell

c)

Physically collecting a sample

d)

Getting the shipping paper

109.

When speaking with a suspect the officer must especially watch the suspect’s

a)

Hands

b)

Belongings

c)

Eyes

d)

Feet

110.

An example of “racial profiling” as used in the law enforcement community is

a)

Detaining a black male seen running from a bank

b)

Stopping traffic violators solely because of race

c)

Eliminating one race from suspicion of a crime

d)

Kristen Bell interviewing an Asian male about car theft

111.

When should CPR be stopped

a)

When the officer believes the victim has died

b)

When the individual(s) administering CPR become exhausted

c)

When the victim’s skin regains natural color

d)

When the victim has a seizure

112.

The best non-verbal indicator that a suspect is planning to attack the officer is when the suspect ____ the officer.

a)

Stares at

b)

Smiles at

c)

Shakes fist at

d)

Circles behind

113.

Which U.S. Supreme Court case established the test to determine civil liability in excessive use of force cases?

a)

Terry v. Ohio

b)

Miranda v. Arizona

c)

Bell v. Sampson

d)

Graham v. Connor

114.

Three characteristics of a good police report are

a)

Balance, rapidity, and conciseness

b)

completeness, fullness, and certainty

c)

Clarity, subjectivity, and particularly

d)

Objectivity, clarity, and accuracy

115.

Learn more upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash at 01:00, the responding police officer(s) should be aware of which of the following when they are outside their patrol vehicle?

a)

Traffic cannot see them

b)

Driver fatigue contributed to the crash

c)

The driver is intoxicated

d)

Driver in attention contributed to the crash

116.

When arresting a suspect known to have tuberculosis, the officer should

a)

Not talk to the suspect

b)

Have the suspects wear a mask

c)

Wear gloves

d)

Not touch the suspect

117.

When approaching a vehicle during a traffic stop, the police officer should

a)

Leave his or her hand print on the rear of the stopped vehicle

b)

Make sure all the windows of the stopped vehicle are rolled down

c)

Call the patrol car in front of the stopped vehicle

d)

Walk directly to the passenger side of the stopped vehicle

118.

The booking procedure includes mental, medical, and ____ evaluations

a)

Financial

b)

Social

c)

Educational

d)

Physical

119.

The term, reactionary gap, is the

a)

Safe distance between the officer and the offender

b)

Amount of time it takes an officer to pull a gun

c)

Distance it takes a car to come to a complete stop after breaking

d)

Time it takes to determine there is a problem

120.

Tiny ridges in the skin of a fingertip are known as ____ ridges

a)

Natural

b)

Impression

c)

Friction

d)

Pattern

121.

A recognized program aimed at neighborhood crime prevention is known as

a)

Internal affairs

b)

Juvenile justice

c)

Community policing

d)

Homeland Security

122.

At a facility, the term, access control, refers to

a)

Monitoring movement in and out

b)

Maintaining a physical presence

c)

Knowing policy and procedure

d)

Identifying safety hazards

123.

What level of force should an officer use?

a)

Do not use force for any situation

b)

Start at the highest to scare the suspect

c)

The lowest level that is reasonable

d)

One level lower than the suspect

124.

The legal challenges to capital punishment usually fall under the __

__ Constitutional Amendment

a)

Sixth

b)

Fourth

c)

Fifth

d)

Eighth

125.

When offering testimony in court, the officer should direct his or her responses towards the

a)

Criminal defendant

b)

Defense attorney

c)

Prosecuting attorney

d)

Judge or jury

126.

Security officers in a retail establishment should observe a shoplifters attempt to conceal merchandise and ____ before apprehending the individual

a)

Disable security cameras

b)

Attempt to evade security

c)

Purchase other items

d)

Attempt to leave the store

127.

As mankind evolved, society appointed trusted citizens to enforce laws for the betterment of every man to ensure that

a)

The weak were preferred

b)

The people shared the power

c)

Power was abused

d)

The rich exploited the poor

128.

When photographing a crime scene, photographs should be taken in the following view sequence

a)

Overall, medium, close-up

b)

Medium, close-up, overall

c)

Close-up, overall, medium

d)

Close-up, medium, overall

129.

Flares should be avoided at a hazardous material spill scene because the flare could

a)

Harm the Emergency personnel

b)

Contaminate the site

c)

Present a distraction to traffic

d)

Present a fire or explosion danger

130.

Which court has ultimate Authority

a)

Federal appellate court

b)

U.S. Supreme Court

c)

State supreme court

d)

U.S. District Court

131.

Police officer has a legal responsibility to

a)

Stereotype different groups and remain biased

b)

Protect property, life, and defend the rights of others

c)

Decide guilt or innocence and enforce punishment

d)

Be subjective and maintain a professional demeanor

132.

Felony arrests are based on

a)

Probable cause

b)

Reasonable suspicion

c)

Hearsay

d)

Mere suspicion

133.

Mental illness can lead to an increase in

a)

Suicidal thoughts

b)

Euphoric thoughts

c)

Exercise

d)

Concentration

134.

An officer fired her Duty weapon over the head of an escaping offender. The officer

a)

Has scared the suspect

b)

Has fired a warning shot

c)

Used less lethal force

d)

Used deadly force

135.

The most common fingerprint pattern is the

a)

Ellipse

b)

Arch

c)

Loop

d)

Whorl

136.

An officer must respond courageously and assertively in critical situations, while controlling his or her

a)

Enthusiasm

b)

Appearance

c)

Emotions

d)

Supervisor

137.

Witnesses at a crime scene should be

a)

Kept separated, away from others

b)

Released immediately from the scene

c)

Told not to leave the country or state

d)

Permitted to enter the scene to identify evidence

138.

Crimes against a person include murder, rape, robbery, and

a)

Arson

b)

Assault

c)

Burglary

d)

Larceny

139.

Officers must remain calm, and use logic and reason when ____ with people who are angry

a)

Shouting

b)

Fighting

c)

Grandstanding

d)

Speaking

140.

What case set the precedent that no one with an IQ under 70 at the time of a crime could be sentenced to death?

a)

Roe v. Wade

b)

Atkins v. Virginia

c)

Roper v. Simmons

d)

Marbury v. Madison

141.

The ____ represents the state’s case in a criminal trial

a)

Prosecuting attorney

b)

Bailiff

c)

Defense attorney

d)

Judge

142.

The RICO Act was originally put in place to help combat

a)

Prison escapes

b)

Organized crime

c)

Motorcycle gangs

d)

Abolitionists

143.

The term, Actus Reus, refers to the

a)

Mental ability

b)

Physical ability

c)

Guilty person

d)

Guilty Act

144.

By definition, which of the following would be a “legal consent” search

a)

The person who allows the search of a roommate’s bedroom

b)

A motel room after being let in by maid

c)

A bus station locker by use of a master key

d)

The trunk a vehicle with the driver’s permission

145.

A new technology available to police is BWC, which stands for body-worn

a)

Containers

b)

Cameras

c)

Camouflage

d)

Conductors

146.

A blank is a document asking a court to assume jurisdiction over juvenile

a)

Writ

b)

Request

c)

Petition

d)

Subpoena

147.

When responding to a report of a person threatening suicide with a knife, what should an officer do?

a)

Approach with the caller and have them talk to the suspect

b)

Start talking to the suspect from a distance

c)

Use the PA system to communicate with the suspect

d)

Walk up and take the knife away as quickly as possible

148.

What standard of proof must law enforcement officers have before a judicial officer can issue a warrant?

a)

Probable cause

b)

Preponderance of evidence

c)

Reasonable suspicion

d)

Beyond a reasonable doubt

149.

The Landmark case that allows an officer to search a vehicle without a warrant based on probable cause is

a)

Escobedo v. Illinois

b)

Terry v. Ohio

c)

Carrol v. United States

d)

Miranda v. Arizona

150.

Toxicology is the study of

a)

Poisons

b)

Decay

c)

Blood

d)

Insects

151.

Which U.S. Supreme Court case determined under what circumstances police could constitutionally use deadly force to prevent The Escape of a fleeing felon

a)

Tennessee v. Garner

b)

Terry v. Ohio

c)

Graham v. Connor

d)

Miranda v. Arizona

152.

The term ____, means confined in jail or prison

a)

Demeanor

b)

Probation

c)

Incarceration

d)

Punitive Damages

153.

I’m making enforcement decisions, “racial profiling” occurs when an officer acts based on

a)

The description of a wanted person

b)

Suspicion of facts and circumstances

c)

Observed violation of law

d)

The race of a perpetrator

154.

In processing a crime scene, all bodily fluids should be considered

a)

Poisonous substances

b)

Cross contaminates

c)

Occupational hazards

d)

Blood borne pathogens

155.

If an offender makes suicidal statements during the booking process, the officer must be

a)

Viewed as non-threatening

b)

Placed in general population

c)

Handcuffed

d)

Placed an observation

156.

The term____ capacity, refers to the number of inmates that a facility’s staff, programs, and services can accommodate

a)

Overload

b)

Bed

c)

Operational

d)

Design

157.

Which statement most clearly differentiates a street gang from a drug cartel?

a)

Street gang is usually a link to a specific neighborhood

b)

Street gang sets prices for sale of drugs

c)

A drug cartel is often involved in prostitution, gun trafficking, and money laundering

d)

A drug cartel sometimes recruits youth by offering protection from gang violence

158.

When escalating the use of force, the officer should consider opportunity, jeopardy, and

a)

Lighting

b)

Location

c)

Ability

d)

Ethnicity

159.

The FBI, ICE, and DEA are all ____ agencies

a)

Federal

b)

County

c)

Local

d)

State

160.

HIV is transmitted through exposure

a)

From kissing

b)

From casual contact

c)

To blood

d)

To perspiration

161.

The most common methods to determine the alcohol content in a person’s body are blood, breath, and

a)

Hair

b)

Skin cells

c)

DNA

d)

Urine

162.

The purpose of chest compressions in CPR is to

a)

Supply the vital organs with oxygen rich blood

b)

Restart the victim’s heart

c)

Control the victim’s bleeding

d)

Identify any immediate threats to life

163.

Evidence that will lose its evidentiary value if not preserved or protected, such as blood in the rain is known as

a)

Simple

b)

Transient

c)

Physical

d)

Comprehensive

164.

A less than lethal weapon that uses a wire to transmit the control is called

a)

An expandable baton

b)

Pepper spray

c)

A taser

d)

A stun gun

165.

While involved in a traffic stop, the driver exits the vehicle to ask the officer a question. The officer should immediately

a)

Allow the driver to approach

b)

Ask the driver to use the vehicle’s passenger side

c)

Order the driver back into the vehicle

d)

Place the driver in the rear of the patrol car

166.

For safety reasons during a vehicle top, the officer should

a)

Have his or her weapon drawn

b)

Set out flares

c)

Deactivate emergency light

d)

Maintain visual contact

167.

An officer’s field notes can be

a)

Judged

b)

Destroyed

c)

Subpoenaed

d)

Biased

168.

The national blood alcohol concentration (BAC) level for adults is ____ or higher

a)

0.06

b)

0.07

c)

0.08

d)

0.09

169.

A prisoner who demonstrates Suicidal Tendencies should be evaluated by

a)

The officer in charge

b)

The warden

c)

The jail nurse

d)

A mental health professional

170.

Establishing the exact location where a crime occurred is essential for establishing the ____of the crime

a)

Elements

b)

Modus Operandi

c)

Legal Jurisdiction

d)

Corpus Delicti

171.

The fourth amendment guarantees an individual protection from

a)

Excessive bail or bond

b)

Unreasonable search and seizure

c)

Self-incrimination

d)

Double Jeopardy

172.

When speaking on the radio the officer should

a)

Speak in a clear, normal tone

b)

Place mouth directly on the microphone

c)

Clear his or her throat to be better heard

d)

Speak quickly to relay all information

173.

The agency responsible for handling emergency preparedness and Disaster Response

a)

FDA

b)

FEMA

c)

USCG

d)

NSA

174.

When investigating a burglary without witnesses, one of the first things an officer should do is

a)

Start dusting for fingerprints

b)

Get a detailed list and description of what was stolen

c)

Call for backup

d)

Look for DNA evidence

175.

When investigating a burglary without witnesses, one of the first things an officer should do is

a)

Start dusting for fingerprints

b)

Get a detailed list and description of what was stolen

c)

Call for backup

d)

Look for DNA evidence

176.

During an interview involving a domestic dispute, police officer should

a)

Arrest all parties involved and let the court settle the matter

b)

Tell all involved to quit fighting or they will all go to jail

c)

Interview all parties separately and remain neutral

d)

Listen primarily to the complainant

177.

When an officer goes to the firing range, he or she must have ____ protection

a)

Eye and ear

b)

Head and chest

c)

Hand and eye

d)

Hand and ear

178.

When an officer has reason to conduct a “Terry Frisk” (pat down) the officer

a)

Should do a pat-down check for weapons

b)

Can reach into the suspect’s pocket to retrieve whatever is there

c)

Should have the suspect empty their pockets

d)

Should always apply universal medical precautions

179.

An officer who maintains an alert demeanor and proper attire during a court appearance exhibits

a)

Overconfidence and sarcasm

b)

Professionalism in authority

c)

Proper health and hygiene

d)

Good supervision and style

180.

One of the most controversial and damaging issues facing police officers and public perception of the police is

a)

Police training

b)

Crime rate increase

c)

Use the force

d)

Affirmative action

181.

Victimization of an individual based on the individual’s race, religion, national origin, ethnicity identification, gender, or language is considered a/an

a)

Bias crime

b)

Assault

c)

Inchoate crime

d)

Battery

182.

The first step in identifying and controlling terrorism is

a)

Legal assessment

b)

Security

c)

Threat assessment

d)

Liability

183.

The first responding police officer at the scene of a motor vehicle crash has the responsibility to render first aid to the injured. Which individual below should a police officer tend to first?

a)

A passenger, who is having difficulty recalling what happened

b)

The driver, who is upset

c)

The passenger, who is having difficulty breathing

d)

The driver, who complains of a sore leg

184.

The use of deadly force is considered a “seizure.” What constitutional amendment would be violated is the use of deadly force was investigated and determined to have violated the suspect’s rights

a)

Fourth

b)

Fifth

c)

Sixth

d)

Eighth

185.

What is the legal term for a civil or personal wrong?

a)

Misdemeanor

b)

Crime

c)

Tort

d)

Violation

186.

The largest fingerprint database in the world is maintained by the FBI and is known by the acronym

a)

CODIS

b)

NCVS

c)

IAFIS

d)

IACP

187.

An officer is making an arrest on a violent suspect who is in the kneeling position. The officer should place handcuffs on the suspect

a)

After reading the Miranda Rights

b)

Immediately on approach

c)

After searching the suspect

d)

Only after backup arrives

188.

The first step to treat a severe bleeding injury is to use

a)

A tourniquet

b)

Pressure points

c)

Direct Pressure

d)

Elevation

189.

What is the legal term for a civil or personal wrong?

a)

Misdemeanor

b)

Crime

c)

Tort

d)

Violation

190.

What is the legal term for a civil or personal wrong?

a)

Misdemeanor

b)

Crime

c)

Tort

d)

Violation