Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Exam

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In metabolic stress, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a)

energy needs are high

b)

muscle proteins are used to make glucose

c)

there will be positive nitrogen balance

d)

there will be negative nitrogen balance

2.

Patients with calcium oxalate stones should make the following changes:

a)

Increase Vitamin C intake

b)

Avoid high sodium and protein intake

c)

Limit foods high in purines

d)

Decrease calcium intake

3.

Individuals with binge disorder are dieters who usually restrict calories then binge on food, but rarely purge.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Insoluble fiber from foods and supplements may thicken the stool and decrease diarrhea.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The weight loss and wasting common to most patients with HIV are a result of the antiretroviral medications.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Increasing fruit and vegetable intake may decrease the risk of cancer because these food groups contain:

a)

phytochemicals and folate

b)

folate and Vitamin C

c)

antioxidants and calcium

d)

fiber and Vitamin A

7.

Women with gestational diabetes should be encouraged to:

a)

limit carb intake to 40-45% of total calories

b)

increase carb portions to 3 or more at breakfast

c)

avoid bedtime snacks

d)

avoid physical activity during pregnancy

8.

Which is true about the basic carb counting diet?

a)

glycemic index should be considered with each portion

b)

simple carbs should not be included

c)

carb portions should be evenly distributed

d)

the diet pattern should include 3 meals and no snacks

9.

The most effective dietary measure for reducing blood pressure in people with hypertension is:

a)

reduce body weight by 5 kgs.

b)

reduce saturated fat to 7% or less of total calories

c)

limit sodium intake to 1500mgs

d)

follow all the DASH diet principles

10.

A patient is prescribed an 1800 calorie diet at 50% carbohydrate, which means the patient will consume:

a)

100g of carbs, 7 carb portions

b)

225g of carbs, 15 carb portions

c)

225g of carbs, 25 carb portions

d)

100g of carbs, 15 carb portions

11.

If a patient has an EER of 1800 calories and plans to start a walking program that will burn 150 calories per day, what calorie level would you recommend for her to lose 1 pound in 1 week?

a)

1300

b)

1550

c)

1450

d)

1350

12.

Simple tools for assessing USUAL food intake of patients include all of the following except:

a)

24-hour recall

b)

direct observation

c)

food frequency questionnaire

d)

food record

13.

A tool used to assess the USUAL dietary intake of a newly admitted patient would be:

a)

direct observation

b)

food record

c)

food frequency questionnaire

d)

24-hour recall

14.

A tool used to assess the dietary intake of an admitted patient while in the hospital would be:

a)

direct observation

b)

food record

c)

food frequency questionnaire

d)

24-hour recall

15.

It is most accurate to think of modified diets in terms of:

a)

the diseases they treat

b)

the foods they omit or alter

c)

the organs they are associated with

d)

the problems or symptoms they bypass or relieve

16.

All of the following are criteria that determine if a food is allowed on a clear liquid diet except:

a)

transparent

b)

nutrient dense

c)

room temperature

d)

easily absorbed

17.

To decrease reflux, a patient with GERD should do all of the following except:

a)

lie down after eating

b)

lose weight if categorized as obese

c)

eat smaller meals

d)

avoid tight clothing

18.

To prevent dumping syndrome in a patient status post gastrectomy, the patient should:

a)

eat simple, high glycemic carbs

b)

sit up after eating

c)

include soluble fiber

d)

drink liquids with meals

19.

Recommendations for a person with Irritable Bowel Syndrome may include all of the following except:

a)

add probiotic

b)

eat low FODMAP diet

c)

eat high protein diet

d)

eat small, frequent meals

20.

Which feeding tube placement poses the highest risk for aspiration?

a)

nasogastric

b)

nasojejunal

c)

gastrostomy

d)

jejunostomy

21.

What 2 nutrients are increased during pregnancy due to their roles in cell reproduction and synthesis of red blood cells:

a)

calcium and folate

b)

fiber and folate

c)

folate and Vitamin B12

d)

folate and Vitamin B6

22.

Indications that a baby is ready for solid foods include all of the following except:

a)

when they can control head movements

b)

when they can sit independently in a high chair

c)

when they have doubled the birth weight

d)

when the extrusion reflex has diminished

23.

All of these foods are good sources of calcium except:

a)

spinach

b)

milk

c)

tofu

d)

sardines

24.

In addition to BMI, the 2 most important factors to use in evaluating risk to health from obesity are:

a)

waist circumference and family history

b)

disease risk profile and family history

c)

waist circumference and disease risk profile

d)

family history and percent bodyfat

25.

A whole grain can be identified by:

a)

a high amount of fiber

b)

a darker and coarser texture

c)

a whole grain as the first ingredient

d)

the existence of just the germ and bran

26.

Which food has the highest nutrient density for protein:

a)

sausage

b)

turkey

c)

milk

d)

peanut butter

27.

What group of symptoms may give a patient the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome?

a)

central obesity, reduced HDL, hyperglycemia

b)

central obesity, elevated HDL, hypertension

c)

central obesity, elevated LDL, hypoglycemia

d)

central obesity, reduced LDL, elevated triglycerides

28.

Which vitamins would most likely be lacking in the diet of someone who eats no leafy green vegetables?

a)

Vitamin C and Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin E and Vitamin B12

c)

Folate and Vitamin B12

d)

Vitamin A and folate

29.

Which of the following statements is true about bile?

a)

It is an emulsifier made by the liver

b)

It is stored in the liver and secreted into the duodenum

c)

It enter digestion in the small intestine

d)

It is reabsorbed because it cannot be eliminated

30.

What are foods that you would recommend to a patient wanting to lower blood cholesterol level?

a)

apples and brown rice

b)

oatmeal and brown rice

c)

citrus fruits and whole wheat bread

d)

oatmeal and apples

31.

Hydrogenation makes oils with unsaturated fatty acids into solid fats with saturated fatty acids.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What happens when the body runs out of an essential amino acid?

a)

the protein will be made but without the missing amino acid

b)

protein synthesis will stop

c)

the body will make the missing amino acid

d)

the body will prioritize tissue repair over tissue rebuilding

33.

Food substitutions that decrease saturated and trans fat while increasing unsaturated fat include all of the following except:

a)

avocado instead of cheese

b)

nuts instead of potato chips

c)

salmon instead of steak

d)

coconut oil instead of butter

34.

Marasmus can be distinguished from Kwashiorkor, because in Marasmus:

a)

acute protein deficiency is the problem

b)

severe wasting of body fat and muscle are apparent

c)

the face and body swell from edema

d)

only newly weaned children are affected

35.

When fasting continues beyond glycogen depletion:

a)

the brain will use fatty acids for fuel

b)

the brain shifts from using glucose only to ketones only

c)

the brain will use ketones and glucose made from fatty acids and amino acids

d)

cell death as the brain can only use glucose for fuel

36.

Which of the following is not a behavior modification strategy for weight control?

a)

structured menus

b)

food diaries

c)

cue elimination

d)

personal goal setting

37.

When we get our vitamins and minerals from supplements instead of from food, we miss out on:

a)

antioxidants

b)

fiber

c)

trace minerals

d)

fat soluble vitamins

38.

Reduced stomach acidity (atrophic gastritis) may put the older adult at risk for deficiencies of:

a)

fat soluble vitamins

b)

Vitamin C and Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin A and Iron

d)

Vitamin B12 and Iron

39.

A breast feeding mother can be sure her baby is getting enough milk by monitoring the total time per day the baby nurses.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Peanut based foods should be introduced to babies before one year of age.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

The consequences of fat malabsorption include include losses of all of the following except:

a)

calcium

b)

magnesium

c)

potassium

d)

essential fatty acids

42.

Nutritional therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis includes all of the following except:

a)

liberal intake of salt

b)

high protein

c)

enzyme replacements

d)

low fat

43.

TPN solutions must be limited in their nutrient concentrations because they are delivered close to the heart.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which of the following would not be appropriate on a diet for moderate to severe dysphagia?

a)

pudding

b)

water

c)

mashed potatoes

d)

yogurt