wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PTCB PRACTICE EXAM 4/21/23

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A pharmacy receives the following prescription:

 

Fentanyl 100 mg/hr

Apply 1 patch every 72 hours #10

 

An error appears to have been made in the medication's:

a)

route of administration.

b)

strength.

c)

frequency of dosing.

d)

quantity

2.

A pharmacy receives the following prescription:

Warfarin 2.5 mg tablets

Disp: 4 weeks supply

Sig: 0.5 tab tab PO on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday, and 1 tab on Sunday, Tuesday, Thursday, and Saturday

What quantity of tablets will be needed to fill this prescription if the first dose is taken on a Sunday?

a)

14

b)

20

c)

22

d)

28

3.

Which of the following conditions may help prevent medication errors?

a)

Frequent interruptions

b)

Cluttered work spaces

c)

Lengthy shifts

d)

Sufficient lighting

4.

A patient picking up a prescription for naproxen inquires if the pharmacy has OTC ibuprofen. In response to this request, the pharmacy technician should:

a)

inquire if the ibuprofen is for the same patient as the naproxen; if so, notify the pharmacist of a potential therapeutic duplication.

b)

explain that these medications must be taken with food or meals to avoid stomach upset.

c)

inform the patient that OTC ibuprofen is available and direct the patient to the OTC pain reliever section.

d)

inquire if the ibuprofen is for the same patient as the naproxen; if so, notify the patient of a potential therapeutic duplication.

5.

For which of the following conditions could omeprazole be prescribed?

a)

Athlete's foot

b)

COPD

c)

GERD

d)

Migraine headaches

6.

The pharmacy receives the following prescription:

 

Tamsulosin 0.4 mg caps

Sig: 0.4 mg PO daily for 2 weeks then increase to 0.8 mg daily thereafter

 

What quantity of capsules will be needed for the first 30 days?

a)

30

b)

44

c)

46

d)

60

7.

Which of these medications has a narrow therapeutic index?

a)

lisinopril (Zestril®)

b)

acetaminophen (Tylenol®)

c)

pantoprazole (Protonix®)

d)

warfarin (Coumadin®)

8.

If you plan to run a dose of medication over 12 hours, how many total milliliters are needed for the infusion to run 1 ml/minute?

a)

7200 ml

b)

500 ml

c)

5000 ml

d)

720 ml

9.

If octreotide is available in 1000 mcg/5ml vials, how many milliliters are needed to compound an IV bag containing 600 mcg?

a)

3 ml

b)

2 ml

c)

1 ml

d)

4 ml

10.

If a 500 ml IV bag is infused over 3.5 hours, what is the infusion rate?

a)

142.86 ml/min

b)

0.42 ml/min

c)

2.38 ml/min

d)

29.16 ml/min

11.

What is an example of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug?

a)

lidocaine

b)

capsaicin

c)

acetaminophen

d)

ibuprofen

12.

Liver failure can result from an unintentional overdosage of what over-the-counter pain reliever?

a)

acetaminophen

b)

ibuprofen

c)

naproxen

d)

aspirin

13.

A patient who develops muscle weakness shortly after starting to take simvastatin is experiencing what type of medication-related problem?

a)

therapeutic contraindication

b)

allergy

c)

side effect

d)

drug-drug interaction

14.

According to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, finasteride is in pregnancy category X. This classification is an example of what type of warning?

a)

contraindication

b)

side effect

c)

allergy

d)

drug-laboratory interaction

15.

What is the generic name for Zoloft?

a)

simvastatin

b)

simethicone

c)

sitagliptin

d)

sertraline

16.

Which dosage form is to be shaken well prior to administration?

a)

otic suspension

b)

insulin vial

c)

topical paste

d)

oral solution

17.

What source should be used to determine therapeutic equivalence?

a)

Facts and Comparisons

b)

Federal Register

c)

Lexi-Comp

d)

Orange Book

18.

What dosing instruction is consistent with enteral medication administration?

a)

swallow

b)

inhale

c)

apply

d)

inject

19.

How should patients take their nitroglycerin sublingual tablet?

a)

Chew the tablet and then allow it to dissolve before swallowing.

b)

Swallow the tablet whole.

c)

Place tablet under the tongue and do not eat, drink, or smoke while the tablet is dissolving.

d)

Chew until the patient feels a slight tingling sensation, then stop chewing and park the tablet between your cheek and gum.

20.

A prescription is written for Paxil 10 mg QD. What medication and dosing schedule are being ordered?

a)

escitalopram 10 mg once daily

b)

paroxetine 10 mg once daily

c)

citalopram 10 mg once daily

d)

fluoxetine 10 mg once daily

21.

If a doctor wrote a prescription for a medication and listed the duration of therapy as “XIV” days, what is the appropriate day supply?

a)

14

b)

11

c)

41

d)

16

22.

Approximately how long is a brand name medication under patent?

a)

10 years

b)

15 years

c)

20 years

d)

25 years

23.

Which of the following is a valid reason for a brand name drug to be dispensed instead of a generic name without the provider writing “brand medically necessary” on the prescription?

a)

The generic is out of stock until next week.

b)

The pharmacist on duty deems it necessary.

c)

The brand name is more cost effective.

d)

There is no generic available on the market.

24.

Which of the following is a long-acting insulin?

a)

Lantus®

b)

Novolog®

c)

Humalog®

d)

Apidra®

25.

Considering the following prescription, what is the most appropriate quantity to dispense?


Drug: Haloperidol 2 mg/mL solution


Direction: 1 MG by mouth or sublingually every 4 hours as needed x 10 days


Quantity: QS

Refills: None

a)

1 tbsp

b)

1 tsp

c)

1 pint

d)

1 oz

26.

Which of the following OTC medications can cause an increased risk of bleeding?

a)

docusate

b)

aspirin

c)

diphenhydramine

d)

loratadine

27.

What is another term used for a prescription’s duration of therapy?

a)

indication

b)

DAW

c)

day supply

d)

diagnosis

28.

What color vials are used to protect medications from light, since some can be photosensitive?

a)

green

b)

gray

c)

amber

d)

red

29.

Which of the following medications is over-the-counter but has specific access restrictions to the general public, requiring it to be kept behind the pharmacy counter?

a)

pseudoephedrine

b)

phenylephrine

c)

dextromethorphan

d)

guaifenesin

30.

Which of the following medications belongs to the drug class known as proton pump inhibitors?

a)

famotidine

b)

pantoprazole

c)

cetirizine

d)

sucralfate

31.

In the event of a severe allergic reaction resulting in anaphylaxis, which of the following medications should be administered?

a)

glucagon

b)

pseudoephedrine

c)

epinephrine

d)

lidocaine

32.

If a doctor writes a prescription for a brand name medication and mandates “medically necessary,” which of the following DAW codes must be input during data entry for insurance purposes?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

0

d)

2

33.

Which of the following medications is administered nasally?

a)

albuterol

b)

prednisone

c)

salmeterol

d)

fluticasone

34.

Which of the following inhalers is a dry powder inhaler (DPI)?

a)

Advair®

b)

Proair®

c)

Ventolin®

d)

Spiriva Respimat®

35.

Insulin expires after how many days at room temperature?

a)

30 days

b)

28 days

c)

7 days

d)

3 days

36.

If a drug’s dose is 250 mcg/kg of body weight, how many milligrams should a 40-pound child receive?

a)

4.55 mg

b)

7.25 mg

c)

25 mg

d)

10 mg

37.

Sterile 70% alcohol should remain on the surfaces of a laminar airflow hood for how long before preparing compounded sterile preparations?

a)

30 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

10 minutes

d)

30 minutes

38.

Mr. Brown brings in the following prescription:


Tussi 12 DS Suspension

Sig: Take 10 to 15 mL q8h as needed

Disp: 473 mL


How many total liters (L) will Mr. Brown receive for his tussi prescription?

a)

0.0473 L

b)

0.473 L

c)

473,000 L

d)

47.3 L

39.

Which of the following medications is available in both an oral tablet and transdermal patch formulation?

a)

fentanyl

b)

lidocaine

c)

acetaminophen

d)

buprenorphine

40.

If a patient has a true allergy to penicillin, which of the following drugs may they also be allergic to?

a)

nitrofurantoin

b)

doxycycline

c)

ciprofloxacin

d)

cephalexin

41.

What is the term used to describe how a medication works in the body?

a)

indication

b)

mechanism of action

c)

prefix

d)

action potential

42.

Which of the following is typically considered an acute medical condition?

a)

diabetes

b)

migraine

c)

high blood pressure

d)

infection

43.

Which of the following vaccines must be stored in the freezer?

a)

Zostavax® (Herpes zoster)

b)

Prevnar 13® (Pneumococcal)

c)

Boostrix (Tdap)

d)

Fluad (Influenza)

44.

The pharmacy recieves a controlled substance order from their wholesaler. There are a total of 435 pills. Of this total, 17% are C2, 19% are C3, 20% are C4, and 44% are C5. How many C3 pills were in the order?

a)

74

b)

87

c)

19

d)

83

45.

The pharmacy technician can reconstitute a 100 mL bottle of Amoxycillin in 50 seconds. How many of these bottles can the technician reconstitute in 30 minutes?

a)

32

b)

34

c)

36

d)

38

46.

Which resource is not required to be on hand in the pharmacy?

a)

a compounding manual

b)

the Orange Book

c)

a resource on natural and herbal medications

d)

a copy of all State and Federal Pharmacy Laws

47.

Which of these is true regarding pharmacy equipment?

a)

Pharmacies do not need to have a backup power supply in addition to the normal source of power.

b)

Pharmacies do not need a hot water supply if they do not compound medications.

c)

Pharmacies are required to have temperature-controlled storage for medications even if they do not dispense refridgerated prescriptions

d)

Pharmacies are required to have a safe to store CII medications.

48.

When a state pharmacy law and federal pharmacy law conflict, which law should be followed?

a)

the federal law

b)

the state law

c)

the less strict law

d)

the more strict law

49.

Which of these is required for sterile compounding but not for non-sterile compounding?

a)

a clean workspace

b)

laminar flow hood

c)

hand washing

d)

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

50.

Which of these is true regarding the disposal of hazardous drug waste?

a)

It must be stored with other drug waste until disposed of properly.

b)

It must be labeled “drug waste.”

c)

It must be stored in a leakproof container.

d)

It must be completely disposed of within 48 hours.

51.

What is the most appropriate source of instructions on the proper way to store and handle a hazardous substance?

a)

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

b)

the manufacturer’s website

c)

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) instructions

d)

the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

52.

Which set of regulations dictate the appropriate standards for sterile compounding?

a)

USP 797

b)

USP 779

c)

USP 759

d)

USP 795

53.

. What needs to be documented on all transferred prescriptions for a prescription for a controlled substance ( CIII-V)?

a)

the original prescription format (electronic, hand-written, fax, etc.)

b)

the DEA number of the transferring pharmacy

c)

the number of initial refills on the prescription

d)

the date the prescription expires

54.

Which of these is true regarding Schedule II controlled substances?

a)

The pharmacist in charge must verify and document the date received on all received CII medications.

b)

CII drugs must be ordered using a hand written DEA 222 form.

c)

CII medications can be destroyed only if a DEA agent is present.

d)

Once received, CII medications cannot be returned to the supplier.

55.

According to the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 (CMEA), what is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine a customer can purchase in a 30-day period?

a)

9.6 grams

b)

3.6 grams

c)

3 grams

d)

9 grams

56.

How long do prescription records need to be retained onsite by a pharmacy?

a)

2 to 5 years, depending on the state

b)

10 years in all states

c)

1 to 3 years, depending on the state

d)

5 to 8 years, depending on the state

57.

Which of these DEA numbers is valid?

a)

CG2467894

b)

CG2467896

c)

CG2467895

d)

CG2467892

58.

Which of these methods is an acceptable way to store prescription records?

a)

2 files: (CII + non-controlled) and (CIII-V)

b)

2 files: (CII) and (non-controlled + CIII-V)

c)

3 files: (CII-III) and (CIV-V) and (non-controlled)

d)

1 file : (CII + CIII-V + Non-controlled)

59.

Which of these laws states that all medication products must have directions for use and appropriate safety warnings?

a)

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 (FFDCA, FDCA, or FD&C)

b)

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

c)

Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 (PPPA)

d)

Isotretinoin Safety and Risk Management Act of 2004

60.

Which member of the pharmacy staff is legally able to ask patients if they would like to be counseled on their medication?

a)

all of these

b)

pharmacy intern

c)

pharmacy technician

d)

pharmacist

61.

Which of these recalls would be issued by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for a medication that was deemed to cause temporary adverse health effects for patients that used that medication?

a)

class IV recall

b)

class III recall

c)

class II recall

d)

class I recall

62.

Reconstituted oral Amoxicillin suspension prepared on April 2, 2025, would have a maximum beyond-use date of:

a)

April 9, 2025.

b)

April 12, 2025.

c)

April 16, 2025.

d)

May 2, 2025.

63.

If there is an error in a medication's expiration date on the manufacturer's label, what kind of recall is the FDA most likely to request?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

64.

Medications from which of the following categories should be handled with care because they are considered hazardous?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Anticholinergic

c)

Antineoplastic

d)

Antithrombotic

65.

According to federal law, how long, in years, must a pharmacy maintain records for each controlled substance purchased, received, distributed, or dispensed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

10