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Unit 7 AP Bio

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who is the "father of evolution"?

a)

Aristotle

b)

Darwin

c)

Lamarck

d)

Mendel

2.

Which of the following evolves?

a)

Individuals

b)

Populations

3.

Peppered moths became darker during the industrial revolution due to the trees becoming darker. What type of selection describes the peppered moth population?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Sexual

d)

Stabilizing

4.

Birth weight averages between 6 to 8 pounds. Which type of selection describes birth weight of humans?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Sexual

d)

Stabilizing

5.

Drought causes an absence of food for medium beaked birds. Which type of selection describes the bird population?

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Sexual

d)

Stabilizing

6.

What is natural selection?

a)

Organisms with less favorable traits are more likely to live

b)

Organisms with more favorable traits are more likely to live

c)

Nature selects for the less favorable traits

d)

Nature selects against the most favorable traits

7.

Evolution produces perfect organisms

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Which level does natural selection act on?

a)

Individual Genotype

b)

Individual Phenotype

c)

Population Genotype

d)

Population Phenotype

9.

What level does natural selection select?

a)

Individual Genotype

b)

Individual Phenotype

c)

Population Genotype

d)

Population Phenotype

10.

What level does natural selection cause change?

a)

Individual Genotype

b)

Individual Phenotype

c)

Population Genotype

d)

Population Phenotype

11.

An individual evolves to better match its environment.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

What is a phenotype?

a)

Genes

b)

Physical Characteristics

13.

What does natural selection MODIFY?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

14.

What does natural selection act on?

Act on means that is selected for or against.

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

15.

Convergent evolution is due to common ancestry

a)

True

b)

False

16.

How is artificial selection different than natural selection?

a)

Artificial picks best traits for past events

b)

Artificial picks best traits for future events

c)

Artificial picks traits based on humans' interests

d)

Artificial picks traits based on predator/prey interests

17.

Peppered moths are an example of artificial selection

a)

True

b)

False

18.

If a dog breeder only mates dalmatians with perfect spots, what type of selection is this?

a)

Artificial

b)

Natural

19.

Convergent evolution

a)

Different structures, common ancestor

b)

Different structures, different ancestor

c)

Similar structure, common ancestor

d)

Similar structure, different ancestor

20.

Which population is better able to overcome genetic drift (as in, which one will have less of an effect on the allele frequency)?

a)

Small

b)

Large

21.

Bottleneck is an example of natural selection

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Genetic drift. . .

a)

Frequency changes due to natural selection

b)

Immigration into/emigration out of occur in a population

c)

Random events cause the change in the gene frequency

d)

Slight movement of alleles from transposition

23.

What is the bottleneck effect?

a)

Decrease in population size due to natural disaster

b)

Increase in desirable alleles and decrease in undesirable

c)

Natural selection decreases population size to fix allele

d)

Small group of individuals separated from the rest of the population

24.

In the founder effect, the new population is

a)

not representative of the original population

b)

representative of the original population

25.

What is gene flow?

a)

Alleles found in a population

b)

Immigration/emigration

c)

Natural frequency changes in a population

d)

Random changes in allele frequencies due to nature

26.

An increase in mutations

a)

Decreases genetic variation

b)

No effect on genetic variation

c)

Increases genetic variation

27.

For Hardy-Weinberg, the population size should be

a)

Small

b)

Large

28.

Should there be gene flow in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

Yes

b)

No

29.

Should there be mutations in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

Yes

b)

No

30.

What type of mating should occur in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

Random

b)

Nonrandom

31.

Dominant allele frequency

a)

p

b)

q

c)

p^2

d)

q^2

32.

Homozygous recessive

a)

p

b)

q

c)

p^2

d)

q^2

33.

What does it mean if the population remains in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

Population is not evolving

b)

Population is genetically diverse

c)

Population is undergoing gradual equilibrium

d)

Population is undergoing punctuated equilibrium

34.

What is allele frequency?

a)

The number of different alleles possible in a population

b)

The number of individuals with each allele

c)

The percent of individuals in the population with a trait

d)

The percent of the allele in a population

35.

The frequency of the recessive allele

a)

p

b)

q

c)

p^2

d)

q^2

36.

What is genotype frequency?

a)

The number of individuals with each genotype

b)

The number of individuals with each phenotype

c)

The percentage of individuals with each genotype

d)

The percentage of individuals with each phenotype

37.

How do you know the population is in equilibrium?

a)

p = q

b)

p^2 = q^2

c)

p + p^2 = q + q^2

d)

Frequencies remain the same between each generation

38.

Which of these structures demonstrates common ancestry?

a)

Analogous structure

b)

Convergent structure

c)

Homologous structure

d)

Nucleotide structure

39.

Vestigial structures show common ancestry

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which type of molecular data is more accurate?

a)

Amino acid sequences

b)

Nucleotide sequences

41.

Why is DNA more accurate for determining relationships than proteins?

a)

4 nucleotides make up DNA

b)

20 amino acids make up protein

c)

Introns are removed from mRNA before making proteins

d)

Silent mutations change DNA without change in protein

42.

When comparing protein sequences. . .

a)

Two organisms with the greatest differences are more closely related

b)

Two organisms with the least differences are more closely related

43.

Homologous structures

a)

Show common descent

b)

Show a convergent event

c)

Are structures that are similar due to similar environments

d)

Are structures that are different due to similar environments

44.

Analogous structures

a)

Show common descent

b)

Show convergent evolution

c)

Shares an ancestral trait

d)

Shares the same body structure

45.

Sugar glider vs Flying squirrel

a)

Analogous structure

b)

Embryological structure

c)

Homologous structure

d)

Vestigial structure

46.

Convergent evolution shows common ancestry

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Eukaryotic DNA is:

a)

Circular with multiple chromosomes

b)

Linear with multiple chromosomes

c)

Circular with a single chromosome

d)

Linear with a single chromosome

48.

All eukaryotic cells have

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

49.

Why are eukaryotic cells able to be bigger than prokaryotic cells?

a)

Compartmentalization due to membrane bound organelles

b)

Eukaryotes are more robust to scare the prokaryote away

c)

Endosymbiotic theory required a larger cell

50.

Why can eukaryotic DNA store more information than prokaryotic DNA in the same amount?

a)

Eukaryotes have introns and no mRNA processing

b)

Eukaryotes have introns and mRNA processing

c)

Prokaryotes have introns and no mRNA processing

d)

Prokaryotes have no introns and mRNA processing

51.

What is an intron?

a)

Coding segment of DNA

b)

Coding segment of mRNA

c)

Noncoding segment of DNA

d)

Noncoding segment of mRNA

52.

Which are removed during mRNA splicing?

a)

Exons

b)

Introns

53.

Phylogenetic trees and cladograms both show lineage

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What does a node represent?

a)

A divergent event leading to two related lineages

b)

A convergent event leading to two unrelated lineages

c)

A divergent event leading to two unrelated lineages

d)

A convergent even leading to two related lineages

55.

Which two are most closely related?

a)

Human and Gorilla

b)

Human and Orangutan

c)

Human and Gibbon

d)

Human and Chimpanzee

56.

Which organism would be at position D on the cladogram?

a)

Human

b)

Gorilla

c)

Orangutan

d)

Chimpanzee

57.

How many hundreds of thousands of years ago was the common ancestor of brown bears?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

58.

At which position would you find the outgroup?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.

Which organism would be the outgroup?

a)

Black

b)

Brown

c)

Panda

d)

Polar

60.

At what position were the lactose and protein A traits gained?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

61.

At what position might the protein B trait have been gained?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

62.

If casein was gained at position A, when was it lost?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

63.

What type of data is most effective to develop a tree?

a)

Biogeography

b)

Ecological

c)

Fossil

d)

Molecular

64.

Which is the outgroup?

a)

Asian Brown Bear

b)

Black Bear

c)

European Brown Bear

d)

Polar Bear

65.

What is most closely related to the polar bear?

a)

Asian Brown Bear

b)

Black Bear

c)

European Brown Bear

d)

Western North American Brown Bear

66.

Which two are closely related?

a)

Panda and Black

b)

Black and Brown

c)

Brown and Polar

d)

Polar and Panda

67.

Which two organisms would be grouped together on the branch with two placements?

a)

Cat and Cow

b)

Cow and Horse

c)

Horse and Human

d)

Human and Cat

68.

Which three organisms would be grouped together on the branch with three placements?

a)

Cat

b)

Cow

c)

Horse

d)

Human

e)

Pig

69.

To withstand selective pressures, populations need

a)

low genetic diversity

b)

high genetic diversity

70.

Which could cause harmful allele to become fixed?

a)

Bottleneck effect

b)

Founder effect

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Natural Selection

71.

An advantageous trait will always be advantageous

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What increases genetic variation?

a)

Crossing Over

b)

Independent Assortment

c)

Mutations

d)

Random Fertilization

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