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Worksheets

Biology FLP-2 Test

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following occurs in mitochondria?

a)

Histolysis of tissue

b)

Tricarboxylic acid cycle

c)

Glycogenolysis

d)

Glycolysis

2.

DNA could be found in:

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Peroxisomes

3.

Large globular proteins which project beyond the lipid layers on both sides helps to pass water soluble materials though the membrane are:

a)

Peripheral proteins

b)

Integral proteins

c)

Extrinsic proteins

d)

Oligosaccharides

4.

Middle lamella is:

a)

A cell wall between two adjacent cells

b)

A cell material between two adjacent plant cells

c)

A plasma membrane covering the two cells together

d)

A pore in the plasma membrane of cell

5.

Centromere is a part of:

a)

Gene

b)

Ribosome

c)

Chromosome

d)

Mitochondria

6.

A prokaryotic cell lacks:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nuclear membrane

c)

Membrane bound organelles

d)

All of the above

7.

The seat of Krebs’s cycle is:

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Nucleus

c)

Active transport

d)

Cytoplasm

8.

Which of the following sugar in not found in plants?

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Lactose

d)

Sucrose

9.

Which one of the following is a conjugated protein?

a)

Albumin

b)

Globulin

c)

Flavoprotein

d)

Histone

10.

Which type of RNA is most abundant in a cell?

a)

t-RNA

b)

r-RNA

c)

m-RNA

d)

Catalytic RNA

11.

Initiation codon is:

a)

AUG

b)

AGU

c)

AAU

d)

AUA

12.

A non-protein organic part attached firmly by a covalent linkage to the apoenzyme is called

a)

Co-enzyme

b)

Prosthetic group

c)

Activator

d)

Co-factor

13.

A substance unrelated to the substrate that reversible changes the activity of an enzyme by binding at a site other than the active site is known as:

a)

Competitive inhibitor

b)

Non-competitive reversible

c)

Allosteric modulator

d)

Catalytic inhibitor

14.

Which of the following processes directly produces the most ATP molecules per glucose molecule?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Electron transport chain

c)

Lactic acid fermentation

d)

Krebs cycle

15.

In DNA, guanine is 10%. The content of thymine is

a)

80%

b)

40%

c)

20%

d)

10%

16.

AIDS virus contains:

a)

DNA only

b)

RNA only

c)

DNA + protein

d)

RNA + protein

17.

Viroid’s differ from viruses in:

a)

Satellite DNA

b)

Naked DNA molecules

c)

Naked RNA molecules only

d)

Naked DNA packaged with viral genome

18.

Reverse transcriptase is:

a)

RNA dependent RNA polymerase

b)

DNA dependent RNA polymerase   

c)

DNA depended DNA polymerase

d)

RNA dependent DNA polymerase

19.

Tailed bacteriophage are:

a)

Motile on surface of bacteria

b)

Motile on the surface of plant leaves

c)

Actively motile in water

d)

Non-motile

20.

In some viruses, RNA is present instead of DNA indicating that:

a)

Their acid must combine with host DNA before replication

b)

They cannot replicate

c)

There is no hereditary information

d)

RNA can act to transfer heredity

21.

In bacteria plasmid is:

a)

Main DNA

b)

Non-functional DNA

c)

Repetitive gene

d)

Extrachromosomal DNA

22.

A membranous coiled semi-circular coiled structure attached to plasma membrane found in blue-green algae:

a)

Lamellosome

b)

Lomasome

c)

Mesosome

d)

Microsome

23.

Type of genetic material found in bacteria is:

a)

RNA bound to protein

b)

DNA bound to protein

c)

DNA not bound to protein

d)

RNA not bound to protein

24.

Antibiotics are:

a)

Drugs to kill viruses

b)

Toxins produced by bacteria

c)

Products bacterial metabolism

d)

Substances which kill bacteria

25.

Site for bacterial respiration is:

a)

Microsome

b)

Episome

c)

Mesosome

d)

Ribosome

26.

Which of the following animals has parabronchi?

a)

Bird

b)

Kangaroo

c)

Dog

d)

Human

27.

Which one of the following exhibits concentric ‘tube within tube’ plan?

a)

Cnidaria

b)

Annelida

c)

Platyhelminthes

d)

Nematoda

28.

Select an animal which is not included in mammals:

a)

Man

b)

Frog

c)

Lion

d)

Rabbit

29.

Choanocytes are found in:

a)

Erect tubules

b)

Sycon

c)

Both A & B

d)

None of the above

30.

Which of the following is the exit opening of sponges?

a)

Ostia

b)

Osculum

c)

Both

d)

None of the above

31.

The volume of air breathed in and out during effortless respiration is referred to    as:

a)

Vital volume

b)

Residual volume

c)

Ideal volume

d)

Tidal volume

32.

Tidal volume in human beings is

a)

1500 mL

b)

800 mL

c)

500 mL

d)

1200 mL

33.

Gaseous exchange in lungs occurs by

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Osmosis

d)

Passive

34.

Ensheathing of muscle bundle is called:

a)

Tendon

b)

Peritoneum

c)

Ligament

d)

Fascia

35.

What is sarcomere?

a)

Part between two A-line

b)

Part between two H-line

c)

Part between two I-line

d)

Part between two Z-line

36.

Joint of femur with pelvic girdle is:

a)

Hinge

b)

Pivot

c)

Saddle

d)

Ball and socket

37.

Most vulnerable bone of the following is:

a)

Fore limb

b)

Hind limb

c)

Scapula

d)

Clavicle

38.

Nails are formed by:

a)

Keratin

b)

Cartilage

c)

Chitin

d)

Bones

39.

Regularly striped muscles are:

a)

Anucleate

b)

Binucleate

c)

Uninucleate

d)

Multiple nuclei per cell

40.

Which statement is correct for muscle contraction?

a)

Length of H-zone become decreased

b)

Length of A-band remains constant

c)

Length of I-band become increased

d)

Length of two Z-line becomes increased

41.

Vertebral column of human body is made up of:

a)

52 vertebrae

b)

45 vertebrae

c)

33 vertebrae

d)

23 vertebrae

42.

The potential difference across the membrane of nerve fibers, when it does not show any physiological activity is called resting potential. It is about:

a)

– 60 mV

b)

-70 mV

c)

+ 60 mV

d)

+ 90 mV

43.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Gray matter surrounds the white matter in the brain

(ii) Gray matter surrounds the white matter in the spinal cord

(iii) White matter surrounds the gray matter in the spinal

(iv) White matter surrounds the gray matter in the brain of these statements

a)

2 alone is correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

1 and 4 are correct

d)

4 alone is correct

44.

The glial cells that form the blood brain barrier by lining brain capillaries are the:

a)

Oligodendrites

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Ranvier cells

45.

Lens, retina and cornea of vertebrate eye are developed from:

a)

Only ectoderm

b)

Ectoderm and Mesoderm

c)

Ectoderm, Mesoderm and Endoderm

d)

Ectoderm and Endoderm

46.

Sympathetic innervation has inhibitory influence on:

a)

Salivation, Peristalsis

b)

Salivation, Peristalsis, Cardiac output

c)

Peristalsis, Gut secretion, adrenalin secretion

d)

Gut secretion, Adrenal secretion, Heart beat

47.

Diabetes mellitus means:

a)

Increase of sugar in blood

b)

Increase of sugar in urine

c)

Decrease of sugar in blood

d)

Both (a) and (b)

48.

Pineal gland produces:

a)

Glucagon

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Cortisone

d)

Melatonin

49.

Serotonin is secreted by

a)

Pineal gland

b)

Mast cells

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

None of these

50.

A woman started developing male characters. It may be due to

a)

Damage to posterior pituitary

b)

Damage to mammary glands

c)

Over production of estrogens

d)

Over production of adrenal androgens

51.

Cushing’s disease is caused by hyperactivity of

a)

GH

b)

Thyroxine

c)

Glucocorticoids

d)

Insulin

52.

Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Aldosterone

53.

Chromaffin cells are found in

a)

Thyroid

b)

Adrenal cortex

c)

Adrenal medulla

d)

Pancreas

54.

Pulmonary artery drains the deoxygenated blood from:

a)

Right atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium

d)

Left ventricle

55.

Impulse of heart beat originates from

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Vagus nerve

d)

Cardiac nerve

56.

Impulses from pacemaker of heart are stayed at:

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

SA node

c)

SV node

d)

AV node

57.

The most abundant granulocytes in human blood is

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Neutrophils

58.

Hardening of the arteries due to deposition of cholesterol is called

a)

Atherosclerosis

b)

Thrombosis

c)

Arteriosclerosis

d)

Rinitis

59.

WBC accumulate at the site of wound by:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Arteriosclerosis

c)

Haemopoiesis

d)

Diapedesis

60.

Which of the following enzymes are found in human saliva?

I. Pepsinogen, II. Amylase, III. Trypsinogen, IV. Carboxylase

a)

I, II and IV only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III only

61.

What is peristalsis?

a)

A process of at emulsification in the small intestine

b)

Loss of appetite, fatigue, dehydration and nervous disorders

c)

Smooth muscle contractions that move food through the alimentary canal

d)

The transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vein

62.

Which set mixes with the food in small intestine-

a)

Bile, pancreatic juice, gastric juice

b)

Bile, pancreatic juice, succus entericus

c)

Bile, saliva, gastric juice

d)

Bile, pancreatic juice, saliva

63.

Sex chromosomes in human female are:

a)

Pseudo autosomes

b)

Isomorphic

c)

Heteromorphic

d)

Homozygous

64.

SRY is the maleness-determining gene. It is located at the:

a)

Tip of short arm of Y chromosome

b)

Short arm of X chromosome

c)

Tip of long arm of Y chromosome

d)

Autosome number 12

65.

Gene for ABO blood group system is found on:

a)

Chromosomes # 19

b)

Chromosome # 9

c)

Chromosome # 7

d)

Chromosome # 11

66.

It is basic unit of biological information:

a)

DNA

b)

Gene

c)

Allele

d)

Gamete

67.

Multiple alleles are the alleles that are always:

a)

More than 1

b)

More than 2

c)

More than 3

d)

More than 4

68.

Which amino acid is found abnormally in sickle cells’ hemoglobin at position 6?

a)

Glutamic acid in α chain

b)

Valine in α chain

c)

Glutamic acid in β chain

d)

Valine in β chain