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Worksheets

Chem Lab Final Review

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 30hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following items are required for admission to the general chemistry teaching lab?

a)

department approved safety glasses

b)

long pants

c)

shirt with sleeves that covers entire upper torso

d)

flat soled shoes that cover the entire foot

e)

hair longer than shoulder length tied back

2.

It is OK to temporarily remove my safety glasses/goggles while in the lab to clean them.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

I can wear any type of safety glasses or goggles in the lab.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Although eating and drinking are not permitted in the laboratory, chewing gum and candy are allowed.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

In case of a chemical splash to the eyes, how long should you rinse your eyes in an eyewash station?

a)

5 minutes

b)

60 minutes

c)

15 minutes

6.

When is it OK to work with chipped or broken glassware in the laboratory?

a)

If it is a small chip or crack

b)

if the crack is just a star-crack

c)

if the crack seems to be the only partway through the glasses

d)

never

7.

When should you clean up a chemical that you spill in the lab?

a)

Whenever the TA catches you

b)

immediately

c)

at the end of the lab period

8.

If I make a mistake in my lab notebook, I should

a)

Tear out the page and throw it away

b)

write the correct information on top of the mistake

c)

scribble out the mistake

d)

use white out to cover up the mistake

e)

draw a single line through the mistake then enter the correct info

9.

Which of the following personal items are permitted to be at your workstation int he laboratory? Select All

a)

pen or pencil

b)

drinking water bottle

c)

lab manual (printout)

10.

Flammable materials, like alcohol, should never be dispensed or used near...

a)

an open flame

b)

an open door

c)

another student

d)

a sink

11.

If a laboratory fire erupts, immediately

a)

throw water on the fire

b)

open the windows

c)

notify your instructor

d)

run for the fire extinguisher

12.

Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the lab

a)

only if your dont have corrective glasses

b)

at all times

c)

to improve your vision

d)

to avoid eye strain

13.

if you wear contact lenses in the school lab

a)

you dont have to wear protective goggles

b)

advise your instructor that you wear contact lenses

c)

keep the info to yourself

d)

take them out before starting the lab and wear glasses under lab goggles

14.

if you dont understand a direction or part of a lab procedure, you should

a)

figure it out as you do the lab

b)

as the TA before proceeding

c)

skip it and move on to the next part

d)

try several methods until something seems to work

15.

After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be

a)

left at your lab station for the next class

b)

disposed of according to your TAs directions

c)

taken home

d)

dumped in the sink

16.

If a lab experiment if not completed, you should

a)

make up results

b)

sneak into a different lab period to finish

c)

copy the results from another student in the lab

d)

discuss the issue with your instructor/TA

17.

You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the tube

a)

away from all people

b)

toward yourself

c)

toward another classmate

d)

toward your lab partner

18.

You are heating a piece of glass and now ant to pick it up. You should

a)

pour cold water on it

b)

use a rag or paper towels

c)

use tongs

d)

pick up the end that looks cooler

19.

You have been injured in the lab. First you should

a)

call your doctor after class

b)

visit the infirmary after class

c)

apply first aid on your own

d)

notify your TA/instructor immediately

20.

When gathering glassware and equipment for an experiment, you should

a)

read all the directions carefully to know what equipment is necessary

b)

all of the above

c)

clean any glassware that appears dirty

d)

examine all glassware for chips or cracks

21.

Personal eyeglasses provide as much protection as

a)

a face shield

b)

safety glasses

c)

splashproof chemical goggles

d)

none of the above

22.

Long hair in the laboratory must be

a)

held away from the experiment with one hand

b)

always neatly groomed

c)

tied back or kept securely out of the way with a hair band

d)

cut short

23.

in a lab, the following should not be worn

a)

all of the above

b)

leggings

c)

sandals

d)

dangling jewlery

24.

the following footwear is best in the laboratory

a)

crocs

b)

closed-toed shoes

c)

sandals

d)

open-toed shoes

25.

horseplay or practical jokes in the lab are

a)

not dangerous

b)

always against the rules

c)

okay

d)

okay if you are working alone

26.

if a piece of equipment if not working properly, stop, turn it off, and tell

a)

your lab partner

b)

the custodian

c)

your best friend in the class

d)

your TA/lab staff

27.

if an acid is splashed on your skin, wash at once with

a)

weak base

b)

oil

c)

plenty of water

d)

soap

28.

when you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab susbtances, always

a)

wipe your hands on your clothes

b)

wipe your hands on a towel

c)

treat your hands with skin lotion

d)

wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water

29.

when working in a lab it is important to orient yourself and identify locations of a fire blanket, fire extinguisher, the exits, eyewash stations, emergency showers, fire alarms, and waste containers

a)

True

b)

False

30.

What is the volume indicated, to the correct number of sig figs

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31.

Melanie obtains a value of 3.449 g/mL for the density of her unknown solution. The actual density of the solution is 1.837 g/mL. What is the % error? Give 2 decimal places

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32.

A student obtains the following data:

Mass of empty, dry graduated cylinder: 24.149g

Volume add of NaCl solution: 8.11 mL

Mass of grad cylinder + NaCl soln: 44.58g

What is the density of the solution? 3 decimal places

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33.

Jill creates a standard curve of mass vs volume for a series of solutions.

She is provided with a solution of unknown concentration (mass %). If the density of the unknown solution is 1.039 g/mL, what is the concentration of the solution, expressed as mass %? 3 decimal places

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34.

Jason measures three values of density for his unknown. The values he obtains are:

1.797 g/mL

1.609 g/mL

1.04 g/mL

What is the average of his three measurements? 3 decimal places

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35.

A student heats a sample of hydrate once, and the mass of the sample and the evaporating dish is 16.051 g. After a second heating cycle, the mass of the sample and the dish is 13.749 g. The student stops the heat/cool/weigh cycle after the second time.

If the original mass of the evaporating dish and the hydrate was 28.87 g, and the mass of the evaporating dish alone was 1.688 g, what is the mass of water removed from the sample by heating? 3 decimal places

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36.

George determines the mass of his evaporating dish to be 7.886 g. He adds a solid sample to the evaporating dish, and the mass of them combined is 13.67 g. What must be the mass of his solid sample? Express your response to three digits after the decimal.

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37.

An anhydrous (water removed) salt has a formula mass of 195.973 g/mol. If the hydrated version of the salt has 6 mol of water associated with it, what is the mass % of water in the hydrated salt? Report your answer to three digits after the decimal.

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38.

A student is told the theoretical mass % water in her sample is 67.655 %.

She obtains an experimental value of 48.85 % when she performs the lab activity.

What is her % error?

Report your answer to three digits after the decimal.

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39.

Sam records the mass of his evaporating dish as 5.501 g.

He records the mass of the evaporating dish and the sample of hydrate as 18.881 g.

After heating the sample in the evaporating dish to constant weight, the mass of them combined is 11.635 g.

How many moles of water were removed from the sample by the heating process?

Report your answer with three digits after the decimal.

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40.

You can always tell if an object is hot by looking at it

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Long hair should be tied back when using a bunsen burner

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Flame temperature can be adjusted by: (select all that apply)

a)

adjusting the gas flow by turning the handle on the natural gas valve

b)

adjusting the metal collar on the burner

c)

lighting the burner with a match

43.

Hot objects can be placed directly on the lab benchtop to cool

a)

True

b)

False

44.

it is important to check glassware for scratches, nicks and cracks before heating

a)

True

b)

False

45.

The temperature of an object can be checked prior to touching it by using an infrared thermometer

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Examine the sample ORP output below. At what approximate added volume of titrant does the equivalence point occur? Enter your answer numerically.

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47.

A titration is performed as follows:

19.946 mL of Fe2+ solution of unknown concentration is charged into a 100 mL beaker

45 mL of deionized water is added

the solution is titrated with 0.892 M Ce4+ solution 

the equivalence point is reached after 14.627 mL of Ce4+ solution is added

What is the concentration of the Fe2+ solution? Report your response to three digits after the decimal.

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48.

A solution of citric acid of unknown concentration, prepared in deionized water, is titrated with standardized sodium hydroxide solution, also in deionized water. A few drops of phenolphthalein is added to visualize the pH change. Phenolphthalein changes color from colorless to pink between pH of 7 - 9.

What is the titrant in this titration? sodium hydroxide

What is the analyte in this titration? citric acid

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49.

What is the equation of a line, in slope-intercept form, that connects the following two data points?

(5.0, 1200)

(6.0, -850)

Enter your answer by filling in the following blanks. Enter each of your answers as whole numbers without any rounding.

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50.

Examine the second derivative plot shown below. At what approximate added volume of titrant does the equivalence point occur? Enter your answer numerically in units of mL.

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51.

Magnesium is considered flammable

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Magnesium reacts with water and acid solutions

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The concentration of HCl solution is considered flammable

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Water can be safety added to this concentration of HCl solution

a)

True

b)

False

55.

This concentration of aqueous HCl is light blue in color

a)

True

b)

False

56.

It is safe to wash with water if one's skin is exposed to magnesium chloride solution

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Magnesium chloride solution is considered flammable

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Hydrogen gas is considered a carcinogen

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Hydrogen gas is considered an asphyxiant

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Hydrogen gas is considered flammable

a)

True

b)

False

61.

A student performs an experiment where gas is collected over water in an upside down graduated cylinder. If the atmospheric pressure is 750 mmHg and the level of water in the graduated cylinder is 18.5 cm higher than the level of the water exposed to the atmosphere, what is the total pressure of gases inside the graduated cylinder?

Enter your answer numerically in units of mmHg.

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62.

A student collects hydrogen gas over water in a graduated cylinder. If the student measures that the total pressure inside the graduated cylinder is 0.855 atm and the experiment was performed at 25oC, what is the pressure of hydrogen gas?

Enter your answer numerically in units of atm.

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63.

A student measures the pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas in the laboratory and records the following data: 

P = 0.329 atm, V = 112 mL, T = 300 K

Based on this information, what would be the volume of the gas at STP?

Enter your answer to three significant figures in units of mL. 

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64.

If 0.291 g of Mg are reacted with 10.0 mL of 3.00 M HCl, how many moles of H2 should be produced theoretically?

Enter your answer numerically in units of moles. 

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65.

If 5.5 moles of gas are produced in an experiment and it is measured that they occupy 112 L at STP, what is the experimental molar volume of the gas?

Enter your answer numerically in units of L/mol to two digits after the decimal.

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66.

A coffee cup calorimeter is prepared, containing 100.000 g of water (specific heat capacity = 4.184 J/g K) at initial temperature 80.000 C. A salt weighing 5.576 g is quickly added. The salt has a molar mass of 239.577 g/mol. The final temperature of the solution is 11.207 C.

Assume no heat loss to the surroundings. Assume the specific heat capacity of the solution is equal to that of pure water, and that the mass of the solution is equal to the mass of the solid plus the mass of water in the calorimeter.

What is the molar heat of solution for the salt, in kJ/mol?

Report your answer to three digits after the decimal.

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67.

Standard heats of formation for reactants and products in the reaction below are provided.

2 HA(aq) + MX2(aq)  → MA2(aq) + 2 HX(l)

What is the standard enthalpy of reaction, in kJ? Report your answer to three digits after the decimal.

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68.

A 312 g sample of a metal is heated to 361.375 °C and plunged into 200 g of water at a temperature of 48.347 °C. The final temperature of the water is 56.308 °C. Assuming water has a specific heat capacity of 4.184 J/g °C, what is the specific heat capacity of the metal sample, in J/g °C)? Assume no heat loss to the surroundings.

Report your response to 3 digits after the decimal.

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69.

Suppose you are investigating the reaction: M(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → MCl2(aq) + H2(g).

You weigh out a 0.234 gram piece of metal and combine it with 58.4 mL of 1.00 M HCl in a coffee-cup calorimeter. If the molar mass of the metal is 46.31 g/mol, and you measure that the reaction absorbed 121 J of heat, what is the enthalpy of this reaction in kJ per mole of limiting reactant?

Enter your answer numerically to three significant figures in units of kJ/mol. 

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70.

You determine that the specific heat capacity of your unknown metal is 0.524 J/goC. What is the identity of the metal?

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71.

Both acids and bases can be corrosive.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Halogens are unreactive.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Mercury is readily absorbed through the skin.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Oxidizing agents and reducing agents should be stored close to one another for safety.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Peroxides can be stored indefinitely.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Pyrophoric substances can burn spontaneously in air.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Flammable liquids should be used with care near sources of ignition.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Cryogenics are stored at high temperatures

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Electricity can be hazardous.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

CuSO4 absorbs light strongly at a wavelength of 635 nm. Consider that you measure the initial intensity of light, Io, entering the solution at 635 nm, and the intensity of light passing through the solution, I, at 635 nm. 

Sample 1: 0.400 M CuSO4

Sample 2: 0.200 M CuSO4

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The intensity of light passing through the solution, I, will be higher for Sample 1 compared to Sample 2.

b)

The intensity of light passing through the solution, I, will be the same for Sample 1 compared to Sample 2.

c)

The intensity of light passing through the solution, I, will be lower for Sample 1 compared to Sample 2.

81.

The reported molar absorptivity of Red Dye #3 is 1.525 L mol-1 cm-1. If a solution of Red Dye #3 displays an absorbance of 1.09 in a cuvette that is 0.671 cm in length, what is the concentration of the dye in solution? Report your response to three digits after the decimal. _____ M

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82.

A stock solution of Blue #1 has a concentration of 4.365 M. 2 mL of this solution is diluted with 9 mL water. What is the concentration of the resulting solution? Provide your response to 3 significant figures.

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83.

A student's calibration curve for Blue #1 at 635 nm yields a straight line described by the equation y = 0.334 x + 0.025. If the measured absorbance for a solution of unknown concentration of Blue #1 is 0.474, what is the concentration of the Blue #1 solution? Provide your response to three digits after the decimal. 

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84.

The concentration of dye in Solution A is 28.842 M. You have 13 mL of water at your disposal to make the dilutions.

The solution is diluted twice, to make Solutions B and C.

In the first dilution, 3 parts of Solution A is diluted with 12 parts water to make Solution B.

In the second dilution, 6 parts of Solution B is diluted with 4 parts water to make Solution C.

What is the concentration of dye in Solution C? Provide your response to three digits after the decimal.

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85.

What does the skull and crossbones represent when used as the pictogram on an SDS?

a)

carcinogen

b)

flammable

c)

acute toxicity

d)

corrosive

86.

What does the exclamation mark represent when used as the pictogram on an SDS?

a)

carcinogen

b)

mutagen

c)

flammable

d)

irritant

87.

Which pictogram(s) appear on the SDS for silver nitrate? Select all that apply.

a)

carcinogen

b)

flammable

c)

irritant

d)

skin corrosion/burns

e)

oxidizer

88.

What is the 'signal word' (if any) for silver nitrate?

a)

danger

b)

warning

c)

alert

d)

none

89.

What happens when silver nitrate is heated to composition?

a)

nothing

b)

may emit toxic fumes

c)

releases water

d)

forms carbon dioxide

90.

What should be used to extinguish a fire containing silver nitrate?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

halons

c)

water

d)

tri class dry chemical

91.

Is silver nitrate light sensitive?

a)

yes

b)

no

c)

unknown

92.

What color is silver nitrate?

a)

white

b)

yellow

c)

colorless

d)

silver

93.

What effect (if any) does silver nitrate have on aquatic species?

a)

toxic

b)

none

c)

unknown

d)

beneficial

94.

What is the melting point of 1-naphthol, according to the SDS?

a)

542 C

b)

1.224 C

c)

233 C

d)

96 C

95.

Is 1-naphtol air and/or light sensitive?

a)

air sensitive only

b)

light sensitive only

c)

neither light or air sensitive

d)

both light and air sensitive

96.

What do the pictograms for 1-naphthol indicate? Select all that apply.

a)

skin corrosion/burns

b)

oxidizer

c)

irritant

d)

acute toxicity

e)

flammable

97.

A student measures the absorbance of a sample of red dye #3 using a spectrophotometer. If the absorbance is measured as 0.624, what is the concentration of red dye #3 in the sample?

Enter your answer in units of micromolar to three significant figures.

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98.

A student makes three plots of their data and finds that a plot of [A] vs t is linear, a plot of ln[A] vs t is non-linear, and a plot of 1/[A] vs t is non-linear. What is the rate law of the reaction?

a)

Rate = k

b)

Rate = k[A]

c)

 

Rate = k[A]2

d)

Rate = k[A]3

99.

Which one of the following sets of units is appropriate for a second-order rate constant?

a)

s–1

b)

mol L–1s–1

c)

L mol–1s–1

d)

mol2 L–2s–1

100.

You will need to generate a set of graphs to answer this question.

Concentration vs time data for the following decomposition reaction was collected at 300 K. The data is shown in the table below.

What is the rate constant for the reaction at this temperature (in units of min-1)?

H2O2(aq) → H2O(l) + 1/2 O2(g)

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101.

What is the safety pictogram for household bleach (sodium hypochlorite solution, 5-12.5%)?

a)

irritant

b)

skin corrosion/burns

c)

explosive

d)

aquatic toxicity

102.

Which is the best definition of asphyxiant?

a)

poisonous

b)

spontaneously catches on fire

c)

ignites in air

d)

can result in suffocation

103.

Which is the best definition of lachrymator?

a)

can result in skin rash

b)

irritates the lungs

c)

burns the skin

d)

can irritate eyes and cause tearing

104.

Which is the best definition of teratogen?

a)

can cause birth defects

b)

can cause cancer

c)

can cause ruptures in skin on exposure

d)

explosive

105.

Which is the best definition of mutagen?

a)

can cause radiation

b)

can cause genetic mutation

c)

can cause birth defects

d)

can cause cancer

106.

Which is the best definition of corrosive?

a)

can cause damage to living tissue

b)

can irritate eyes and cause tearing

c)

can cause birth defects

d)

can cause cancer

107.

Which of the following best describes the reaction, if any, that occurs when aqueous solutions of sodium carbonate and sodium iodide are combined?

a)

double replacement

b)

redox

c)

neutralization

d)

no reaction

108.

If an unknown solution is a poor conductor of electricity, which of the following must be true?

a)

the solution is highly ionized

b)

the solution is slightly ionized

c)

the solution is highly reactive

d)

the solution is slightly reactive

109.

Which ion(s) is/are spectator ions in the reaction, if any, that results from combining aqueous solutions of CoCl2 and AgNO3? Select all that apply.

a)

Co^2+

b)

Cl-

c)

Ag+

d)

NO3-

110.

An infrared wave has a wavelength of 6.5 × 10–4 cm. What is this distance in angstroms, Å?

Enter a value with two significant figures to complete the expression: ____ x 104 Å.

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111.

Which descriptor of eye protection best identifies the eye protection shown:

a)

safety goggles

b)

face shield

c)

fluid resistant shield

d)

safety glasses

112.

Which descriptor of eye protection best identifies the eye protection shown:

a)

safety glasses

b)

face shield

c)

safety goggles

d)

fluid resistant shield

113.

Which form of eye protection is most appropriate for use in the general chemistry lab?

a)

fluid resistant shield

b)

laser eyewear

c)

safety glasses/goggles

d)

dust goggles

114.

In a typical heating/cooling curve, what is the slope of the line when a change of state is occurring?

a)

none of the above

b)

negative slope

c)

slope +1

d)

positive slope

115.

In a typical heating curve, what is the nature of the slope of the curve when the substrate, in one state of matter, is being heated to another state of matter, but no change of state is occurring?

a)

slope < 0

b)

slope = 0

c)

slope > 0

116.

A solid is heated to a liquid and then to a gas. How many changes of state typically occur in the process?

a)

2

b)

0

c)

1

d)

3

117.

Melting a solid to form a liquid is exothermic.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Recall q=m.c.ΔT. How much heat, in J, is required to increase the temperature of an object with mass 3.753 g by 98.947 C if the specific heat of the substance is 5.03 J/g C? Provide your response to one digit after the decimal.

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119.

Which is greater in magnitude, the heat of fusion or the heat of vaporization of water?

a)

heat of fusion

b)

theyre the same

c)

heat of vaporization

120.

Just like we can calculate heat required to change the temperature by a given magnitude, given its mass and specific heat, we can also calculate the energy required to change the state of matter of a quantity (mass) of substance, given its heat of fusion (ΔHf) or heat of vaporization (ΔHvap). The calculation is similar for both processes, and resembles that used for specific heat. 

To calculate the heat (q) required to melt a given mass (m) of a substance from a solid to a liquid state, you will require the heat of fusion for the substance, ΔHf. Quantity of heat is found by: q = m.ΔHf.

Notice temperature doesn't appear in the formula. Why not?

a)

temperature change of the substance is incorporated in the heat of fusion

b)

temperature change doesnt affect quantity of heat

c)

temperature change is independent of mass

d)

there is no temperature change during a change of state