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Physics Quiz

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 2hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A system consist of six identical particles each of mass m located on the vertices of a regular hexagon of side length a. The gravitational field at centre of hexagon is

a)

Zero

b)

GM/a^2

c)

6GM/a^2

d)

2GM/a^2

2.

The time period of an earth’s satellite in circular orbit is independent of

a)

Mass of satellite

b)

Mass of earth and radius of orbit of satellite

c)

Mass of earth

d)

Mass of satellite and radius of orbit of satellite

3.

Two wires A and B of diameter of cross section 0.5 cm each are loaded as shown in figure. The unloaded length of wire A is 3 m and that of wire B is 2 m. If Young’s Modulus of both wires is same, then the ratio of elongation of wire A to the wire B will be

a)

2 : 1

b)

3 : 2

c)

4 : 1

d)

3 : 1

4.

If P, Q and R represents bulk modulus of elasticity for solid, liquid and gas respectively, then

a)

P = Q = R

b)

P < Q < R

c)

P > Q > R

d)

P < Q = R

5.

Young’s modulus of perfectly rigid material is

a)

Zero

b)

Infinity

c)

2 × 10^5 N/m^2

d)

10 × 10^6 N/m^2

6.

If T is surface tension of a liquid, then the energy needed to break a liquid drop of radius R into 27 equal drops is

a)

3πR^2T

b)

27πR^2T

c)

9πR^2T

d)

8πR^2T

7.

The level of water in a tank is 20 m high which has a hole of area 2 cm^2 at its bottom. The rate of leakage of water from the hole at this instant is (g = 10 m/s^2)

a)

10^(-3) m^3/s

b)

4 × 10^(-3) m^3/s

c)

2 × 10^(-3) m^3/s

d)

4 × 10^(-2) m^3/s

8.

At what height over the Earth’s pole, the free fall acceleration decreases by one percent? (Radius of earth = 6400 km)

a)

h = 16 km

b)

h = 32 km

c)

h = 64 km

d)

h = 128 km

9.

A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. It crosses a point at height of 60 m twice at an interval of 4 s. The velocity with which ball will hit the ground is

a)

40 m/s

b)

20 m/s

c)

30 m/s

d)

15 m/s

10.

A particle has initial velocity and has acceleration . Its speed after 10 s is

4 lines
11.

A : Bus has more inertia as compared to car. R : Mass is the measure of inertia.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

12.

A person standing on an escalator takes time 30 s to reach the top of a tower when the escalator is moving. He takes time 60 s to reach the top of tower when the escalator is at rest and he is walking up. The time taken by him when he walks up on a moving escalator is

a)

30 s

b)

15 s

c)

90 s

d)

20 s

13.

A projectile is launched at time t = 0 with velocity 20 m/s at an angle 53° with the horizontal. The magnitude of velocity of the projectile at the highest point of the trajectory is

a)

9 m/s

b)

16 m/s

c)

12 m/s

d)

7 m/s

14.

Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 5 kg are connected with massless string and placed on frictionless surface as shown in figure. If system is pulled by force F, then the ratio of T1 and T2 is

a)

2 : 3

b)

3 : 5

c)

2 : 5

d)

8 : 5

15.

A : The mass of the body is irrelevant in kinematics of body under free fall. R : The acceleration of the body is independent of its mass in case of free fall.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

16.

When pressure on a metal cube is increased by 10^6 Pa, if volume decreased by 0.030% then the bulk modulus of the metal is (in N/m^2)

a)

3.3 × 10^11

b)

3.3 × 10^9

c)

6.67 × 10^9

d)

3.3 × 10^10

17.

Two stars each of mass M = 10^30 kg are approaching each other with negligible speed, when far off. What is the speed with which they will collide if radius of each star is 10^6 m?

a)

5.77 × 10^3 m/s

b)

5.77 × 10^6 m/s

c)

2.55 × 10^6 m/s

d)

3.44 × 10^6 m/s

18.

Assuming earth to be sphere of uniform mass density. At what distance from the centre of earth inside, a body weight will be of its weight at earth's surface? (R = radius of earth)

4 lines
19.

A : In a river flowing from East to West, a swimmer can reach exactly opposite on north bank of river, if he follows correct angle towards East while trying to reach north side of river. R : The component of his velocity with respect to river towards east will be cancelled by the river velocity to help him reach exact north if correct angle is used.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

20.

A : An object falling from a greater height reaches a steady terminal velocity. R : At a steady velocity, the viscous drag due to air is just equal to its weight (Take buoyancy negligible).

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

21.

Two trains P and Q are moving with velocities vP and vQ, respectively along the positive x-axis. If vP < vQ, then which of the following position-time graph is correctly showing the velocity of trains P and Q?

a)

(1)

b)

(2)

c)

(3)

d)

(4)

22.

A metal rope of density 5000 kg/m3 has a breaking stress 9.8 × 10^8 N/m2. If the radius of the rope is doubled, then the new breaking stress will be

a)

(1) 39.2 × 10^8 N/m2

b)

(2) 9.8 × 10^8 N/m2

c)

(3) 6 × 10^8 N/m2

d)

(4) 16 × 10^8 N/m2

23.

A machine gun fires n bullets per second with speed u, mass of each bullet is m. If bullets hit the wall and get embedded in it, then force acting on the wall is

a)

(1) mnu

b)

(2) 2mnu

c)

(3)

d)

(4) 4mnu

24.

If a planet of mass ‘m’ is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit of radius ‘2r’ with time period T, then mass of the sun is

a)

(1)

b)

(2)

c)

(3)

d)

(4)

25.

With what minimum acceleration can a fireman slide down a rope, whose breaking strength is th of his weight? [g = 10 m/s2]

a)

(1) 4 m/s2

b)

(2) 10 m/s2

c)

(3) 8 m/s2

d)

(4) 6 m/s2

26.

An iceberg of density 900 kg/m3 is floating in water of density 1000 kg/m3 the percentage of volume of ice-cube outside the water is

a)

(1) 20%

b)

(2) 35%

c)

(3) 10%

d)

(4) 25%

27.

Find contact force between blocks

a)

(1) 20 N

b)

(2) 40 N

c)

(3) 60 N

d)

(4) 50 N

28.

In uniform circular motion, which of the following quantity remains constant?

a)

(1) Linear momentum

b)

(2) Velocity

c)

(3) Kinetic energy

d)

(4) Acceleration

29.

Which of the following is correct graph for a sphere falling in a viscous liquid? (at t = 0, velocity v = 0)

a)

(1)

b)

(2)

c)

(3)

d)

(4)

30.

If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed 40 m/s, the distance covered during the last second of its descent will be (g = 10 m/s2)

a)

(1) 70 m

b)

(2) 90 m

c)

(3) 35 m

d)

(4) 125 m

31.

A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r with constant speed v as shown in the figure. Average acceleration of particle during its motion from A to B is

a)

(1)

b)

(2)

c)

(3)

d)

(4)

32.

For a satellite to appear stationary to an observer on earth, which of the following is false?

a)

(1) Its sense of rotation must be from west to east

b)

(2) It must be rotating about the Earth’s axis

c)

(3) It must be rotating in the Equatorial plane

d)

(4) Its time period must be 84.6 min

33.

Two bodies A and B of mass 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid wall. The coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.2. When the force of 200 N is applied horizontally on A, which of the following is correct? (g = 10 ms–2)

a)

(1) The reaction of wall is 200 N

b)

(2) The action reaction force between A and B is more than reaction of wall

c)

(3) The action reaction force between A and B is less than reaction of wall

d)

(4) Both (A) and (C) are correct

34.

On increasing temperature, the viscosity of

a)

A. Gas decreases

b)

B. Gas increases

c)

C. Liquid decreases

d)

D. Liquid increases

35.

Consider a U-tube with liquids filled inside, as shown in the figure. If the system is at rest, then the value of ‘h’ will be approximately (ρoil = 0.8 g/cc, ρmercury = 13.6 g/cc and ρglycerol = 1.3 g/cc)

a)

(1) 12.8 cm

b)

(2) 20.8 cm

c)

(3) 7.3 cm

d)

(4) 24.1 cm

36.

A particle is moving on circular path with decreasing speed, then the angle between velocity vector and acceleration vector is

a)

(1) θ >

b)

(2)

c)

(3)

d)

(4)

37.

A wooden ball of density 900 kg/m3 is immersed in water to a depth 18 cm below the surface of water and then released. Upto what height will the ball jump out of water?

a)

(1) 2 cm

b)

(2) 9 cm

c)

(3) 18 cm

d)

(4) 4 cm

38.

A particle is moving on straight line x'x with constant velocity 20 m/s. An observer B is sitting at perpendicular distance 50 m from x'x. The angular velocity of particle A w.r.t B at the instant θ = 45° is

a)

(1) 0.1 rad/s

b)

(2) 0.2 rad/s

c)

(3) 0.4 rad/s

d)

(4) 0.5 rad/s

39.

In a hydraulic lift as shown in figure, mass of the car is m = 1000 kg, area of pistons A1 = 20 cm2, A2 = 5 m2. The minimum force F required to lift the car is g = 10 m/s2

a)

(1) 8 N

b)

(2) 4 N

c)

(3) 6 N

d)

(4) 1 N

40.

The position of a particle varies with the time t as x = (7 + 5t – t2) m. Its acceleration – time graph is best represented as

a)

(1)

b)

(2)

c)

(3)

d)

(4)

41.

A silver coin weighing 2.4 g is dissolved in excess HNO3 and then further treated with HCl solution in excess. The weight of AgCl formed is 2.87 g. The percentage of silver in the coin is (Atomic weight of Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5)

a)

(1) 85%

b)

(2) 88%

c)

(3) 92%

d)

(4) 90%

42.

Conjugate acid and conjugate base of respectively are

a)

(1) H2C2O4 and CO2

b)

(2) and H2CO3

c)

(3) CO2 and

d)

(4) H2CO3 and

43.

Which one of the following is not correct according to postulates of Bohr's atomic model?

a)

(1) Energy of the electron only changes when it makes a transition from one energy level to the other

b)

(2) An electron around the nucleus can revolve only in certain circular path of fixed radii and energy

c)

(3) Angular momentum of an electron is quantized

d)

(4) An electron moves in an orbit with continuous loss of energy

44.

A 10 W bulb emits 400 nm radiation, the rate of emission of photons is (h = 6.626 ×10–34 Js)

a)

(1) 2 × 10^12

b)

(2) 5 × 10^15

c)

(3) 5 × 10^17

d)

(4) 2 × 10^19

45.

Which of the following set of quantum number is not possible?

a)

(1)

b)

(2)

c)

(3)

d)

(4)

46.

If the mole fraction of acetone in ethanol is 0.2 then molality of acetone in ethanol will be

a)

(1) 5.4 m

b)

(2) 6.8 m

c)

(3) 4.5 m

d)

(4) 7.2 m

47.

The wave number for the shortest wavelength transition in Paschen series of Li2+ ion is (R: 109677 cm–1)

a)

(1) 27420 cm–1

b)

(2) 164515 cm–1

c)

(3) 219354 cm–1

d)

(4) 109677 cm–1

48.

Consider the following reaction at equilibrium 2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) If helium is introduced at constant pressure then

a)

(1) Formation of NO2 will increase

b)

(2) Equilibrium constant of the reaction will change

c)

(3) Dissociation of NO2 will increase

d)

(4) There is no effect on equilibrium

49.

From 44 mg CO2, 10^20 molecules are removed calculate the moles of CO2 left (Use NA = 6 × 10^23)

a)

(1) 4.25 × 10–4

b)

(2) 8.3 × 10–4

c)

(3) 1.6 × 10–2

d)

(4) 4.4 × 10–2

50.

Maximum number of visible lines when an electron returns from 6th orbit to ground state in H spectrum will be

a)

(1) 5

b)

(2) 4

c)

(3) 6

d)

(4) 3

51.

20.0 g of an impure sample of calcium carbonate decomposes on heating to give 8.4 g calcium oxide. What is the percentage purity of calcium carbonate sample? (At. Wt. : Ca = 40)

a)

(1) 50

b)

(2) 75

c)

(3) 85

d)

(4) 95

52.

At equilibrium PCl5(g) dissociates 50%, then the value of (P + Kp) is (where P = total pressure at equilibrium)

a)

(1) 2P

b)

(2) 4P

c)

(3) P

d)

(4)

53.

The pKa of a weak acid HX and pKb of a weak base BOH are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively. The pH of the solution of salt BX will be

a)

(1) 8.005

b)

(2) 7.32

c)

(3) 7.005

d)

(4) 6.008

54.

Find out the correct statement(s) about moseley's work leading to modern periodic law.

a)

(1) Atomic number is more fundamental property than atomic mass

b)

(2) All of these

c)

(3)

d)

(4) where Z is atomic no. v is frequency of emitted x-rays

55.

If uncertainty in position and momentum of a moving particle is equal then uncertainty in its velocity will be

a)

(1)

b)

(2)

c)

(3)

d)

(4)

56.

Which of the following salt undergoes cationic hydrolysis?

a)

(1) NH4Cl

b)

(2) NaHCO3

c)

(3) NaNO3

d)

(4) NaCN

57.

Which of the following salt undergoes cationic hydrolysis?

a)

NH4Cl

b)

NaHCO3

c)

NaNO3

d)

NaCN

58.

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding following graph?

a)

The graph is for 2s orbital

b)

There are two radial nodes

c)

There are three spherical nodes

d)

Both (1) & (2)

59.

Number of significant figures in 100 pens is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

60.

In which of the following the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

a)

O < Te < Se < S (Electron affinity)

b)

In < Ga < Tl < B (First ionisation enthalpy)

c)

Si < Be < Mg < Na (Metallic nature)

d)

H– < F– < Cl– < Br– (Ionic radii)

61.

Number of radial and angular nodes present in 4d orbitals respectively are

a)

2 and 2

b)

2 and 1

c)

1 and 2

d)

3 and 2

62.

If for the dissociation of NH2COONH4(s), Kp is 32 atm3 then equilibrium pressure is

a)

2 atm

b)

4 atm

c)

32 atm

d)

6 atm

63.

If the equivalent weight of metal is 12, then the equivalent weight of its oxide will be

a)

16

b)

28

c)

20

d)

24

64.

The pH of 10–8 M HCl solution is

a)

8

b)

6

c)

3

d)

6.97

65.

Equal volumes of two strong acids having pH = 4 and pH = 6 are mixed. How much volume of this mixture is required to neutralise the 100 ml 0.2 N NaOH solution?

a)

3.96 litre

b)

3.96 ml

c)

3.96 × 10^5 ml

d)

3.96 × 10^6 ml

66.

A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionisation energies of element would be associated with which of the following electronic configuration?

a)

1s2 2s2, 2p6, 3s1

b)

1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1

c)

1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2

d)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2

67.

3 g of an oxide of metal is converted completely into its chloride having mass 5 g. Equivalent weight of metal will be

a)

8

b)

40

c)

35.55

d)

33.25

68.

The ionization potential of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Then, the ionization potential for the electron in the second excited state of He+ ion will be

a)

13.6 eV

b)

3.41 eV

c)

6.04 eV

d)

30.6 eV

69.

Number of oxygen molecules present in 1 equivalent of oxygen are (NA: Avogadro's number)

4 lines
70.

The percentage loss of mass by Na2SO4·10 H2O to become anhydrous is

a)

72.5%

b)

45.2%

c)

55.9%

d)

65.2%

71.

Angular momentum of electron in 5th orbit of hydrogen atom is given by

4 lines
72.

Maximum number of electrons in an atom having n + l + m = 3 is

a)

6

b)

2

c)

8

d)

4

73.

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion(A): Na+ and Al3+ are iso-electronic but ionic radius of Na+ is less than that of Al3+. Reason(R): The magnitude of effective nuclear charge on the outer shell electrons in Na+ is greater than that in Al3+. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

74.

The equilibrium constant of the reaction can be altered by

a)

Adding reactants

b)

Adding products

c)

Increasing volume

d)

Decreasing temperature

75.

Consider the following statements Statement-I: Gay Lussac’s Law of Gaseous Volumes: When gases combine or are produced in a chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio by volume provided that all gases are at same temperature and pressure. Statement-II: The volumes of H2(g) and O2(g) which combine together to form water bear a simple ratio of 2 : 1 In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a)

Statement I is false but statement II is true

b)

Both statements I and II are true

c)

Both statements I and II are false

d)

Statement I is true but statement II is false

76.

Correct order of first ionization enthalpy of the given elements is

a)

F > O > N > C

b)

N > F > O > C

c)

O > F > N > C

d)

F > N > O > C

77.

The ratio of the wavelength of the second line of Balmer series to the third line of Balmer series of H-atom is

a)

21 : 25

b)

28 : 25

c)

25 : 28

d)

21 : 17

78.

At 298 K, pH of a saturated solution of a diacidic base X(OH)2 is 11. The solubility product (Ksp) of X(OH)2 is

a)

5.0 × 10–10

b)

7.0 × 10–9

c)

7.0 × 10–8

d)

4.0 × 10–9

79.

For a diprotic weak acid (H2A) the value of Ka1 and Ka2 are 3 × 10–6 and 3 × 10–10 respectively. The pH of its 1M aqueous solution will be

a)

5.55

b)

3.74

c)

6.92

d)

2.76

80.

The first ionisation potential of Na, Mg and Si are respectively 496, 737 and 786 kJ/mol. The ionisation potential of Al will be closer to

a)

419 kJ/mol

b)

575 kJ/mol

c)

760 kJ/mol

d)

801 kJ/mol

81.

Which will make acidic buffer?

a)

100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 50 mL of 0.2 M NH4OH

b)

100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

c)

100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

d)

100 mL of 0.2 M HCl and 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH

82.

Covalency of aluminium in [AlCl(H2O)5]2+ is

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

83.

The value of IE1, IE2, IE3 and IE4 of a metal is xeV, 2xeV, 3xeV and 20xeV respectively. Then the formula of the metal sulphate is

a)

M2SO4

b)

M2(SO4)3

c)

MSO4

d)

M(SO4)2

84.

Which of the following is independent on the temperature?

a)

Normality

b)

(w/v)%

c)

Molality

d)

Molarity

85.

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) statements and select the correct option. Assertion: Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles. Reason: Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie perpendicular to each other and each has a cartwheel appearance.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

86.

Read below given features a. Stored food is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure. b. Complex post fertilization development occur. c. Absence of motile stage throughout their life cycle. d. Deepest dweller. Above given features are true for members of

a)

Chlorophyceae

b)

Phaeophyceae

c)

Rhodophyceae

d)

Chrysophytes

87.

Gemmae are

a)

Non-green

b)

Unicellular structure

c)

Asexual buds

d)

Present on sporophyte

88.

Which of the given is not seen in sporophyte of Equisetum?

a)

Strobilus

b)

Node

c)

Rhizome

d)

Floral bud

89.

Which of the given plants has flower of bilateral symmetry?

a)

Cassia

b)

Canna

c)

Datura

d)

Chilli

90.

Vascular cryptogams differ from amphibians of plant kingdom as former

a)

Have multicellular sex organs

b)

Have photosynthetic gametophyte

c)

Have sporophyte as dominant plant body

d)

Show zygotic meiosis

91.

Opposite phyllotaxy of leaves is found in

a)

Mustard, maize

b)

China rose, guava

c)

Calotropis, guava

d)

Nerium, Alstonia

92.

A : Artificial classification system separates the closely related species into different groups. R : Artificial classification system is based on few characters only.

a)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

d)

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

93.

The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions because of

a)

Dependence of gametophytes on sporophytes

b)

Gametophytes that require cool, damp and shady places to grow

c)

No need of water for fertilisation

d)

Sporophyte which can grow only in dry conditions

94.

Which of the following is not a moss?

a)

Funaria

b)

Salvinia

c)

Polytrichum

d)

Sphagnum

95.

If a capsule cell of Funaria has 10 chromosomes then number of chromosomes in its zygote and a rhizoid cell are respectively

a)

10, 5

b)

5, 10

c)

5, 5

d)

10, 10

96.

Classification system based upon gross superficial morphological characters

a)

Was given by Bentham and Hooker

b)

Was an artificial classification

c)

Consider various internal features also for classification of organisms

d)

Was mainly based upon evolutionary relationships among organisms

97.

Read the statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in only plant cells. Statement B:  Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles.

a)

Only statement A is correct

b)

Both statements A and B are correct

c)

Only statement B is correct

d)

Both statements A and B are incorrect

98.

Select the features which are common for both ER and Golgi apparatus.

a)

Only (b)

b)

Only (b) and (c)

c)

Only (a) and (d)

d)

All except (d)

99.

In five kingdom classification, how many kingdoms may have photosynthetic members but without membrane bound cell organelles?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

One

d)

Two

100.

Archaebacteria are dissimilar to eubacteria as the former have

a)

Peptidoglycan in their cell wall.

b)

Branched chain lipids in the membrane.

c)

Different sequences of 16S ribosomal RNA genes.

d)

All a, b and c

101.

The stem bear single leaf at each node in

a)

Sunflower

b)

Guava

c)

Calotropis

d)

Nerium

102.

Which of the given plants have superior ovary with axile placentation?

a)

Tomato

b)

Gram

c)

Mustard

d)

Tulip

e)

Petunia

103.

State True(T) or False(T) for the given statements w.r.t. the characters of algae and select the correct option. A. Most common asexual spores are non-flagellated. B. Some of the algae have association with animals. C. They are responsible for 50% of total photosynthesis on earth. D. Agar, an important commercial product is obtained from some brown algae.

a)

FFTT

b)

FTTF

c)

TFFT

d)

TTFF

104.

Consider the following statements regarding methanogens and select the correct option. A. They are obligate anaerobes B. Are responsible for production of a greenhouse gas from dung of ruminant animals C. Live in harsh habitats like extreme salty areas D. Are chemoautotrophs

a)

A, B and D are correct

b)

B and D are incorrect

c)

Only A and B are correct

d)

B, C and D are correct

105.

Given floral diagram is correct for

a)

Sesbania

b)

Indigofera

c)

Petunia

d)

Allium cepa

106.

A plant family to which a medicinal plant muliathi belongs

a)

Has bisexual and zygomorphic flowers

b)

Has inferior ovary

c)

Has endospermons seeds

d)

Has perianth

107.

How many of the given fungi belong to the class Basidiomycetes, Phycomycetes and Deuteromycetes, respectively? Saccharomyces, Mucor, Ustilago, Trichoderma, Bracket fungi, Alternaria, Colletotrichum, Albugo, Puffballs, Claviceps

a)

3, 2, 4

b)

2, 2, 4

c)

3, 2, 3

d)

3, 3, 3

108.

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding fungi?

a)

It is a unique kingdom of heterotrophic organisms

b)

They are mostly terrestrial

c)

They prefer to grow in warm & humid places

d)

They are always diploid with thalloid body

109.

Find the odd one out about epipetalous stamen

a)

In this condition stamen is attached to petal

b)

Stamen is attached to tepals

c)

This condition is present in chilli

d)

Potato and tomato also have epipetalous androecium

110.

Which one of the following is the correct statement for viroids?

a)

Protein capsid is present

b)

Infectious DNA particles

c)

Discovered by T.O. Diener

d)

Pathogenic only in animals

111.

Select the wrongly matched pair

a)

Plasmodesmata – Connects cytoplasm of neighbouring cells

b)

SER – Detoxification of drugs

c)

RER – Continuous with outer membrane of nucleus

d)

Primary cell wall – Incapable of growth

112.

A fungus ‘X’ with below given features should belong to the class a. Non-motile asexual spores b. Fruiting bodies absent c. Hyphae aseptate

a)

Deuteromycetes

b)

Ascomycetes

c)

Basidiomycetes

d)

Zygomycetes

113.

Aleurone layer in monocotyledonous seeds is

a)

Triploid and is part of scutellum

b)

Diploid and is part of endosperm

c)

Diploid and is part of endosperm

d)

Triploid and is part of endosperm

114.

is the floral formula of a plant family whose one of the members is

a)

Petunia

b)

Gloriosa

c)

Indigofera

d)

Trifolium

115.

Select the ones which are diploid. a. Aleurone layer of maize b. Pollen grain of pea. c. Embryo of Colocasia d. Plumule of wheat e. Seed coat of mango f. Endosperm of castor

a)

b, c & d

b)

c, d & e

c)

d, e & f

d)

All except a & f

116.

Select the correct option w.r.t sub-aerial weak stem that arises from the base of the main axis, grows aerially for some time and then arch downwards to touch the ground.

a)

Runner in grasses

b)

Sucker in pineapple

c)

Offset in mint

d)

Stolon in jasmine

117.

Both Neurospora and Claviceps form

a)

Endogenous asexual and exogenous sexual spores

b)

Conidia as asexual and basidiospore as sexual spore

c)

Zoospore as asexual and ascospore as sexual spore

d)

Exogenous asexual and endogenous sexual spores

118.

Stilt roots

a)

Support main axis in sugarcane

b)

Are helpful to get oxygen

c)

Grow vertically upwards

d)

Are modified for storage of food

119.

Number of peripheral microtubules in a flagellum and centriole is respectively

a)

18 and 27

b)

20 and 27

c)

9 and 27

d)

27 and 18

120.

In pitcher plant, pitcher is a modified

a)

Petiole

b)

Leaf base

c)

Lamina

d)

Leaf apex

121.

In a racemose inflorescence the main axis

a)

Bears a solitary flower

b)

Has unlimited growth

c)

Terminates in a flower

d)

Has limited growth & flowers grow in basipetal manner

122.

Which of the following roots grow against the direction of gravity?

a)

Prop roots

b)

Stilt roots

c)

Pneumatophores

d)

Storage root of radish