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WorksheetsPH-PHR 327 Diagnostic Examination
Total questions: 120
Worksheet time: 3600secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
Benzaldehyde is synthetic:
a)
Cinnamon oil
b)
Bitter almond oil
c)
Corn oil
d)
Rose oil
2.
Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence of:
a)
Organic acid
b)
Cationic surfactants
c)
Inorganic salts
d)
Soaps
3.
This is an effective antidote for the treatment of poisoning by copper:
a)
Penicillamine
b)
Dimercaprol
c)
Lugol’s solution
d)
Castellani’s paint
4.
Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents?
a)
Isoniazid
b)
Penicillin V
c)
Tetracycline
d)
Chloramphenicol
5.
Synthesized from dry hydrogen chloride and carbon monoxide at 300 degrees and 200 atm pressure:
a)
Tetrachloroethylene
b)
Piperazine
c)
None of the choices
6.
Carbonic acid gas:
a)
Oxygen
b)
Carbon dioxide
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Ammonia
7.
Compounds that result from a combination of electron donors with a metal ion to form a ring structure:
a)
Chelates
b)
Ligands
c)
None of the choices
8.
Kaopectate:
a)
Activated charcoal
b)
Atropine sulfate
c)
Attapulgite
d)
Kaolin + pectin
9.
Halazone is a/an:
a)
Iodophor
b)
Chlorine containing anti-infective
c)
Mercury containing anti-infective
d)
None of the choices
10.
Sulfonamides used for the treatment of burns:
a)
A. Mafenide
b)
B. Silver sulfadiazine
c)
None of the choices
11.
Benzylpenicillin is also known as:
a)
Penicillin G
b)
Penicillin V
c)
Oxacillin
d)
Ampicillin
12.
The generic name of new Merthiolate is:
a)
Chlorhexidine gluconate
b)
Thimerosal
c)
Mexachlorophene
d)
Benzalkonium chloride
13.
An example of a drug metabolized through the glycine conjugation pathway:
a)
Phenol to phenolsulfate
b)
Benzoic acid to hippuric acid
c)
Noradrenaline to epinephrine
d)
Antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid
14.
An example of a drug excreted via the saliva:
a)
Lidocaine
b)
Sulfamethoxazole
c)
Sulfadoxine
d)
Thiamine
15.
Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins give:
a)
Activity against Pseudomonas
b)
Acid stability
c)
Activity against Gram (-) bacteria
d)
Penicillinase resistance
16.
Propionic acid derivative:
a)
Paracetamol
b)
Dipyrone
c)
Piroxicam
d)
Naproxen
17.
Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:
a)
Polychlorinated biphenyls
b)
Acesulfame
c)
Butylated hydroxyanisole
d)
None of the choices
18.
Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?
a)
Imide
b)
Amide
c)
Amine
d)
Aniline
19.
Pentavalent antimony in the presence of hydrochloric acid gives a violet color with this pink dye:
a)
Rhodamine B
b)
Aluminon reagent
c)
p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol
d)
Dimethylglyoxime
20.
Which part of the flame is used for oxidation of substances dissolved in borax, sodium carbonate, and microcosmic salt?
a)
Lower oxidizing zone
b)
Upper oxidizing zone
c)
Lower reducing zone
d)
Upper reducing zone
21.
Prostaglandins are also known as:
a)
Saturated fats
b)
Compound lipids
c)
Eicosanoids
22.
MAO is classified as a/an:
a)
Protein inhibitor
b)
Complexing agent
c)
Enzyme
d)
Hormone
23.
All of the following are simple proteins except:
a)
Glutelins
b)
Albumins
c)
Globulins
d)
Glycoproteins
24.
Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the:
a)
Maturation of the osteoblast
b)
Collagen formation
c)
Reduction of inflammation
d)
Epithelial proliferation
25.
Noncompetitive inhibition:
a)
Displaces the substrate for the active site of the enzyme
b)
Binds to a site other than the active site
c)
Increases Km
26.
The order and sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide determines what protein structure?
a)
Primary
b)
Secondary
c)
Tertiary
d)
Quaternary
27.
Carbohydrates are
a)
Polyhydroxyaldehydes/ polyhydroxyketones
b)
Polyhydroxy acids
c)
Hemiacetals
d)
Polymers of amino acids
28.
The end product of the hydrolysis of glycogen is:
a)
Galactose
b)
Fructose
c)
Glucose
d)
Arabinose
29.
All are pyrimidine bases except:
a)
Guanine
b)
Uracil
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
30.
The transfer of genetic information from DNA by the formation of mRNA
a)
Transcription
b)
Transamination
c)
Translation
d)
Replication
31.
Fertility vitamin:
a)
Retinoic acid
b)
Riboflavin
c)
Alpha tocopherol
d)
Biotin
32.
Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for the enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from:
a)
Calcitonin
b)
Vitamin D2
c)
Vitamin D3
d)
Calcium phosphate
33.
Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:
a)
Potassium iodide
b)
Tyloxapol
c)
Guaifenesin
d)
Emetine
34.
The functional group in pyridoxine is:
a)
Alcohol
b)
Amine
c)
Carboxylic acid
d)
Ketone
35.
Lysergic acid diethylamide is:
a)
Derived from a mushroom
b)
A parasympathetic drug
c)
A histamine analog
d)
An ergot derivative
36.
Cevitamic acid is:
a)
Folic acid
b)
Ascorbic acid
c)
Nicotinic acid
d)
Glacial acetic acid
37.
Ma huang is a/an:
a)
Imidazole alkaloid
b)
Alkaloidal amine
c)
Purine
d)
Steroidal alkaloid
38.
A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:
a)
Starch
b)
Insulin
c)
Dextrose
d)
Dextran
39.
Rancidity of fats may be due to:
a)
Reduction to alcohols
b)
Hydrogenation
c)
Oxidation of double bonds
d)
Saponification
40.
The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vinblastine:
a)
Mayapple
b)
Periwinkle
c)
European year
d)
Datura alba
41.
If 300 mL of a 1:400 (v/v) solution were diluted to 600 mL, what would be the new ratio strength?
a)
A. 1:100
b)
B. 1:600
c)
C. 1:800
d)
D. 1:1000
42.
Category of medication error that causes temporary harm:
a)
Category C
b)
Category D
c)
Category E
d)
Category F
43.
Solution whose salt concentration is less than the salt concentration in a cell:
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Isotonic
c)
Hypertonic
d)
Eutonic
44.
On exposure to air, aminophylline solutions may develop:
a)
Pink coloration
b)
Crystals of theophylline
c)
Yellow coloration
d)
Heat
45.
Secondary literature consists of the following, except:
a)
Compiled databases
b)
Abstracts published in journals
c)
Textbooks
d)
None of the choices
46.
Which hormones regulates the level of blood sodium?
a)
Aldosterone
b)
Insulin
c)
Cortisol
d)
Thyroxine
47.
The deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes mellitus:
a)
Progesterone
b)
Testosterone
c)
Insulin
d)
Glucagon
48.
Buildup of urea in the blood is called:
a)
Ketonuria
b)
Uremia
c)
Glycemia
49.
It is a disease due to protein deficiency.
a)
Kwashiorkor
b)
Albuminuria
c)
Diabetes
d)
Jaundice
50.
Separates from cells when blood is coagulated:
a)
Fibrogen
b)
Thrombin
c)
Plasma
d)
Serum
51.
This compound is not a normal constituent of urine:
a)
Sodium chloride
b)
Urea
c)
Albumin
d)
Uric acid
52.
The major extracellular cation is:
a)
Potassium
b)
Calcium
c)
Sodium
d)
Iron
53.
A patient had an appendectomy 40 years ago. This information belongs in which section of the patient case?
a)
HPI
b)
FH
c)
PMH
d)
ROS
54.
Vital signs include all of the following except:
a)
Blood pressure
b)
Respiratory rate
c)
Cardiac output
d)
Heart rate
55.
Infection acquired after at least 2 days in the hospital
a)
Nosocomial
b)
Superinfection
c)
Superficial infection
d)
Secondary infection
56.
What would be the hierarchy of evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM), given the following:I. Observational studies<br />II. Randomized clinical trials<br />III. Systematic review<br />IV. Expert opinion
a)
I<III<II<IV
b)
IV<I<II<III
c)
IV<III<II<I
d)
I<II<III<IV
57.
A patient’s states that he has smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years. What is the patient’s pack-year smoking history?
a)
2 pack-years
b)
30 pack-years
c)
15 pack-years
d)
60 pack-years
58.
A medication order for a 10-month old infant weighing 8kg calls for 800 mcg papertabs per dose. The available preparation contains 40 mg per 80 mg tablet. How many papertabs can the pharmacist prepare from one tablet?
a)
50 pptabs
b)
75 pptabs
c)
100 pptabs
d)
125 pptabs
59.
Acetazolamide sodium is available in 500 mg vials, to be reconstituted in 5 mL Sterile Water for Injection, USP. The child dose is 5 mg/kg body weight. How many mL of the reconstituted drug should be given to a child weighing 25 lbs?
a)
0.50 mL
b)
0.52 mL
c)
0.54 mL
d)
0.57 mL
60.
How many mL is needed to give 6000 U of an anti-diptheria serum given a stock solution of 10000 U/ 5 mL
a)
1.5 mL
b)
3 mL
c)
4.5 mL
d)
6 mL
61.
Anesthetic of choice for labor:
a)
Halothane
b)
Enflurane
c)
Nitrous oxide
d)
Methoxyflurane
62.
Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:
a)
Short acting
b)
Intermediate acting
c)
Long acting
d)
Ultra-short acting
63.
Diamox has a generic name of:
a)
Allopurinol
b)
Acetazolamide
c)
Dimethylxanthine
d)
Theophylline
64.
Epinephrine is also known as:
a)
Tocopherol
b)
Adrenaline
c)
Emetine
d)
Levarterenol
65.
Zantac is:
a)
Cimetidine
b)
Famotidine
c)
Ranitidine
d)
Nizatidine
66.
The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:
a)
An androgen and a progestin
b)
An estrogen and progestin
c)
An androgen and an estrogen
d)
FSH and LH
67.
Which of the following actions of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonist:
a)
Redness
b)
Increase in gastric secretions
c)
Inflammation
d)
Itchiness
68.
A diuretic that is a pharmacologic antagonist of aldosterone:
a)
Triamterene
b)
Spironolactone
c)
Furosemide
d)
Chlorothiazide
69.
These are calcium channel blockers, except:
a)
Verapamil
b)
Nifedipine
c)
Atenolol
d)
Diltiazem
70.
Levodopa is used in the treatment of:
a)
Leukemia
b)
Alzheimer’s disease
c)
Parkinson’s disease
d)
Tay-Sachs’ disease
71.
Throbbing headache is characteristically produced by which of the following drugs?
a)
Procainamide
b)
Glyceryl trinitrate
c)
Propranolol
d)
Nifedipine
72.
Activation of adenylyl cyclase is commonly a result of:
a)
Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors
b)
Inhibition of beta-1 receptors
c)
Stimulation of beta-2 receptors
d)
Stimulation of alpha-2 receptors
73.
The following are characteristics of active transport, except:
a)
Follow saturation kinetics
b)
Expenditure of energy
c)
Carrier mediated
d)
Higher to lower concentration gradient
74.
The excretion of weakly basic drug will be more rapid in acidic urine than in basic urine because:
a)
All drugs are excreted more rapidly in acidic urine
b)
The drug will exist primarily in the unionized form, which cannot easily be reabsorbed
c)
Weak bases cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
d)
The drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which cannot be easily reabsorbed
75.
This refers to the maximum effect a drug can produce, regardless of the dose required to produce the effect
a)
Drug potency
b)
Drug threshold
c)
Drug efficacy
d)
Drug response
76.
Drug X, an IV drug with a half-life of 12 hours, is administered to the patient. What is the amount of drug X left in the body after 2 days?
a)
0.0625
b)
0.125
c)
0.25
d)
0.03125
77.
Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by:
a)
Acetylation
b)
Deamination
c)
Oxidation
d)
Methylation
78.
Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:
a)
Ototoxic
b)
Hyperglycemic
c)
Goitrogenic
d)
Hepatotoxic
79.
This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol:
a)
NO2 group
b)
OH group
c)
NH2 group
d)
COOH group
80.
Antidote for zinc poisoning:
a)
Magnesium sulfate
b)
Magnesium hydroxide
c)
Sodium bicarbonate
d)
Sodium carbonate
81.
Step in sugar coating that adds the most weight
a)
Seal coating
b)
Subcoating
c)
Grossing
d)
Polishing
82.
Delayed action tablet that remains intact in the stomach but releases contents in the intestines
a)
Sugar coated
b)
Film coated
c)
Enteric coated
d)
Air suspension coated
83.
Surfactant with HLB value of 5 can be used as
a)
Anti-foaming
b)
W/O emulsifier
c)
Wetting agent
d)
O/W emulsifier
84.
Type of gelatin from alkali processing
a)
Type A
b)
Type B
c)
Type C
d)
Type D
85.
Tabletting defect that causes the removal of the tablet’s surface by a punch
a)
Picking
b)
Sticking
c)
Chipping
d)
Ratholing
86.
Mixer with two intermeshing blades
a)
Planetary mixer
b)
Tumbler
c)
Sigma mixer
d)
Fluid bed granulator
87.
The following are preservatives except:
a)
Undecylenic acid
b)
Methyl paraben
c)
Benzoic acid
d)
Potassium sorbate
88.
When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol are as a/an:
a)
Humectant
b)
Demelanizing agent
c)
Antioxidant
d)
Emulsifying agent
89.
An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:
a)
Acetic acid
b)
Lactic acid
c)
Tartaric acid
d)
Citric acid
90.
Mixing technique to make eutectic mixtures
a)
Spatulation
b)
Trituration
c)
Geometric dilution
d)
Tumbling
91.
Ointment base that is the most occlusive
a)
Hydrocarbon
b)
Absorption
c)
Water-removable
d)
Water-soluble
92.
Container of choice for ointments
a)
Jar
b)
Can
c)
Wide-mouth bottle
d)
Collapsible tube
93.
Saturated solution of NaCl boils at 227.1 oF. What is this in the centigrade scale?
a)
108.4
b)
104.5
c)
107.8
d)
105.6
94.
Geometric pattern shown by sucrose
a)
Cubic
b)
Tetrahedral
c)
Hexagonal
d)
Monoclinic
95.
Used to express the rate at which a solid dissolves in a solvent
a)
Fick’s Law
b)
Noyes-Whitney
c)
Stokes Law
d)
Gay-Lussac Law
96.
Force of attraction between permanent dipoles
a)
Keesom
b)
Debye
c)
London
d)
None of the choices
97.
How many grams of NaCl is in 30 mL of an isotonic solution?
a)
0.145
b)
0.27
c)
0.65
d)
0.843
98.
Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
a)
RA 9165
b)
RA 9711
c)
RA 10918
d)
RA 9502
99.
FDA Act
a)
RA 9165
b)
RA 9711
c)
RA 10918
d)
RA 9502
100.
Philippine Pharmacy Act
a)
RA 9165
b)
RA 9711
c)
RA 10918
d)
RA 9502
101.
Iodine value for oils measures
a)
Phenol content
b)
Saturation
c)
Unsaponifiable matter
d)
Unsaturation
102.
Reducing agent
a)
Dichromate
b)
Bromate
c)
Permanganate
d)
Thiosulfate
103.
Determination of organic nitrogen
a)
Acetylation
b)
Kjeldahl method
c)
Bisulfite method
d)
Sulfonization
104.
Method I of moisture content determination
a)
Karl Fischer titration
b)
Azeotropic distillation
c)
Gravimetry
d)
Cold extraction
105.
Masking agent for assay of Mg using Na EDTA
a)
Triethanolamine
b)
Thioglycol
c)
Potassium cyanide
d)
Ammonium fluoride
106.
USP dissolution apparatus number 5
a)
Paddle
b)
Reciprocating holder
c)
Paddle over disk
d)
Flow through cell
107.
Used to determine the optical rotation of a chiral molecule
a)
Polarimeter
b)
Abbe refractometer
c)
Potentiometer
d)
Fluorimeter
108.
IR fingerprint region is
a)
Near IR
b)
Medium IR
c)
Far IR
d)
Medium-far IR
109.
Cuvette used in UV-Vis spectroscopy
a)
Glass
b)
Plastic
c)
Quartz
d)
Graphite
110.
Functional group that absorbs energy to give off color
a)
Pharmacophore
b)
Chromophore
c)
Auxochrome
d)
Active site
111.
Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:
a)
Pen V
b)
Methicillin
c)
Carbenicillin
d)
Oxacillin
112.
Polyene antibiotics include:
a)
Nystatin
b)
Amphotericin B
c)
Griseofulvin
113.
Which one of the following is a laboratory test for fungal skin infections?
a)
Rapid plasma reagin test
b)
Venereal disease research laboratory test
c)
Potassium hydroxide preparation
d)
White blood cell count with differential
114.
Which anti-infective is known to cause kernicterus?
a)
Sulfonamides
b)
Chloramphenicol
c)
Penicillin
d)
Macrolides
115.
Antitubercular drug that causes retrobulbar neuritis:
a)
INH
b)
RIF
c)
PZA
d)
EMB
116.
Mode of transmission of gastrointestinal infection:
a)
Dust
b)
Consumption of contaminated food and water
c)
Respiratory droplets
d)
Insect bites
117.
This is prevention taken to avoid emergence of disease by establishing social, economic, and cultural patterns of living in a larger society:
a)
Primordial prevention
b)
Primary prevention
c)
Secondary prevention
d)
Tertiary prevention
118.
Mitigation of disability
a)
Primordial prevention
b)
Primary prevention
c)
Secondary prevention
d)
Tertiary prevention
119.
Inanimate able to harbor and transmit microorganisms
a)
Mite
b)
Fomite
c)
Arthropod
d)
Vector
120.
Dengue vector
a)
Plasmodium
b)
Aedes
c)
Anopheles
d)
Ixodes
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