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Barron's study guide PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In what way might a behaviorist disagree with a cognitive psychologist about the cause of aggression?

a)

A behaviorist might state that aggression is caused by memories or ways we think about aggressive behavior, while a cognitive psychologist might say aggression is caused by a past repressed experience.

b)

A behaviorist might state that aggression is a behavior encouraged by our genetic code, while a cognitive psychologist might state that aggression is caused by memories or ways we think about aggressive behavior.

c)

A behaviorist might state that aggression is caused by past rewards for aggressive behavior, while a cognitive psychologist might believe aggressive behavior is caused by an expressed desire to fulfill certain life needs.

d)

A behaviorist might state that aggression is caused by past rewards for aggressive behavior, while a cognitive psychologist might believe aggression is caused by memories or ways we think about aggressive behavior.

e)

A behaviorist would not disagree with a cognitive psychologist about aggression because they both that aggressive behavior is caused by the way we cognitively process certain behaviors.

2.

Dr. Marco explains to a client that his feelings of hostility toward a coworker are most likely caused by the way the client interprets the coworker's actions and the way he thinks that people should behave at work. Dr. Marco is most likely working from what perspective?

a)

behavioral

b)

cognitive

c)

psychoanalytic

d)

humanist

e)

social-cultural

3.

The research methodology Wilhem Wundt used is called

a)

introspection

b)

structuralism

c)

naturalistic observation

d)

inferential

e)

scientific

4.

Which of the following psychologists wrote the first psychology textbook?

a)

William James

b)

Wilhem Wundt

c)

B.F. Skinner

d)

John Watson

e)

Albert Bandura

5.

Which of the following psychologists was part of the Gestalt group of psychologists?

a)

Carl Rogers

b)

Wilhem Wundt

c)

B.F. Skinner

d)

John Watson

e)

Max Wertheimer

6.

Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory has been criticized for being

a)

appropriate for female patients, but not male patients.

b)

only applicable to research settings, not therapy settings.

c)

based on large groups, not individual cases.

d)

unscientific and unverifiable.

e)

too closely tied to behavioristic thought.

7.

B.F. Skinner introduced the idea of __________ to the paradigm of behaviorism.

a)

unconscious thinking

b)

reinforcement

c)

conditioning

d)

defense mechanisms

e)

introspection

8.

Which of the following psychologists might have described himself as a humanist?

a)

B.F. Skinner

b)

William James

c)

Abraham Maslow

d)

John Watson

e)

Ivan Pavlov

9.

Psychologists generally prefer the experimental method to other research methods because

a)

experiments are more likely to support psychologists' hypotheses

b)

experiments can show cause-effect relationships

c)

it is easier to obtain a random sample for an experiment

d)

double-blind designs are unnecessary in an experiment

e)

experiments are more likely to result in statistically significant findings

10.

Theoretically, random assignment should eliminate

a)

sampling error

b)

the need to use statistics.

c)

concerns over validity

d)

many confounding variables

e)

the need for a representative sample

11.

charlotte and tamar are lab partners assigned to research who is friendlier, girls or boys. After conversing with their first 10 participants, they find that their friendliness ratings often differ. With which of the following should they be most concerned?

a)

reliability

b)

confounding variables

c)

ethics

d)

validity

e)

assignment

12.

Which of the following hypotheses would be most difficult to test experimentally?

a)

People exposed to the color red will be more aggressive than those exposed to the color blue.

b)

Exercise improves mood.

c)

Exposure to violent television increases aggreSsion.

d)

Studying leads to better grades.

e)

Divorce makes children more independent.

13.

Professor Ma wants to design a project studying emotional response to date rape. He advertises for participants in the school newspaper, informs them about the nature of the study, gets their consent, conducts an interview, and debriefs them about the results when the experiment is over. If you were on the IRB, which ethical consideration would you most likely have the most concern about in Professor Ma's study?

a)

coercion

b)

deception

c)

confounding variables

d)

anonymity

e)

clear scientific purpose

14.

Some psychologists consider Stanley Milgram's obedience studies to be unethical because of which ethical consideration?

a)

improper sampling procedure

b)

risk of long-term harm

c)

dear scientific purpose

d)

debriefing

e)

anonymity

15.

Tamar scored 145 on an IQ test with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. What is her z score?

a)

-3

b)

-1.5

c)

+0.67

d)

1.5

e)

+3

16.

emma scores a perfect 100' on a test that everyone else fails. If we were to graph this distribution, it would be

a)

symmetrical

b)

normal

c)

positively skewed.

d)

negatively skewed

e)

a straight line.

17.

Jose hypothesizes that a new drug he has just invent~dwill enhance mice's memories. He feeds the drug to the experimental group and gives the control group a placebo. He then times the mice as they learn to run through a maze. In order to know whether his hypothesis has been supported, Jose would need to use

a)

scatter plots.

b)

descriptive statistics

c)

histograms

d)

inferential statistics

e)

means-end analysis.

18.

Which of the following is an example of random sampling? I. Picking out of a hat to assign each of three classes to an experimental condition. II. Having a computer generate a random list of 100 high school students. III. Approaching any 50 students during sixth-period lunch.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II, and III

19.

talia collects survey data that indicates that students who spend more time

preparing for the AP test tend to score better than other students. Jen can

now conclude that

a)

studying improves exam grades.

b)

a relationship exists between studying and exam grades.

c)

a significant correlation exists between studying and exam grades

d)

anyone who does not study will do poorly on the exam

e)

better students tend to study more

20.

According to the theory of evolution, why might we call some parts of the brain the old brain and some parts the new brain?

a)

Old brain parts are what exist in very young children, and the new brain develops later

b)

The old brain developed first according to evolution.

c)

The old brain becomes more active as we grow older

d)

The new brain deals with new information, while the old brain deals with information gathered when we were children.

e)

The old brain is most affected by age deterioration (dementias) while the new brain remains unaffected.

21.

Deafness can result from damage to the inner ear or damage to what area of the brain?

a)

connections between the auditory nerve and the auditory cortex in the frontal lobe

b)

Connections between the auditory nerve and the auditory cortex in the temporal lobe.

c)

connections between the areas of the sensory cortex that receive messages from the ears and the auditory cortex

d)

connections between the hypothalamus and the auditory cortex in the temporal lobe

e)

connections between the left and right sensory areas oof the cerebellum

22.

which chemicals pass across the synaptic gap and increase the possibility the next neuron in the chain will fire?

a)

synaptic peptides

b)

inhibitory neurotransmitters

c)

adrenaline-type exciters

d)

excitatory neurotransmitters

e)

potassium and sodium

23.

the three major categories researchers use to organize the entire brain are the:

a)

old brain, new brain, and cerebral cortex

b)

lower, middle, and upper brain

c)

hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain

d)

brain stem, lambic system, and cerebral cortex

e)

neurons, synapses, and cerebral cortex

24.

Antidepressant drugs like Prozac are often used to treat mood disorders. according to what you know about their function,who neurotransmitter system do these type of drugs try to affect ?

a)

serotonin

b)

adrenaline

c)

acetylcholine

d)

endomorhins

e)

morphine

25.

Dr. Dahab, a brain researcher, is investigating the connection between certain environmental stimuli and brain process. which types of brain scans is he most likely to use?

a)

MRI and CAT

b)

CAT and EKG

c)

PET and EEG

d)

EKG and CAT

e)

lesion ing and MRI

26.

split-brain patients are unable to

a)

coordinate movements between their major and minor muscle groups.

b)

speak about information received exclusively in their right hemisphere.

c)

speak about information received exclusively in their left hemisphere.

d)

solve abstract problems involving integrating logical (left-hemisphere) and spatial (right-hemisphere) information

e)

speak about information received exclusively through their left ear, left eye, or left side of their bodies.

27.

Mr. Spam is a 49- year old- male who has been brought into your neurology clinic by his wife. she has become increasingly alarmed by her husband's behavior over the last four months. you recommend a CAT scan to look for tumors in the brain. which two parts of the brain would you predict are being affected by the tumors?list of symptoms: vastly increased appetite, body temperature fluctuations, decreased sexual desire, jerky movements, poor balance when walking and standing, inability to throw objects, and exaggerated efforts to coordinate movements in a task

a)

motor cortex and emotion cortex

b)

somato-sensory cortex and hypothalamus

c)

hypothalamus and cerebellum

d)

cerebellum and medulla

e)

thalamus and motor cortex

28.

in most people, which of following is a specific function of the left hemisphere that is typically not controlled by the right hemisphere?

a)

producing speech

b)

control of the left hand

c)

spatial reasoning

d)

hypothesis testing

e)

abstract reasoning

29.

Agonists are psychoactive drugs that

a)

produce tolerance to the drug without the associated withdrawal symptoms

b)

mimic and produce the same effect as neurotransmitters

c)

mimic neurotransmitters and block their receptor sites

d)

enhance the effects of certain opiates like heroin

e)

make recovery from physical addiction more difficult

30.

In comparison with older people babies

a)

sleep more fitfully; they tend to wake up more often

b)

sleep more deeply; they spend more time in stage 3 and 4 sleep.

c)

spend more time in the REM stage than other sleep stages

d)

spend more time in stage 1, which causes them to awaken easily

e)

sleep more than young adults but less than people over 50

31.

Which of the following is the best analogy for how psychologists view consciousness?

a)

the on/off switch on a computer

b)

a circuit breaker that controls power to a house

c)

a fuse that allows electricity to pass through until a short circuit occurs

d)

a dimmer switch for a light fixture

e)

the ignitions switch on a car

32.

Deep or slow wave sleep is associated with which type(s) of brain waves?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

delta

d)

alpha and beta

e)

beta and delta

33.

Activation-synthesis theory tries to explain

a)

how conscious emerges out of neural firings

b)

how psychoactive drugs create euphoric effects

c)

the origin and function of dreams

d)

how our mind awakens us after we pass through all the stages of sleep

e)

how our consciousness synthesizes all the sensory information it receives

34.

Which of the following tends to increase during a typical night's sleep in an adult?

a)

night terrors

b)

deep sleep

c)

delta waves

d)

dreaming

e)

sleep talking

35.

Which neurotransmitter is affected by opiates?

a)

serotonin

b)

endorphins

c)

dopamine

d)

GABA

e)

acetylcholine

36.

The information-processing theory says that dreams

a)

are meaningless by-products of how our brains process information during REM sleep

b)

are symbolic representations of the information we encode during the day

c)

are processed by one level of consciousness but other levels remain unaware of the dreams

d)

occur during REM sleep as the brain deals with daily stress and events

e)

occurs only after stressful events, explaining why some people never dream

37.

Which level of consciousness controls involuntary body processes?

a)

preconscious level

b)

subconscious level

c)

unconscious level

d)

autonomic level

e)

non conscious level

38.

Our sense of smell may be a powerful trigger for memories because

a)

we are conditioned from birth to make strong connections between smells and events

b)

the nerve connecting the olfactory bulb sends impulses directly to the limbic system

c)

the receptors at the top of each nostril connects with the cortex

d)

smell is a powerful cue for encoding memories into long-term memory

e)

strong smells encourage us to process events deeply so that they will most likely be remembered

39.

The cochlea is responsible for

a)

protecting the surface of the eye

b)

transmitting vibrations received by the eardrum to the hammer, anvil, and stirrup

c)

transforming vibrations into neural signals

d)

coordinating impulses from the rods and cones to the retina

e)

sending messages to the brain about orientation of head and body

40.

Smell and taste are called _____________ because ________________

a)

energy senses; they send impulses to the brain in the form of electric energy

b)

chemical senses; they detect chemicals in what we taste and smell

c)

flavor senses; smell and taste combine to create flavor

d)

chemical senses; they send impulses to the brain in the form of chemicals

e)

memory sense; they both have powerful connections to memory

41.

Weber's law determines

a)

absolute threshold

b)

focal length of the eye

c)

level of subliminal messages

d)

amplitude of sound waves

e)

Just-noticeable difference

42.

If you had sight in only one eye, which of the following depth cues could you NOT use?

a)

texture gradient

b)

convergence

c)

linear perspective

d)

interposition

e)

shading

43.

What function does the retina serve?

a)

The retina contains the visual receptor cells

b)

The retina focuses light coming in the eye through the lens.

c)

The retina determines how much light is let into the eye.

d)

The retina determines which rods and cones will be activated by incoming light.

e)

The retina connects the two optic nerves and sends impulses to the left and right visual cortices.

44.

Color blindness and color after images are best represented by what theory of color vision?

a)

trichromatic theory

b)

visible hue theory

c)

opponent process theory

d)

dichromatic theory

e)

binocular disparity theory

45.

You are shown a picture of your grandfather's face, but the eyes and mouth are blocked out. You still recognize it as a picture of your grandfather. Which type of processing best explains this example of perception?

a)

bottom-up processing

b)

signal detection theory

c)

top-down processing

d)

opponent processing theory

e)

gestalt replacement theory

46.

What behavior would be difficult without vestibular sense?

a)

integrating what we see and hear

b)

writing our name

c)

repeating a list of digits

d)

walking in a straight line with our eyes closed

e)

reporting to a researcher exact position and orientation of our limbs

47.

Which of the following sentences best describes the relationship between culture and perception?

a)

Our perceptual rules are inborn and not affected by culture

b)

Perceptual rules are culturally based, so rules that apply to one culture rarely apply to another

c)

MOst perceptual rules apply in all cultures, but some perceptual rules are learned and vary between cultures

d)

Slight variations in sensory appearances among cultures create slight differences in perception

e)

The process involved in perception are generically based, on genetic differences among cultures affect perception.

48.

Try as you might, you are unable to teach

your dog to do a somersault. He will roll

around on the ground, but he refuses to

execute the gymnastic move you desire

because of

a)

equipotentiiality

b)

preparedness

c)

instinctive drift

d)

chaining

e)

shaping

49.

Which of the following is an example of a generalized reinforcer?

a)

chocolate cake

b)

water

c)

money

d)

applause

e)

high grades

50.

The classical conditioning training procedure in which the US is presented before the CS is known as

a)

backward conditioning

b)

aversive conditioning

c)

simultaneous conditioning

d)

delayed conditioning

e)

trace conditioning

51.

Tina likes to play with slugs, but she can find them by the shed only after it rains. On what kind of reinforcement schedule is Tina's slug hunting?

a)

continuous

b)

fixed-interval

c)

fixed-ratio

d)

variable-interval

e)

variable-ratio

52.

When Tito was young, his parents decided to give him a quarter every day he made his bed. Tito started to make his siblings' beds also and help with other chores. Behaviorists would say that Tito was experiencing

a)

internal motivation

b)

spontaneous recovery

c)

acquisition

d)

generalization

e)

discrimination

53.

A rat evidencing abstract learning might learn

a)

to clean and feed itself by watching its mother perform these activities

b)

to associate its handler's presence with feeding time

c)

to press a bar when a light is on but not when its cage is dark

d)

the layout of a maze without hurrying to get to the end

e)

to press a lever when he sees pictures of dogs but not cats

54.

With which statement would B.F. Skinner most likely agree?

a)

Pavlov's dog learned to expect that food would follow the bell

b)

Baby Albert thought the white rat meant the loud noise would sound

c)

all learning is observable

d)

pigeons peck disks knowing that they will receive food

e)

cognition plays an important role in learning

55.

Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement?

a)

buying a child a video game after she throws a tantrum

b)

going inside to escape a thunder storm

c)

assigning a student detention for fighting

d)

getting a cavity filled at the dentist to halt a tooth ache

e)

depriving a prison inmate of sleep

56.

Lilly keeps poking Jared in Mr. Clayton's third-grade class. Mr. Clayton tells Jared to ignore Lilly. Mr. Clayton is hoping that ignoring Lilly's behavior will

a)

punish her

b)

extinguish the behavior

c)

negatively reinforce the behavior

d)

cause Lilly to generalize

e)

make the behavior latent

57.

Phonemes and morphemes refer to

a)

elements of telegraphic speech toddlers use.

b)

elements of language.

c)

building blocks of concepts

d)

basic elements of memories stored in long-term memory.

e)

two types of influences language has on thought according to the linguistic relativity hypothesis.

58.

Which example would be better explained by the levels of processing model than the information-processing model?

a)

Someone says your name across the room and you switch your attention away from the conversation you are having.

b)

You forget part of a list you were trying to memorize for a test.

c)

While visiting with your grandmother, you recall one of your favorite childhood toys.

d)

You are able to remember verbatim a riddle you worked on for a few days before you figured out the answer.

e)

You pay less attention to the smell of your neighbor's cologne than to the professor's lecture in your college class.

59.

Contrary to what Whorf's linguistic relativity hypothesis originally predicted, what effect does recent research indicate language has on the way we think?

a)

Since we think in language, the language we understand limits what we have the ability to think about.

b)

Language is a tool of thought but does not limit our cognition.

c)

The labels we apply affect our thoughts.

d)

The words in each language affect our ability to think because we are restricted to the words each language uses

e)

The linguistic relativity hypothesis predicts that how quickly we acquire language correlates with our cognitive ability.

60.

Which of the following is an effective method for testing whether a memory is actually true or whether it is a constructed memory?

a)

checking to see whether it was deeply processed or shallowly processed

b)

testing to see if the memory was encoded from sensory memory into working memory

c)

using a PET scan to see if the memory is stored in the hippocampus

d)

using other evidence, such as written records, to substantiate the memory

e)

there is no way to tell the difference between a true memory and a constructed one

61.

One of the ways memories are physically stored in the brain is by what process?

a)

deep processing, which increases levels of neurotransmitters in the hippocampus

b)

encoding, which stimulates electric activity in the hippocampus

c)

long-term potentiation, which strengthens connections between neurons

d)

selective attention, which increases myelination of memory neurons

e)

rehearsal, which causes the brain to devote more neurons to what is being rehearsed

62.

According to the nativist theory, language is acquired

a)

by parents reinforcing correct language use.

b)

using an inborn ability to learn language at a certain developmental stage.

c)

best in the language and culture native to the child and parents.

d)

only if formal language instruction is provided in the child's native language.

e)

best through the phonics instructional method, because children retain how to pronounce all the phonemes required for the language.

63.

According to the three-box/information-processing model, stimuli from our outside environment is first stored in

a)

working memory.

b)

the hippocampus.

c)

the thalamus.

d)

sensory memory.

e)

selective attention.

64.

Which of the following is the best example of the use of the availability heuristic?

a)

judging a situation by a rule that is usually, but not always, true

b)

making a judgment according to past experiences that are most easily recalled

c)

judging that a problem should be solved using a formula that guarantees the right answer

d)

making a judgment according to what is usually true in your experience

e)

solving a problem by breaking it into more easily available parts

65.

Which sentence most accurately describes sensory memory?

a)

Sensory memory stores all sensory input perfectly accurately for a short period of time.

b)

Sensory memory encodes only sensations we are attending to at the time.

c)

Sensory memory receives memories from the working memory and decides which memories to encode in long-term memory

d)

Sensory memory records all incoming sensations and remembers them indefinitely.

e)

Sensory memory records some recorded incorrectly, leading to constructive memory.

66.

Recall is a more difficult process than recognition because

a)

memories retrieved by recognition are held in working memory, and recalled memories are in long-term memory.

b)

memories retrieved by recognition are more deeply processed.

c)

the process of recall involves cues to the memory that causes interference.

d)

memories retrieved by recognition are more recent than memories retrieved by recall.

e)

the process of recognition involves matching a person, event, or object with something already in memory.

67.

Which of the following would be the best piece of evidence for the nativist theory of language acquisition?

a)

a child who acquires language at an extremely early age through intense instruction by her or his parents

b)

statistical evidence that children in one culture learn language faster than children in another culture

c)

a child of normal mental ability not being able to learn language due to language deprivation at an early age

d)

a child skipping the babbling and telegraphic speech stages of language acquisition

e)

a child deprived of language at an early age successfully learning language later

68.

A friend mentions to you that she heard humans never forget anything; we remember everything that ever happens to us. What concept from memory research most directly contradicts this belief?

a)

sensory memory

b)

selective attention

c)

long-term memory

d)

constructive memory

e)

recovered memory

69.

Which of the following is not one of Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences?

a)

practical

b)

musical

c)

interpersonal

d)

spatial

e)

linguistic

70.

Astor scores at the 84th percentile on the WISC. Which number most closely expresses his IQ?

a)

85

b)

110

c)

115

d)

120

e)

130

71.

Spearman argued that intelligence could be boiled down to one ability known as

a)

s

b)

i

c)

g

d)

a

e)

x

72.

The Flynn effect is the finding that

a)

intelligence seems to increase with every generation.

b)

television has decreased intellectual performance.

c)

linguistic skills decline with age.

d)

within-group differences are larger than between-group differences.

e)

the more times people take a test, the better they tend to score.

73.

Desmond believes that nature is far more important in shaping personality than nurture. Desmond probably believes in the strong influence of

a)

environment

b)

learning

c)

reinforcement

d)

genetics

e)

culture

74.

Some researchers consider developmental psychology an applied research topic because

a)

it is more easily applied to people's lives than research such as behaviorism.

b)

researchers apply findings and theories from other areas of psychology to the specific topic of human development.

c)

it is more commonly studied by a graduate student rather than an undergraduate because of the applications for other research.

d)

doing original research in this area is difficult, so most of the research is about application.

e)

pure research is difficult to gain support for, especially when a researcher needs to recruit children as participants.

75.

Most prenatal influences on humans are genetic or hormonal in origin except for

a)

teratogens

b)

stress on the mother.

c)

parents' level of education about fetal development.

d)

family history of mental illness.

e)

operant conditioning occurring before birth.

76.

Parental involvement can have dramatic effects on all the following human traits except

a)

intelligence

b)

reading ability.

c)

self-esteem

d)

motor development

e)

emotional development

77.

A principal difference between a longitudinal study and a cross-sectional study is the

a)

number of participants involved.

b)

developmental stage of the participants.

c)

time span of the study

d)

statistical methods employed to evaluate the data.

e)

sampling method used to choose participants.

78.

Harlow's experiments with substitute mothers made of wire demonstrated the importance of what aspect of nurturing?

a)

feeding

b)

responsiveness to needs

c)

imprinting

d)

touch

e)

stranger anxiety

79.

According to research, the most advantageous parenting style for children's development is

a)

authoritarian, because children learn boundaries quickly and appreciate consistency.

b)

permissive, because young children need to explore the environment more than they need guidelines for behavior.

c)

authoritarian, because it combines the best elements of the permissive and authoritativestyles.

d)

securely attached, because children are confident parents will meet their needs.

e)

authoritative, because children have boundaries that are reasonable and justified.

80.

A major difference between the psychoanalytic stage theories (Freud and Erikson) and the more cognitive or experiential stage theories (Piaget and Kohlberg) is

a)

the psychoanalytic theories are less empirical.

b)

the psychoanalytic theories were based exclusively on data from children with developmentaldisorders.

c)

Freud and Erikson studied only young children, while Piaget and Kohlberg studied the full range of development

d)

only the psychoanalytic theories take parental effects into account.

e)

the psychoanalytic theories are continuous, the others are discontinuous.

81.

You have a cousin named Holden who flunked out of three expensive private schools and was arrested for wandering the streets of New York using his parents' credit card. Holden is intelligent but cannot seem to get motivated toward any career. What conflict would Erikson say Holden is struggling with?

a)

autonomy versus authority

b)

identity versus role confusion

c)

integrity versus despair

d)

industry versus inferiority

e)

trust versus isolation

82.

In which stage of cognitive development do infants learn object permanence?

a)

pre operational

b)

formal-operations

c)

autonomy

d)

sensorimotor

e)

conventional

83.

The ability to generate several alternate hypotheses in order to explain a phenomenon demonstrates cognition in which of the following Piagetian stages?

a)

operational

b)

hypothetical-operations

c)

syllogistic

d)

formal-operations

e)

abstract reasoning

84.

Which of the following attachment styles did Mary Ainsworth find most often in her research (in about 66 percent of the cases she studied)?

a)

avoidant

b)

authoritarian

c)

secure

d)

anxious/ambivalent

e)

authoritative

85.

Which of the following is the correct term for a mental rule Piaget said we use to interpret our environment?

a)

schema

b)

syllogism

c)

assimilation

d)

accommodation

e)

hypothesis

86.

How would drive reduction theory explain a person accepting a new job with a higher salary but that requires more work and responsibility?

a)

Money is a more powerful incentive for this individual than free time.

b)

This person seeks a higher activity level and takes the job in order to satisfy this drive

c)

For this person, money is a higher-level need than free time.

d)

The person takes the job to satisfy the secondary drive of increased salary.

e)

Humans instinctively seek greater resources and control over their environment

87.

Which aspects of hunger are controlled by the lateral and ventromedial hypothalamus?

a)

contraction and expansion of the stomach, indicating too much or too little food

b)

body temperature and desire to eat

c)

desire to eat and physiological processes needed for eating and digestion (such as salivation)

d)

the binge and purge cycle in bulima

e)

the desire to eat and the feeling of satiety, or fullness, that makes us stop eating

88.

All of the following are identified by researchers as important factors in the causes of eating disorders EXCEPT

a)

cultural attitude toward weight.

b)

lack of willpower

c)

genetic tendencies.

d)

family history of eating disorders

e)

food obsessions

89.

What is the principal difference between how achievement motivation theory and arousal theory explain human motivation?

a)

Achievement motivation is a specific example of arousal motivation.

b)

Arousal theory describes the optimum level of general arousal an individual seeks, while achievement motivation describes what type of goals the individual is motivated to achieve.

c)

Arousal theory describes motivation by referring to stages in our responses to stress (the general adaptation syndrome), while achievement motivation is not used to describe motivation due to stress.

d)

A person with a low optimum level of arousal according to arousal theory would have a high achievement motivation.

e)

Arousal theory is an older, outdated precursor to achievement motivation theory.

90.

Which of the following are reasons why intrinsic motivations are more advantageous than extrinsic motivation?

a)

Intrinsic motivation might be more enduring since extrinsic motivations are usually temporary.

b)

Intrinsic motivations are easier and more convenient to provide.

c)

Intrinsic motivations are higher on Maslow's hierarchy of needs, so we are motivated to meet them before extrinsic needs.

d)

Intrinsic motivations are more likely to be primary drives. Extrinsic motivations are secondary drives.

e)

Intrinsic motivations are more effective with a wider range of individuals.

91.

Which sentence most closely describes the difference between theory x and theory y types of management?

a)

Theory X managers are more active in work groups. Theory Y managers are more hands-off, letting groups work out problems on their own.

b)

The management theories differ in regard to what tasks they delegate to workers.

c)

Theory Y managers regard employees as intrinsically motivated. Theory X mangers see them as extrinsically motivated.

d)

Management theory X is dominant in collectivist cultures. Theory Y is more prevalent in individualistic cultures.

e)

Theory Y is used with workers who have high optimum levels of arousal. Theory X is used with those whose arousal levels are low.

92.

What does Schachter's two-factor theory state about the relationship between emotion and physiological reaction?

a)

Emotions are caused by physiological reactions. For example, we feel excited because our heart begins to race.

b)

Physiological reactions are caused by emotions. For example, our experience of fear causes our breathing rate to increase.

c)

A combination of physiological reactions and our cognitive interpretation of an event produces emotion.

d)

Physiological reactions and emotional response occur simultaneously.

e)

Cognitive emotions occur independently of physiological states and are unrelated.

93.

Excessive time spent in the resistance phase of Selye's general adaptation syndrome can contribute to

a)

increased time needed to adapt to new emotional situations.

b)

decreased motivation to perform novel tasks.

c)

stress-related diseases like ulcers or heart conditions

d)

a reduction in the drive to achieve goals.

e)

resistance to learning skills needed for novel tasks.

94.

Perceived control over a stressful event tends to result in

a)

less reported stress.

b)

more frustration regarding the stressful event

c)

more motivation to solve the stressful problem

d)

increased arousal

e)

higher heart and respiration rates

95.

The balanced physiological state we are driven to attain by satisfying our needs is called

a)

equilibrium

b)

homeostasis

c)

self-actualization

d)

primary satisfaction

e)

secondary satisfaction

96.

The Garcia effect describes

a)

the increased motivation felt by individuals with high levels of arousal.

b)

the increased susceptibility to illness experienced in the exhaustion phase of the stress response.

c)

classical conditioning associating nausea with food or drink.

d)

the effect of a theory Y management style.

e)

the effect of the hypothalamus has on perceiving hunger.

97.

Which of the following factors does research indicate may influence sexual orientation?

a)

parenting style

b)

degree of masculinity or femininity expressed in childhood

c)

traumatic childhood experiences

d)

genetic influences

e)

being raised by homosexual parents

98.

A high score on Holmes and Rahe's social readjustment rating scale correlates with

a)

high optimum levels of arousal

b)

level of need reduction

c)

incidence of eating disorders

d)

incidence of stress-related illness

e)

levels of perceived control

99.

According to Freud, which part of the mind acts as a person's conscience?

a)

eros

b)

ego

c)

libido

d)

superego

e)

id

100.

Cettina fills out a personality inventory over the course of one year. The result of each administration of the test are extremely different.. Cettina's situation suggests that this personality may not be

a)

reliable

b)

standardized

c)

normed

d)

projective

e)

fair

101.

Which approach toward personality is the least deterministic?

a)

psychoanalytic

b)

humanistic

c)

trait

d)

behaviorist

e)

biological

102.

The belief that personality is created by the interaction between a person, his or her behavior and the environment is...

a)

combination theory

b)

interactionist perspective

c)

reciprocal determinism

d)

mutuality

e)

circular creation

103.

Juan has a huge crush on Sally but he never admits it. Instead he tells all who listen that Sally is "into him", being an example of....

a)

displacement

b)

reaction formation

c)

sublimation

d)

denial

e)

projection

104.

Dr. Li asks her clients to interpret ambiguous pictures of people in various settings.. this is called

a)

the roshach test

b)

the MMPI

c)

the TAT

d)

factor analysis

e)

the wisc

105.

Our personality trait that is thought to be highly heritable is...

a)

generosity

b)

sense of humor

c)

neatness

d)

introversion

e)

diligence

106.

Which is NOT one of the big five personality traits?

a)

extroversion

b)

openness

c)

agreeableness

d)

hoonesty

e)

conscientiousness

107.

Feminist psychoanalytical critics of Freud most argue that

a)

there is no proof that the unconscious exists

b)

freud devoted too much attention to childhood

c)

women's superegos are just as strong as men's

d)

men and women use different defense mechanisms

e)

while women all suffer from penis envy, men all suffer from womb envy

108.

Jamal sucked his thumbs until the age of 2. As an adult, he smokes, chews gum, and always thinks of food. Psychoanalysts would describe jamal as having...

a)

obsession

b)

orally controlled libido

c)

oedipus complex

d)

oral fixation

e)

mother complex

109.

What kind of psychologist would be most likely to use a projective personality assessment?

a)

social-cognitive

b)

trait

c)

behaviorist

d)

humanistic

e)

psychoanalytic

110.

Redirecting one's unacceptable urges into more socially acceptable pursuits best defines...

a)

intellectualization

b)

denial

c)

sublimation

d)

rationalization

e)

regression

111.

all people with schizophrenia suffer from

a)

depression

b)

multiple personalities

c)

flat affect distorted thinking

d)

delusions of persecution

e)

distorted thinking

112.

Juan hears voices that tell him to kill people. Juan is experiencing

a)

delusions

b)

obsessions

c)

anxiety

d)

hallucinations

e)

compulsions

113.

The DSM contains

I a description of the symptoms of mentsl disorders

II a description of the likely causes of all mental disorders

III recommended methods of treatment for mental disorders

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II, and III

114.

All of the following are biomedical explanations for schizophrenia EXCEPT ______.

a)

double binds

b)

brain asymmetries

c)

the dopamine hypothesis

d)

a genetic predisposition

e)

enlarged brain ventricles

115.

"I am the most important person in the world" is a statement that might characterize the views of someone with which of the following personality disorders?

a)

schizoid

b)

antisocial

c)

histrionic

d)

dependent

e)

narcissistic

116.

What kind of psychologist would be most likely to describe to describe depression as the result of an unconscious process in which anger is turned inward?

a)

biomedicaal

b)

psychoanalytic

c)

cognitive

d)

behavioral

e)

sociocultural

117.

Anand is unable to move his right arm. He has been to scores of physicians seeking a cure, Anand may be suffering from...

a)

conversion disorder

b)

dissociative amnesia

c)

GAD

d)

SAD

e)

OOCD

118.

Which kind of therapist is most likely to analyze a client's dreams?

a)

behaviorist

b)

cognitive

c)

humanistic

d)

psychoanalytic

e)

biomedical

119.

Coretta's therapist says little during their sessions and never makes any recommendations about what Coretta ought to do. What kind of therapy does Coretta's therapist most likely practice?

a)

psychodynamic

b)

behavioral

c)

cognitive

d)

biomedical

e)

humanistic

120.

Craig saw a behaviorist to treat his crippling test anxiety. After a few months, Craig no longer experiences any fear when taking tests, however he has developed an obsessive-compulsive disorder. According to psychoanalysts, Craig is experiencing

a)

free association

b)

symptom substitution

c)

an anxiety hierarchy

d)

problem transference

e)

interpretation

121.

Systematic desensitization is to in vivo desensitization as

a)

flooding is to aversion therapy

b)

modeling is to implosive therapy

c)

aversion therapy is to modeling

d)

implosive therapy is to flooding

e)

implosive therapy is to in vivo implosive therapy

122.

At his last appointment with his therapist, Ivan explained that since he lost his job he has felt completely worthless and depressed. Which of the following statements would a strictly cognitive therapists be most likely to say?

a)

"Tell me about your recent dreams"

b)

"I'm going to give you a homework assignment to do three things that you used to enjoy"

c)

"That's ridiculous; no one is completely worthless."

d)

"So, you're feeling very down"

e)

"What is your earliest childhood memory"

123.

Which process involves counterconditioning?

a)

REBT

b)

ECT

c)

transference

d)

somatic therapy

e)

systematic desensitization

124.

All of the following methods of treatment are or may be based on classical conditioning principles EXCEPT

a)

token economy

b)

implosive therapy

c)

flooding

d)

systematic desensitization

e)

aversion therapy

125.

One difference between psychoanalytic and cognitive modes of treatment is that cognitive therapists

a)

say little during sessions

b)

emphasize the primacy of behavior

c)

focus on the present

d)

view repressed thoughts about one's childhood as the root of most problems

e)

do not face their clients

126.

Schizophrenia is most likely to be treated with

a)

Prozac

b)

Lithium

c)

Miltown

d)

Haldol

e)

Valium

127.

A common side effect of ECT is

a)

tardive dyskinesia

b)

memory loss

c)

hallucinations

d)

hysteria

e)

violent episodes

128.

Which of the following suggestion in most likely to reduce the hostility felt between antagonistic groups?

a)

force the groups to spend a lot of time together.

b)

encourage the groups to avoid each other as much as possible

c)

give the groups a task that cannot be solved unless they work together

d)

set up a program in which speakers attempt to persuade the groups to get along

e)

punish the groups whenever they treat each other badly

129.

The tendency of people to look toward other for cues about the appropriate way to behave when confronted by an emergency is known as

a)

bystander intervention

b)

pluralistic ignorance

c)

modeling

d)

diffusion of responsibility

e)

conformity

130.

In Asch's conformity study, approx. what percentage of participants gave at least one incorrect response?

a)

30

b)

40

c)

50

d)

60

e)

70

131.

Kelly's attribution theory says that people use which of the following kinds of information in explaining events?

a)

conformity, reliability, and validity

b)

consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness

c)

uniqueness, explanatory power, and logic

d)

salience, importance, and reason

e)

distinctiveness, conformity, and salience

132.

Which of the following is the best example of prejudice?

a)

Billy will not let girls play on his hockey team

b)

Santiago dislikes cheerleaders

c)

Athena says she can run faster than anybody on the playground

d)

Mr. Tamp calls on boys more often than girls

e)

Ginny thinks that all Asians are smart

133.

On their second date, Megan confides in Francisco that she still loves to watch Rugrats. He, in turn, tells her that he still cries when he watches Bambi. These two young lovers will be brought closer together through the process of

a)

self-disclosure

b)

deindividuation

c)

in-group bias

d)

dual sharing

e)

open communication

134.

Rosenthal and Jacobson's "pygmalion in the classroom" study showed that

a)

people's expectations of others can influence the behavior of those others.

b)

attitudes are not always good predictors of behavior

c)

contact is not sufficient to break down prejedices

d)

people like to think that others get what they deserve

e)

cohesive groups often make bad decisions