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FINAL EXAM REVIEW

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client has a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl. During the physical examination, the nurse expects to assess:

a)

Trousseau's sign

b)

Homans' sign

c)

Nothing, this is a normal finding

d)

Hegar's sign

2.

Which of the following assessment tools will be most effective when assessing for pain in a four-year-old client?

a)

Numeric

b)

FLACC

c)

FACES

d)

Linear

3.

A client reports tingling in the fingers as well as feeling depressed. The nurse assesses positive Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs. Which decreased laboratory results does the nurse observe when the client’s laboratory work has returned?

a)

Calcium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Sodium

d)

Potassium

4.

When a client's ventilation is impaired, the body retains which substance?

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Oxygen

5.

The nurse knows which is the normal serum value for potassium?

a)

135–145 mEq/L

b)

96–106 mEq/L

c)

3.5–5.0 mEq/L

d)

8.5–10.5 mg/dL

6.

Which of the following is the most common cause of symptomatic hypomagnesemia in the United States?

a)

Drug use

b)

Exercise

c)

Eating disorders

d)

Alcoholism

7.

Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?

a)

pH, 7.5; PaCO2 30 mm Hg

b)

pH, 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg

c)

pH, 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg

d)

pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg

8.

Which of the following pain assessment tools is most commonly used in adults?

a)

FACES

b)

FLACC

c)

Numeric

d)

Yes or No

9.

A priority nursing intervention for a client with hypervolemia involves which of the following?

a)

Establishing I.V. access with a large-bore catheter.

b)

Drawing a blood sample for typing and crossmatching.

c)

Encouraging the client to consume sodium-free fluids.

d)

Monitoring respiratory status for signs and symptoms of pulmonary complications.

10.

Which of the following ABG results indicates respiratory acidosis?

a)

pH: 7.20, PaCO2: 65 mm Hg, HCO3–: 26 mEq/L

b)

pH: 7.32, PaCO2: 40 mm Hg, HCO3–: 18 mEq/L

c)

pH: 7.50, PaCO2: 30 mm Hg, HCO3–: 24 mEq/L

d)

pH: 7.40, PaCO2: 40 mm Hg, HCO3–: 24 mEq /L

11.

The physician has prescribed a hypotonic IV solution for a patient. Which IV solution should the nurse administer?

a)

0.45% sodium chloride

b)

0.9% sodium chloride

c)

5% glucose in water

d)

1.8% sodium chloride

12.

A client is diagnosed with hypocalcemia and the nurse is teaching the client about symptoms. What symptom would the nurse include in the teaching?

a)

hypertension

b)

tingling sensation in the fingers

c)

polyuria

d)

hypertension

13.

A client presents with anorexia, nausea and vomiting, deep bone pain, and constipation. The following are the client's laboratory values:

sodium 137 mEq/L

potassium 4.6 mEq/L

chloride 94 mEq/L

calcium 12.9 mg/dL

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

chloride

d)

calcium

14.

A client with a suspected overdose of an unknown drug is admitted to the emergency department. Arterial blood gas values indicate respiratory acidosis. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Prepare to assist with ventilation.

b)

Monitor the client's heart rhythm.

c)

Prepare for gastric lavage.

d)

Obtain a urine specimen for drug screening.

15.

A client who is being treated for pneumonia reports sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mm Hg. Which condition does the ABG reflect?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

16.

A patient with a history of heart failure has been admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and fatigue. Upon assessment, you notice that the patient's oxygen saturation levels are low, and they are struggling to breathe. They are also experiencing mild confusion and restlessness. What is the priority nursing intervention for this patient?

a)

Assess for signs of infection

b)

Administer pain medication for comfort

c)

Administer oxygen therapy

d)

Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume

17.

A client comes to the emergency department with status asthmaticus. His respiratory rate is 48 breaths/minute, and he is wheezing. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.52, a partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) of 30 mm Hg, PaO2 of 70 mm Hg, and bicarbonate (HCO3??') of 26 mEq/L. What disorder is indicated by these findings?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

18.

A client in the emergency department reports that he has been vomiting excessively for the past 2 days. His arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.50, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) of 43 mm Hg, partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) of 75 mm Hg, and bicarbonate (HCO3) of 42 mEq/L. Based on these findings, the nurse documents that the client is experiencing which type of acid-base imbalance?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

19.

The nurse is working on a burn unit and an acutely ill client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, the nurse should expect the client to exhibit signs and symptoms of which imbalance?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Hypermagnesemia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Hypovolemia

20.

A client comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing and feeling strange after eating a shrimp cocktail. The client is leaning forward with a respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute. The nurse suspects anaphylaxis. What is the nurse's priority action?

a)

decreasing anxiety

b)

maintaining an open airway

c)

providing pain relief measures

d)

encouraging activity

21.

At which serum sodium concentration might convulsions or coma occur?

a)

145 mEq/L

b)

130 mEq/L

c)

140 mEq/L

d)

142 mEq/L

22.

A client is receiving immunotherapy as part of the treatment plan for an allergic disorder. After administering the therapy, the client states, "I guess I can go home now." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

a)

"We need to schedule your next appointment first and then you can leave."

b)

"You need to stay about another half-hour so we can make sure you don't have a reaction."

c)

"It's okay to leave but make sure to call us if you start to feel strange after an hour or so."

d)

"Ok, bye!"

23.

Which is a primary chemical mediator of hypersensitivity?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Bradykinin

c)

Histamine

d)

Heparin

24.

A client develops a facial rash and urticaria after receiving penicillin. Which laboratory value does the nurse expect to be elevated?

a)

IgE

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgG

25.

What education should the nurse provide to the patient taking long-term corticosteroids?

a)

The patient should discontinue using the drug immediately if weight gain is observed.

b)

Corticosteroids are relatively safe drugs with very few side effects.

c)

The patient should take the medication only as needed and not take it unnecessarily.

d)

The patient should not stop taking the medication abruptly and should be weaned off of the medication.

26.

A patient asks the nurse if it would be all right to take an over-the-counter antihistamine for the treatment of a rash. What should the nurse educate the patient is a major side effect of antihistamines?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Excessive salivation

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Vomiting

27.

In which instance may a surgeon operate without informed consent?

a)

Radiologic procedures

b)

Procedures requiring sedation

c)

Emergency situations

d)

Invasive procedures

28.

What is the major purpose of withholding food and fluid before surgery?

a)

Decrease urine output

b)

Decrease risk of constipation

c)

Prevent aspiration

d)

Prevent food interactions with anesthesia

29.

The nurse is educating a client scheduled for elective surgery. The client currently takes aspirin daily. What education should the nurse provide with regard to this medication?

a)

Continue to take the aspirin as ordered.

b)

Take half doses of the aspirin until 1 week after surgery.

c)

Aspirin should be increased until 3 days before surgery, then it should be discontinued until 3 days after surgery.

d)

Stop taking the aspirin 7 days before the surgery, unless otherwise directed by your physician.

30.

A client presents to the clinic with reports of itching and hives after taking an aspirin this morning. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering that blocks histamine receptors?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Tylenol

31.

The nurse is aware that loss of consciousness occurs with which type of anesthesia?

a)

General

b)

Local

c)

Regional

d)

Moderate

32.

The nurse recognizes older adults require lower doses of anesthetic agents due to:

a)

decreased bone mass.

b)

increased liver mass.

c)

increased tissue elasticity.

d)

decreased lean tissue mass.

33.

The nurse understands that the purpose of the “time out” is to:

a)

clarify the roles of the OR personnel.

b)

identify the client’s allergies.

c)

maintain the safety of the client.

d)

verify all necessary supplies are available.

34.

The circulating nurse is unsure whether proper technique was followed when an object was placed in the sterile field during a surgical procedure. What is the best action by the nurse?

a)

Ask another nurse to review the technique used

b)

Remove the entire sterile field from use

c)

Mark the client’s chart for future review of infections

d)

Remove the item from the sterile field

35.

A client who had abdominal surgery 4 days ago reports that "something gave way" when he sneezed. The nurse observes a wound evisceration. Which nursing action is the first priority?

a)

Monitoring vital signs

b)

Applying a sterile, moist dressing

c)

Applying a dry gauze pad

d)

Have the client hold the wound together

36.

What intervention by the nurse is most effective for reducing hospital-acquired infections?

a)

Control of upper respiratory tract infections

b)

Administration of prophylactic antibiotics

c)

Wearing a mask

d)

Proper handwashing technique

37.

The nurse is caring for a client during the immediate postoperative period. What signs and symptoms indicate that the client may be in shock?

a)

Productive cough

b)

Weak, rapid pulse

c)

Warm, dry skin

d)

Stridor

38.

What is the normal pH range for blood?

a)

7-8

b)

7.5-7.6

c)

7.35-7.45

d)

4.5-5.5

39.

What is pruritis?

a)

Itching

b)

Rash

c)

Scabies

d)

Head lice

40.

In which phase of perioperative care will the nurse prepare the client’s skin, encourage the client to void, and remove the client’s dentures?

a)

Preoperative

b)

Postoperative

c)

Intraoperative

d)

Operative

41.

A patient visits a clinic for assessment of an inflammatory skin disorder. The nurse diagnoses the condition as psoriasis based on the appearance of the skin. What does the nurse observe?

a)

Plaques

b)

Petechiae

c)

Vesicles

d)

Scales

42.

Shingles is a:

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Sexually transmitted disease

c)

Virus

d)

Fungus

43.

A nurse is developing a care plan for a client recovering from a serious thermal burn. After maintaining respirations, the nurse knows that the most important immediate goal of therapy is:

a)

planning for the client's rehabilitation and discharge.

b)

providing emotional support to the client and family.

c)

maintaining the client's fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance.

d)

preserving full range of motion in all affected joints.

44.

What is the priority in the care of a client who has been burned and suffered smoke inhalation?

a)

Pain

b)

Aseptic technique

c)

Airway

d)

Fear and anxiety

45.

A client has partial-thickness burns on both lower extremities and portions of the trunk. Which IV fluid does the nurse plan to administer first?

a)

Lactated Ringers

b)

Normal saline

c)

Normal saline with 20meq of potassium

d)

Albumin

46.

A client comes to the ER with suspected electrical burns. What is the nurse's first priority?

a)

Draw labs for electrolyte levels

b)

Ask the client what happened

c)

Call the client's family

d)

Place the client on a cardiac monitor

47.

The nurse is reviewing client lab work for a critical lab value. Which value is called to the physician for additional orders?

a)

Potassium: 5.8 mEq/L

b)

Sodium: 138 mEq/L

c)

Magnesium:2 mEq/L

d)

Calcium: 10 mg/dL

48.

Which client is the nurse's first priority?

a)

The client involved in a house fire with soot around their nostrils

b)

The client who spilled boiling water on their foot

c)

The client who suffered an electrical burn to their thigh

d)

The client who stepped on their George Foreman grill

49.

What is a normal urine output?

a)

50ml/hr

b)

30ml/hr

c)

20ml/hr

d)

100ml/hr

50.

What is the correct name for shingles?

a)

Herpes simplex

b)

Herpes zoster

c)

Herpes shinglex

d)

Tinnea corporis

51.

A nurse is caring for a patient on c. diff precautions. The nurse should do what when exiting the room?

a)

Use hand sanitizer

b)

Use a bleach wipe

c)

Wash their hands

d)

Use a purple wipe

52.

The nurse demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify which infectious disease as requiring airborne precautions?

a)

Rubella

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Influenza

d)

Impetigo

53.

Why do urinary catheters require a physician's order and valid reason for insertion?

a)

They cause damage to the bladder

b)

They are a portal for infection

c)

Hospital policy

d)

They require multiple nurses to insert

54.

Which two STIs usually occur at the same time?

a)

Herpes simplex and herpes zoster

b)

Gonorrhea and chlamydia

c)

Herpes simplex and HPV

d)

Syphillis and gonorrhea

55.

What PPE should the nurse wear when handling a patient with MRSA?

a)

Gloves

b)

N-95

c)

Eye shield

d)

Surgical mask

56.

A client with influenza is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse monitors the client closely for complications. What is the most common complication of influenza?

a)

Septicemia

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Meningitis

d)

Pulmonary edema

57.

After a change of shift, you are assigned to care for the following patients. Which patient should you assess first?

a)

A 50-year old with asthma who complains of shortness of breath after using a bronchodilator.

b)

A 70-year old with pneumonia who needs to be started on intravenous (IV) antibiotics.

c)

A 55-year old with COPD and a pulse oximetry reading from the previous shift of 92% saturation.

d)

A 60-year old patient on a ventilator for whom a sterile sputum specimen must be sent to the lab.

58.

Which type of burn injury requires skin grafting?

a)

Full-thickness

b)

Superficial

c)

Superficial partial-thickness

d)

Deep partial-thickness