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Y8 Biology

Total questions: 173

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement describes ALL living things?

a)

They can move.

b)

They are composed of one or more cells.

c)

They are capable of making their own food.

d)

They have organ systems that carry out the process of life.

2.

Which organism is unicellular and does not contain a nucleus?

a)

fungus

b)

protist

c)

virus

d)

bacteria

3.

What are two organelles that can be found in the plant cells, but not in the animal cells?

a)

golgi apparatus and ribosomes

b)

ribosomes and chloroplast

c)

smooth ER and cell wall

d)

cell wall and chloroplast

4.

Which organelle protects and supports the plant cell?

a)

cell wall

b)

cell membrane

c)

vacuole

d)

nucleus

5.

What are the two systems that work closely together to allow us to move? Note: They give us strength and power.

a)

muscular

b)

respiratory

c)

circulatory

d)

skeletal

6.

What is the function of the nervous system?

a)

Whenever we get in front of crowds, it causes our bodies to shake.

b)

It coordinates the body's response to changes in its environment.

c)

It is responsible for the blood flow throughout your body.

d)

It helps us take in oxygen and expel carbon dioxide.

7.

What is the correct order of the path food takes in the digestive system?

a)

mouth, esophagus, stomach, intestines

b)

mouth, stomach, esophagus, intestines

c)

esophagus, mouth, intestines, stomach

d)

esophagus, mouth, stomach, intestines

8.

Which two systems are responsible for bringing in oxygen and delivering the oxygen throughout the body?

a)

nervous

b)

respiratory

c)

digestive

d)

cardiovascular (circulatory)

9.

Cells form tissues, tissues form organs, organs work together to form

a)

lungs

b)

organ systems

c)

skin

d)

heart

10.

A group of tissues that work together is a(n) ______________________.

a)

cell

b)

organ

c)

organ system

11.

What might the immune system protect our body from?

a)

sugars, fats, and carbs.

b)

viruses, bacteria

c)

lice, worms, fleas

d)

cough, sneeze, vomit

12.

What is the term for a group of organs that break down food so that it can be used for energy, cell growth and repair?

a)

circulatory system

b)

digestive system

c)

excretory system

d)

muscular system

e)

nervous system

13.

What is the term for the control center for the entire body that sends signals from throughout the body to the brain?

a)

circulatory system

b)

respiratory system

c)

excretory system

d)

muscular system

e)

nervous system

14.

What organ system are lungs part of?

a)

digestive system

b)

respiratory system

c)

muscular system

d)

nervous system

e)

excretory system

15.

What organ system are the small and large intestine part of?

a)

digestive system

b)

respiratory system

c)

muscular system

d)

nervous system

e)

excretory system

16.

What organ system includes muscles in your arms and legs?

a)

circulatory system

b)

respiratory system

c)

muscular system

d)

nervous system

e)

excretory system

17.

A specialized cell is a cell that has ...

a)

the ability to divide

b)

a specific role to do

c)

no specific function in the bod

18.
Which organ is part of the respiratory system?
a)
trachea
b)
blood vessels
c)
spinal cord
d)
bladder
19.
What are the four most important materials needed by living organisms?
a)
water, carbon, oxygen, nitrogen
b)
water, food, oxygen, carbon
c)
water, carbon, nitrogen, phosphorous
d)
water, carbon, food, phosphorous
20.
An underground layer of rocks or sand that can hold groundwater.
a)
watershed
b)
levee
c)
aquifer
d)
erosion
21.
An area or ridge of land that separates waters flowing to different rivers, basins, or seas.
a)
watershed
b)
levee
c)
aquifer
d)
erosion
22.
How much of the Earth's water is stored in the oceans?
a)
50%
b)
67%
c)
97%
d)
85%
23.
This is essential to living organisms, it is found in nucleic acid and amino acids.
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Carbon
c)
Water
d)
Phosphorous
24.
This is part of nucleic acids, ATP, and helps form animals' bones and teeth.
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Carbon
c)
Water
d)
Phosphorous
25.
The conversion of ammonium to nitrate is called what?
a)
nitrification
b)
renitrification
c)
denitrification
d)
unnitrification
26.
The conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas is called what?
a)
nitrification
b)
renitrification
c)
denitrification
d)
unnitrification
27.
What is it called when water vapor cools and changes into a liquid?
a)
condensation
b)
respiration
c)
precipitation
d)
evaporation
28.
Where would you find most of the Earth's phosphorous?
a)
In the atmosphere
b)
Underwater
c)
on the Earth's surface
d)
Underground
29.
Which of the following is NOT a stage of the nitrogen cycle?
a)
organisms breathe in nitrogen gas
b)
organisms release nitrogen compounds via waste or decomposition
c)
bacteria convert unusable nitrogen to usable nitrogen
d)
plants absorb nitrogen compounds from the soil
30.
The three steps of the water cycle include:
a)
condensation, precipitation, filtration
b)
filtration, irrigation, evaporation
c)
precipitation, condensation, evaporation
d)
precipitation, filtration, evaporation
31.
Which of the following is NOT part of the carbon cycle?
a)
condensation
b)
photosynthesis
c)
combustion
d)
respiration
32.
Which of these is the greatest cause of harmful levels of carbon in the atmosphere?
a)
respiration
b)
combustion
c)
photosynthesis
d)
decomposition
33.
Which of these steps is part of the nitrogen cycle AND the phosphorous cycle?
a)
it starts off inside underwater rocks and dirt
b)
bacteria convert it into organic compounds
c)
animals leaving waste and death and decay release it back into the soil
d)
rain water and ocean waves break off pieces, putting it back into the ecosystem
34.
Which of these is in both the carbon cycle AND the phosphorous cycle?
a)
erosion
b)
respiration
c)
photosynthesis
d)
combustion
35.
Which type of bacteria would transform nitrate into nitrogen gas?
a)
nitrogen-fixing
b)
denitrifying
c)
nitrifying
d)
nitrogen-defixing
36.
Bacteria that cause nitrification in the soil cause nitrogen to change from _________ to _________.
a)
nitrogen gas; ammonia
b)
nitrogen gas; organic nitrogen
c)
ammonia; nitrate
d)
nitrate; ammonia
37.
Which of these is NOT a step of the carbon cycle?
a)
erosion
b)
respiration
c)
nitrification
d)
photosynthesis
38.
Which of these is a step in the carbon cycle, the nitrogen cycle, and the phosphorous cycle?
a)
condensation
b)
decomposition
c)
respiration
d)
photosynthesis
39.
Define the term 'balanced diet'.
a)
A diet containing some nutrients in the correct proportions.
b)
A diet containing most nutrients in the correct proportions.
c)
A diet containing none nutrients in the correct proportions.
d)
A diet containing all nutrients in the correct proportions.
40.
Not eating too much or too little means we are eating in ____________________.
a)
moderation
b)
sufficiently
c)
balanced
d)
variety
41.
__________________ are examples of high energy high nutrient food
a)
Fruits & vegetables
b)
Chocolate & Ice cream
c)
Milk & Cheese
d)
Pancake & Maple syrup
42.
Which nutrient provides the most amount of energy per gram?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Fats
c)
Protein
d)
Vitamin
43.
Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines how much energy we need.
a)
Age
b)
Gender
c)
Health status
d)
Level of activity
44.
Taller and bigger people need ______________ energy than shorter and smaller people.
a)
same
b)
more
c)
equal
d)
less
45.
When energy intake decreases and energy expenditure increases, body weight ______________.
a)
remains the same
b)
goes up
c)
goes down
d)
is unstable
46.
Define the term "energy balance".
a)
Energy intake is unequal to energy expenditure.
b)
Energy intake is equal to energy expenditure.
c)
Energy intake is more than energy expenditure.
d)
Energy intake is less than energy expenditure.
47.
_____________ increases the risk of diet related diseases.
a)
High Blood Pressure
b)
Coronary Heart Disease
c)
Diabetes
d)
Obesity
48.
Which component of a healthy, balanced diet helps with constipation? 
a)
Fibre
b)
Fats
c)
Minerals
d)
Protein
49.

1.    If one of the digestive organs malfunctions, how will it affect the digestion of food?

a)

Some of the food might be digested but not all the nutrients will be absorbed.

b)

  All the food will be digested but the nutrients will not be absorbed.

c)

Loose bowel movement might occur

d)

Digestion will not take place.

50.

During breakfast you ate Tapsilog and Pandesal. These foods will be digested to absorb the nutrients and energy needed by your body. Where does the absorption of nutrients take place during digestion?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

   Large intestine

d)

Mouth

51.

Accessory organs such as the pancreas and liver are necessary for better digestion

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Our body can absorb and assimilate the nutrients and energy from the food if the digestive organs are functioning well.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Veggies, pork, and, beef can be properly digested with the help of the pancreas alone.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

DIgestion happens in the mouth, stomach and large intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Absorption happens in the small and large intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Absorption of nutrients depends on how well our digestive organs work together.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Final digestion occurs in the small intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Ingestion happens in the mouth.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Numerous fingerlike projections in the folds of the wall of the ileum is classified as

a)

Bolus

b)

Chyme

c)

Bile

d)

Villi

60.

Which of the following enzyme is most active at an acidic pH?

a)

Amylase

b)

Chymotrypsin

c)

Pepsin

d)

Lipase

61.

The small intestine is subdivided into three segments. Which of the following is the correct sequence regarding the passage of food through the small intestine?

a)

Duodenum, ileum, jejunum

b)

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

c)

Jejunum, duodenum, ileum

d)

Ileum, jejunum, duodenum

62.

The majority of the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream occurs in the _______.

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Liver

63.

What increases the surface area of the small intestine?

a)

duodenum

b)

villi

c)

ileum

d)

pancreas

64.

What is the purpose of the villi? (select all that apply)

a)

increase the surface area

b)

chemically break down food

c)

absorb nutrients into the bloodstream

d)

mechanically break down food

65.

Which disease can affect villi?

a)

intolerance

b)

allergies

c)

appendicitis

d)

celiac

66.
Which part of the digestive system is responsible for most chemical digestion?
a)
large intestine
b)
stomach
c)
small intestine
d)
liver
67.

The beginning section of the small intestine that attaches to the stomach.

a)

Ileum

b)

Duodenum

c)

Jejunum

d)

Appendix

68.

The last portion of the small intestine that connects to the large intestine.

a)

Duodenum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Ileum

d)

Colon

69.

Middle portion of the small intestine.

a)

Duodenum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Ileum

d)

Cecum

70.

Roughly how big are the microvilli in the wall of the gut?

a)

1cm

b)

1.5mm

c)

5cm

d)

1 Micrometre

71.

Which structures increase the surface of the gut?

a)

Lacteal and villi

b)

Villi and microvilli

c)

Intestinal glands and microvilli

d)

Capillaries and membrane proteins

72.
Digestive organ where most chemical digestion and absorption of food takes place through villi
a)
esophagus 
b)
rectume
c)
large intestine
d)
small intestine
73.

A person with ____________ should avoid eating foods that contain gluten.

a)

cholecystitis

b)

celiac disease

c)

pancreatitis

d)

cirrhosis

74.

In reference to the image above, how would the absorption of a person with Celiac disease be affected ?

a)

No effect on absorption.

b)

The villi are flattened and therefore their absorption of nutrients would increase.

c)

The villi are flattened and therefore their absorption of nutrients would decrease.

d)

The villi are enlarged and absorption would increase.

75.

As compared to a smooth surfaced cylinder, the surface area of the small intestine is ______________ by the

villi and microvilli structure.

a)

Decreased greatly

b)

Increased greatly

c)

Increased slightly

d)

Unchanged

76.

Which of the following structures increase the surface area for absorption of digested food in the small intestine?

a)

Villi

b)

protein pumps

c)

Microvilli

d)

Villi and Microvilli

77.

The part of the small intestine that contains villi is the...

a)

duodenum

b)

ileum

c)

pancreas

d)

appendix

78.

Which part of the digestive system follows the small intestine?

a)

large intestine

b)

stomach

c)

liver

d)

pancreas

79.

A flowering plant which forms seeds for reproduction

a)

angiosperm

b)

gymnosperm

c)

bryohpyte

d)

conifer

80.

Which part produces ovules?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

81.

__________________________ is the process of transporting the male gamete from the male flower parts to the female flower parts.

a)

Asexual reproduction

b)

Pollination

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Vasculation

82.
Seeds need _______ , warm temperatures, and nutrients in order to start growing.
a)
grass
b)
water
c)
leaves
d)
stems
83.
A seed can move by wind, water, and ________.
a)
clouds
b)
singing
c)
cars
d)
animals
84.
Seed plants use seeds to reproduce.
a)
True
b)
False
85.
Keeps the seed from drying out
a)
embryo
b)
seed coat
c)
cotyledon
86.
Seedless plants reproduce by
a)
spores
b)
seeds
c)
binary fission
d)
mitosis
87.

Jamie wanted to grow tomato plants. He placed five seeds in the soil and watered them. A few days later he noticed that the seeds were beginning to break open, and a plant was emerging. What process did Jamie most likely observe?

a)

pollination

b)

fertilization

c)

germination

d)

condensation

88.

What is one role of a plant's stamen and pistil?

a)

supporting the flower

b)

producing more plants

c)

making food for the plant

d)

transporting water and nutrients

89.

The brightly colored petals of flowering plants attract insects such as bees> The bees help pollinate the plant by picking up pollen? Which part of the plant does the bee pick up pollen?

a)

stamen

b)

pistil

c)

petal

d)

sepal

90.

The drawing below shows a process that is important to plants. What is most likely happening?

a)

The bee is bringing water to the plant.

b)

The plant is being pollinated by the bee

c)

The plant is getting nectar from the bee.

d)

The bee is removing insects from the plant.

91.

Some of the most common pollinators are

(choose 4)

a)

animals

such as birds

and bats

b)

insects

like bees, butterflies and moths

c)

wind

d)

water

e)

machines

92.

What is the main function, or job of the flower?

a)

to make seeds for new plants (reproduction)

b)

to help in the process of photosynthesis

c)

to make chlorophyll

93.

the female reproductive part of a flower

a)

pistil

b)

stamen

c)

flowering

d)

non-flowerin

94.

the pollen producing part of a flower

a)

pistil

b)

stamen

c)

flowering

d)

non-flowering

95.

Combining of egg and sperm

a)

Asexual Reproduction

b)

Sexual Reproduction

c)

Diverse

d)

Uniform

96.

Involves only one parent

a)

Asexual Reproduction

b)

Sexual Reproduction

c)

Diverse

d)

Uniform

97.

... is the process of sorting organisms into different groups.

(a)  

98.

How many kingdoms are there?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

99.

Scientific names of different organisms are made up of:

a)

Kingdom

b)

Phyllum

c)

Genus

d)

Species

100.

Habitats containing many different species have greater (a)  

101.

Extinct organisms...

a)

... have only two organisms left in the world.

b)

... have died out completely.

c)

... are only left in particular habitats.

d)

... lived millions of years ago.

102.

The plant pictured has scientific name Galanthus nivalis. What is the genus called?

a)

Snowdrop

b)

Galanthus

c)

nivalis

d)

Nivalis

103.

The organism pictured has the scientific name Canis familiaris. What is the species name?

a)

dog

b)

Canis

c)

familiaris

d)

Familiaris

104.

The scientific name for the organism pictured is Equus caballus. What is the genus name?

a)

Horse

b)

Equus

c)

caballus

d)

Caballus

105.

The scientific name of the organism pictured is Prunus avium. What is the species name?

a)

Cherry tree

b)

Prunus

c)

avium

d)

Avium

106.

How confident do you feel about this material?

a)

Unsure

b)

It's fine

c)

Reasonably confident

d)

Completely confident - it's easy!

107.

Which is NOT an Asexual reproduction DISADVANTAGE

a)

No genetic variation

b)

Only need one parent

c)

Bad characteristics are passed on

d)

difficult for organisms to adapt

108.

Which is NOT a Sexual reproduction DISADVANTAGE

a)

High genetic variation

b)

Can be complicated

c)

smaller population

d)

requires courtship or mating

109.

occurs when a second organism develops from an outgrowth of the original.

a)

Vegetative propagation

b)

Budding

c)

Fragmentation

d)

Binary Fission

110.

A type of cell division where the cell divides into two copies

a)

Vegetative propagation

b)

Budding

c)

Fragmentation

d)

Binary Fission

111.

a piece of an organism develops into a fully grown copy.

a)

vegetative propagation

b)

budding

c)

fragmentation

d)

binary fission

112.

some plants can send out runners that sprout daughter plants, this is called:

a)

vegetative propagation

b)

budding

c)

fragmentation

d)

binary fission

113.

What are the male and female gametes in PLANTS sexual reproduction?

a)

Sperm

Ovum

b)

Pollen

Ovules

114.

What are the male and female gametes in ANIMAL sexual reproduction?

a)

Sperm

Ovum

b)

Pollen

Ovules

115.

What type of asexual reproduction is it?

a)

budding

b)

regeneration

c)

sporulation

d)

binary fission

116.

What type of asexual reproduction is it?

a)

vegetative propagation

b)

sporulation

c)

budding

d)

binary fission

117.

What type of asexual reproduction is it?

a)

budding

b)

regeneration

c)

sporulation

d)

binary fission

118.

What type of asexual reproduction is it?

a)

vegetative propagation

b)

sporulation

c)

budding

d)

binary fission

119.

How many sets of division (PMAT) happen in Meiosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

120.

Meiosis ensures a constant amount of genetic material in future generations by reducing the number of chromosomes in the daughters cells to ________ that of a parent cell.

a)

1/3

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

121.

Pairs of chromosomes that contain the same genes, but may have different versions are called

a)

chromatids

b)

sister chromatids

c)

homologous pairs

122.

Meiosis is unique in cell division because it can take a ________ parent cell and create _________ daughter cells.

a)

haploid, triploid

b)

diploid, haploid

c)

triploid, haploid

d)

mitotic, meiotic

123.

What is something that is similar between meiosis and mitosis?

a)

the type of daughter cells they make

b)

the amount of genetic material the resulting cells have

c)

the replication of DNA

d)

the location where these two types of cell division take place.

124.

Name the phase pictured

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

125.

Name the phase pictured

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

126.

In mitosis, the two resulting cells are

a)

different from the starting cell and identical to each other.

b)

different from the starting cell and different from each other.

c)

identical to the starting cell and different from each other.

d)

identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.

127.

Cells of organism must replicate for ?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells

d)

all of the answers are right

128.

The cell spends most of it's life in ________________.

a)

mitosis

b)

cytokinesis

c)

interphase

d)

none of the above

129.

What does the replication of DNA during interphase ensure during cell replication?

a)

Crossing-over occurs prior to cell division.

b)

Mutations are corrected before the cell divides.

c)

Genetic variation is created in daughter cells.

d)

Each daughter cell gets an exact copy of the cell’s DNA.

130.

Name the phase

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

131.
What scientific process is being shown?
a)
Mixing
b)
Crossing under
c)
Crossing over
d)
square dancing
132.

What is the end product of meiosis?

a)

4 haploid cells.

b)

2 diploid cells.

c)

2 haploid cells.

d)

4 diploid cells.

133.
Structure (c) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
134.

What is the name for the event that results in the division of the cell body (cytoplasm) into 2 daughter bodies.

a)

Telophase

b)

Citokinesis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Cross Over

135.

The end result of mitosis is

a)

4 Identical Cells are produced

b)

4 genetically different cells are produced

c)

2 identical cells are produced

d)

2 genetically different cells are produced

136.

The end result of meiosis is...

a)

4 identical cells

b)

4 genetically different cells

c)

2 identical cells

d)

2 genetically different cells

137.

How many divisions are in meiosis?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

2

d)

4

138.

What is happening during prophase?

a)

chromosomes condense, nucleus disappears

b)

chromosomes appears, nucleus condenses

c)

chromosomes condense, nucleus condenses

d)

chromosomes disappears, nucleus disappears

139.

How many chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

48

d)

52

140.

LOOK AT THE PICTURES

Which structure houses a plant's pollen prior to pollination?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

141.

How does the pollination of most trees and grasses differ from the pollination of flowers?

a)

B

Trees and grasses pollinate in the springtime; flowers pollinate in the fall

b)

A

Trees and grasses self-pollinate; flowers must get pollen from other flowers

c)

C

Trees and grasses are often pollinated by wind; flowers are often pollinated by insects

d)

D

Trees and grasses have large, heavy grains of pollen; flowers have small, fine grains of pollen

142.

What can you infer about a brightly-colored flower?

a)

B

It has a greater chance of pollination than a dull-colored flower

b)

A

It can only be pollinated by birds, not insects

c)

C

Its pollen is probably the same bright color

d)

D

It is probably pollinated by an insect that is attracted to that color

143.

How does insect pollination benefit the insect?

a)

B

The insect uses the plant's nectar as food

b)

C

The insect uses the plant's pollen as food

c)

D

The insect uses the plant's leaves and petals as food

d)

A

The insect uses the fertilized ovule as food

144.

Honeybees and flowers are linked in a mutually beneficial relationship. What is a "mutually beneficial relationship?"

a)

A

A relationship in which one participant benefits but the other does not

b)

B

A relationship in which neither participant benefits

c)

C

A relationship in which one participant benefits but the other is harmed

d)

D

A relationship in which both participants benefit

145.

Pollen is to stamen as _____ is to pistil.

a)

A

Ovule

b)

B

Anther

c)

C

Honeybee

d)

D

Wind

146.

Place the following events in sequence: A) Pollen is deposited on a pistil; B) Pollen fertilizes an ovule; C) A honeybee collects pollen

a)

B

A, C, B

b)

C

C, A, B

c)

D

B, A, C

d)

A

B, C, A

147.

What is another name for a fertilized ovule?

a)

B

A stamen

b)

C

An anther

c)

D

A seed

d)

A

A pistil

148.

How does a honeybee collect pollen?

a)

B

It brushes against the pollen as it collects nectar

b)

C

It puts the pollen in a special pouch in its abdomen

c)

A

It swallows the pollen

d)

D

It rubs the pollen on its wings

149.

What can you infer about flowers that are pollinated by bats?

a)

They probably contain no pollen

b)

C

They probably bloom at night

c)

D

They are probably very brightly colored

d)

A

They are probably located in caves

150.

The purpose of seed dispersal is for the seeds to __________.

a)

germinate at the same time

b)

move to the same place and grow

c)

move further away from the parent plant

d)

compete with one another for minerals in the soil

151.

It is the spreading of seeds to other places.

a)

germination

b)

habitat

c)

seed dispersal

152.

How are dandelion seeds dispersed?

a)

by animals

b)

by explosion or bursting

c)

by wind

153.

How are raspberries dispersed?

a)

by animals

b)

by explosion or bursting

c)

by water

154.

Why it is better for seeds to be scattered far and wide?

a)

To provide shelter to other animals.

b)

For farmers to see which soil is good for the plants.

c)

For plants to have a better chance of growing healthier.

155.
I have parachute like structures. What is likely my dispersal method?
a)
wind
b)
water 
c)
animals
d)
explosive action
156.
I have hooks to cling to animal fur. What is likely my dispersal method?
a)
wind
b)
water 
c)
animals
d)
explosive action
157.

What are the characteristic of the seeds dispersed by man and animals?


A: Can float on water

B: Sweet and juicy

C: Have hooks or stiff hairs

D: Have wing-like structures and are light

a)

A and B only

b)

B and C only

c)

C and D only

d)

A, B and C only

158.
My pod splits open and seeds are thrown out with a force. What is likely my dispersal method?
a)
wind
b)
water 
c)
animals
d)
explosive action
159.

State the characters ideal for dispersion by wind.

a)

Small, light and hair-like

b)

Small, light and sharp hooks

c)

Big, light and fibrous husk

d)

Big, light and explode

160.

What is germination?

a)

the process of a plant growing

b)

the beginning of the growth of a plant from a seed to a seedling

c)

the process of making a seed

d)

the beginning of a plant's growth when it uses sunlight

161.

What are the basic conditions needed for germination to start?

a)

water, sunlight, oxygen

b)

water, soil, oxygen

c)

water, oxygen, the right temperature

d)

soil, sunlight, water

162.

True or False: Dormancy occurs when a seed is never able to germinate

a)

True

b)

False

163.

What is the name of an embryonic leaf?

a)

meristem

b)

shoot

c)

radicle

d)

cotyledon

164.

What is the name of the embryonic root?

a)

meristem

b)

shoot

c)

radicle

d)

cotyledon

165.

True/False: All seeds need light to germinate

a)

True

b)

False

166.

If you put two seeds on a plate, sprayed one of the seeds with water and left the other one dry, which would you expect to germinate?

a)

the wet seed

b)

the dry seed

c)

neither; seeds need soil to germinate

167.

True/False: Animals CAN BE important for seed germination

a)

True

b)

False

168.

Why is oxygen important for germination?

a)

the embryonic plant uses oxygen to extract energy from its food stores

b)

the embryonic plant uses oxygen to soften its seed coat

c)

oxygen is needed for the plant to breathe

d)

oxygen is not important for germination

169.

The process of releasing energy from glucose in the presence of oxygen is called...

a)

anaerobic respiration

b)

aerobic respiration

c)

inhalation

d)

imbibition

170.

What is the "end point" of germination?

a)

The plant is fully grown and producing fruit

b)

The true leaves develop, which can then provide energy to the plant through photosynthesis.

c)

The radicle emerges from the seed coat.

d)

Water causes the seed to swell and soften.

171.

Which best describes the starting point of germination?

a)

Water causes a dormant seed to soften, swell, and activates enzymes inside embryonic tissues.

b)

The radicle emerges from the seed.

c)

The cotyledon emerge from the seed coat.

d)

The seedling produces true leaves.

172.

Which best describes if seeds are living or nonliving?

a)

Seeds are only considered alive once the plant is growing out of the seed.

b)

Seeds are considered living entities because there are living embryonic tissues inside the seed.

c)

Seeds are NOT living because they are not growing or using energy.

d)

Seeds are not living until they are watered.

173.

Food/energy for the a germinating seed comes from...

a)

proteins, sugars, and fats in the cotyledon

b)

Visible light

c)

Heat

d)

Soil

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