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CDB 1 Review-Weather, Force and Motion, Organisms & Environmen

Total questions: 170

Worksheet time: 5hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)

High pressure system

b)

Low pressure system

c)

Cold front

d)

Warm front

2.
What does this symbol indicate on a weather map? 
a)

High pressure system

b)

Low pressure system

c)

Cold front

d)

Warm front

3.
What kind of weather is usually associated with a high pressure system?
a)

Sunny weather

b)

Precipitation (rain, snow, etc.)

4.
Which weather tool measures air pressure?
a)

thermometer

b)

barometer

c)

anemometer

d)

psychrometer

5.
This weather tool measures wind speed and direction
a)
thermometer
b)
barometer
c)
anemometer
d)
psychrometer
6.
Which weather tool measures temperature?
a)
thermometer
b)
barometer
c)
psychrometer
d)
anememeter
7.
The boundary  between two air masses is known as:
a)
front
b)
storm
c)
climate
d)
flood
8.
Hot air (RISES / FALLS) __________.
a)
RISES
b)
FALLS
9.
Cold air (RISES/ FALLS)  _________.
a)
RISES
b)
FALLS
10.
Which condition usually means cloudy, stormy weather?
a)
high pressure
b)
low pressure
11.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold front
d)
Warm front
12.
A _____ is a large, swirling, low-pressure system that forms over the Atlantic Ocean.
a)
blizzard
b)
cold front
c)
tornado 
d)
hurricane
13.
Rain, snow, sleet, and hail are all forms of _____.
a)
precipitation
b)
condensation
c)
evaporation
d)
climate
14.
The amount of water vapor present in the air is called ________________.
a)

weather

b)

humidity

c)

air mass

d)

dew point

15.
When a warm air mass gently slides on top of a cold air mass, and you have drizzly rain and then warmer weather, what type of front is it?
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
occluded front
d)
stationary front
16.
What type of storm front is this? 
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
17.
Located at the leading edge of a temperature drop off. Bring heavy thunderstorms, rain, and hail. Cool, fair weather is likely to follow.  
a)
Warm Front
b)
Cold Front
c)
Occluded Front
d)
Stationary Front 
18.
Located at the leading edge of a warm air mass. Brings gentle rain or light snow, followed by warmer, milder weather.  
a)
Warm Front
b)
Cold Front 
c)
Occluded Front 
d)
Stationary Front 
19.
Identify the type of front that is shown in the image.
a)
Occluded Front
b)
Cold Front
c)
Stationary Front
d)
Warm Front
20.
Identify the type of front that is shown in the image.
a)
Occluded Front
b)
Cold Front
c)
Stationary Front
d)
Warm Front
21.
The boundary  between two air masses is known as:
a)
front
b)
storm
c)
climate
d)
flood
22.
In _________ pressure systems, air sinks:
a)
high
b)
low
c)
medium
d)
none
23.
In _______ pressure systems, air rises
a)
high
b)
low
c)
medium
d)
none
24.
This type of front can bring strong storms
a)
cold
b)
warm
c)
stationary
d)
occluded
25.
A(n) _____ is a large body of air that has properties similar to the part of Earth's surface over which it depends.
a)
tornado
b)
pressure system
c)
front
d)
air mass
26.
What role do oceans play in hurricane formation?
a)

they provide cool, dense water

b)

warm water supplies energy to hurricanes

c)

warm ocean water slows hurricane formation

d)

cold ocean water supplies energy to hurricanes

27.
What causes warm air to rise?
a)
the fact that it's less dense than cold air 
b)
The fact that it weighs more than cold air 
c)
The fact that it has higher pressure than cold
d)
the fact that its more dense than cold air 
28.
What causes wind to blow?
a)
Differences in longitude 
b)
Shock waves from clouds 
c)
Differences in air temperature and pressure 
d)
The rotation of the earth
29.
Which term best describes how the earth's atmosphere is heated?
a)
Spirally
b)
Unevenly
c)
Circularly
d)
Kinetically
30.
What creates the air pressure difference between the equator and the poles?
a)
The length of the seasons
b)
The shape of the earth 
c)
the duration of the solar year
d)
The amount of direct sunlight each area receives 
31.
The reason why global winds flow from east to west and west to east, but not north to south, or south to north.
a)
Bernoulli's principle 
b)
Coriolis effect 
c)
high pressure 
d)
low pressure 
32.
When Earth's rotation causes the wind to curve 
a)
cloudy 
b)
Coriolis effect
c)
high pressure
d)
low pressure 
33.
When heat rises cools then sinks 
a)
high pressure 
b)
convection current 
c)
low pressure 
d)
stratospheric pressure  
34.
What is the name for cooler air blowing from the sea to land?
a)
Sea Breeze
b)
Land Breeze
c)
Mountain Breeze
d)
None of the Above
35.
What is the name for cooler air blowing from the land to the sea?
a)
Sea Breeze
b)
Land Breeze
c)
Mountain Breeze
d)
None of the Above
36.
True or False:
Land heats and cools faster than water causing wind and weather.
a)
True
b)
False
37.
What kind of breeze is this and when would it form?
a)
Land breeze - daytime
b)
Land breeze - nighttime
c)
Sea breeze - daytime
d)
Sea breeze - nighttime
38.
Which term best describes the type of wind which would most likely be present while playing on a sunny beach during the day?
a)
hurricane
b)
land breeze 
c)
sea breeze
39.
Which conditions will result in high winds?
a)
 large differences in air pressure 
b)
heavy rains over several days
c)
increase in evaporation rates 
d)
presence of cirrus clouds
40.

Which of these is NOT needed for hurricane formation?

a)

Latitude between 8 and 20 degrees

b)

Warm water Temperatures

c)

Low pressure

d)

High pressure

41.
Which law best describes a satellite orbiting the earth.  (It keeps going around and around...)
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration (2nd)
c)
3rd:  Law of Action & Reaction (3rd)
d)
Law of Orbits
42.
Which law best describes pushing a massive truck vs. pushing a smaller car?
a)
Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action & Reaction
d)
Law of Lemon Cars
43.
Which law best describes a rocket blasting off into space?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action & Reaction
d)
Rocket Science Law
44.
Force = 
a)
Mass divided by Acceleration
b)
Mass times Speed
c)
Mass  times  Acceleration
d)
Acceleration times Distance
45.
As you push a cart of supplies down the hall and turn a corner, things on the cart fall off, traveling the direction you were just going.  This is an example of which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action and Reaction
d)
The Seatbelt Law of Cartitude
46.
To get something to move faster, you must push harder.  This is an example of which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action and Reaction
d)
Law of Gravitation
47.
When you push your knuckles into a table, it hurts your knuckles.  This is an example of which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action & Reaction
d)
Knucklebuster's Law
48.
A ball thrown down to the ground bounces back up.  This is an example of which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action & Reaction
d)
Law of Elastics
49.
When you put a book on a table, the table pushes back up on the book.  This is an example of which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action and Reaction
d)
4th: Law of Library Levels
50.
A person is pushed forward into their seatbelt when a car stops.  This is an example of which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action and Reaction
d)
Seatbelt Safety Law
51.
A larger, more massive football player takes more force to tackle is best described by which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action Reaction
d)
Law of Linemen
52.
A person leaning on a wall and the wall pushing back is an example of which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action and Reaction
d)
Leaning Law
53.
A brick sits at rest on a table until you push on it.  This is explained by which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action and Reaction
d)
Lazybrick's Law
54.
Pushing harder as you skateboard causes you to speed up more is an example of which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action Reaction
d)
4th:  Longboard's Law
55.
A magician quickly pulls out the tablecloth from under the plates on a table and the plates stay.
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action and Reaction
d)
4th:  Waiter's Law
56.
You pull back the on a paddle and your canoe goes forward.  Which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action and Reaction
d)
Lakeside Law
57.
A larger car takes a bigger, more forceful engine to move it is an example of which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action Reaction
d)
Ford's Law
58.
Once the engine stops, a rocket coasts through space in a straight line demonstrates which law?
a)
1st:  Law of Inertia
b)
2nd:  Law of Mass and Acceleration
c)
3rd:  Law of Action and Reaction
d)
 Launch Law
59.
A(n)           is a push or pull.
a)
newton
b)
acceleration
c)
force
d)
momentum
60.
The        force is the sum of the forces felt by an object.
a)
sum
b)
net
c)
strong
d)
balanced
61.
In order for forces to be          , their effects must cancel each other out and not cause a change in an object's motion.
a)
balanced
b)
strong
c)
weak
d)
normal
62.
If unbalanced forces are acting on an object, it will       .
a)
not move
b)
spin
c)
move
d)
be balanced
63.

Which is NOT a NON contact force?

a)

Gravity

b)

Friction

c)

Magnetism

d)

Static / Electricity

64.
Gravity
a)
acts only on large objects.
b)
acts when objects are close. enough.
c)
acts on everything everywhere - it's universal.
d)
is a contact force.
65.
This describes the tendency of objects to keep doing what they were doing (resting or moving).
a)
mass
b)
inertia
c)
balance
d)
momentum
66.

What is the formula for speed?

a)

S=D/T

b)

S=T/D

c)

S=D*T

d)

I can't tell. I would go to jail.

67.

What is velocity?

a)

The change in direction

b)

A really cool place to live

c)

Speed with a direction

d)

distance over time

68.

What is Acceleration?

a)

How long it takes me to win at fortnite

b)

The direction of an object

c)

A change in Motion

d)

How fast something is moving

69.

Determine if the object was accelerating between 40 seconds and 60 seconds.

SPEED = DISTANCE/TIME

a)

No, the speed stayed the same

b)

Yes, the speed increased

c)

Yes, the speed decreased

d)

Yes. the speed stayed same

70.
Determine the velocity of the object if it was traveling East at 4 seconds.
a)
10 m/s East
b)
20 m/s
c)
10 m/s
d)
20 m/s East
71.
Tim went skydiving and fell down to the earth at 35mph south.  This describes Tim's...
a)
speed
b)
velocity
c)
acceleration
d)
Force
72.
Calculate the mass of a teddy bear that is dropped from a building if it hits the floor with a force of 1000N while accelerating at 25 m/s2.  FORCE = MASS X ACCELERATION

a)
25000kg
b)
40kg
c)
.025kg
d)
1025kg
73.
Determine the speed at 20 seconds based on the information shown in the graph.  Speed = distance/time
a)
2 m/s
b)
10 m/s
c)
20 m/s
d)
.5 m/s
74.
Calculate the force of a bowling ball when it strikes the pins if it was accelerating at 10 m/s2 and has a mass of 15kg.  Use the equation FORCE = MASS X ACCELERATION
a)
150N
b)
150Kg
c)
1.5N
d)
1500N
75.
In which free body diagram will the forces acting on the box result in it moving up and to the right?
a)
box 1
b)
box 2
c)
box 3
d)
box 4
76.
A school bus drives 35 mph down the street and slows as it approaches the stop sign.  This is an example of..

a)
acceleration
b)
speed
c)
velocity
d)
force
77.
Determine the speed of a golf ball that was hit 200meters in 5 seconds.  Use the equation SPEED = DISTANCE/TIME

a)
1000 m/s
b)
40 m/s
c)
.025 m/s
d)
100 m/s
78.
What Unit do we Measure Force in? 
a)
Newtons
b)
Joules
c)
Force
d)
Kg
79.
With unbalanced forces, the object will move in the direction that the _______ force is being applied.
a)
larger 
b)
smaller 
c)
equal 
80.
You push on a tree with 20 N of force. If the tree doesn't move, the tree is pushing back on you with _____of force.
a)
20N 
b)
40N 
c)
10N 
d)
70N
81.
Which has more Inertia? 
a)
Truck
b)
Ant
c)
A cat
d)
A skateboard
82.
A 20 kg bike accelerates at 10 m/s2.  What was the force applied?
a)
25
b)
200 N
c)
20 N
d)
10 N
83.
Unit of mass
a)
m/s 2
b)
m/s
c)
newtons
d)
kg
84.
What is Newton's 3rd Law
a)
F=ma
b)
Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
c)
An object at rest stays at rest, an object in motion stays in motion. 
d)
Friction 
85.
What can a force do?
a)
all of the above
b)
start a motion
c)
stop a motion
d)
change the direction of the motion
86.
Which is an example of velocity? 
a)
a girl increased her speed from 2km/hr to 4 km/hr
b)
a boy runs west at 10km/hr
c)
a dog chases its tail
d)
m/sec2
87.
Which type of force(s) will cause a change in an object's motion?
a)
gravity
b)
zero net force
c)
balanced forces
d)
unbalanced forces
88.
45 m/s2 is the... 
a)
Mass
b)
Force 
c)
Acceleration
d)
weight
89.

What is happening from point D to E?

a)

The object is moving at a constant speed

b)

The object is increasing speed

c)

The object is decelerating

d)

The object is NOT moving

90.
How many times does this object STOP moving?
a)
None
b)
Once
c)
Twice
d)
Three times
91.
How long did it take this object to travel 10 m?
a)
0 s
b)
10 s
c)
15 s
d)
20 s
92.

a)

He'll continue flying forward over the rock

b)

He will move backwards (opposite) 3 meters

93.

a)

Friction

b)

Inertia

94.

a)

A box with a mass of 2kg

b)

A box with a mass of 6kg

95.

a)

inertia

b)

a reaction force

96.

a)

A 1 g rock

b)

A 2000 g rock

97.

a)

500 m/sec2

b)

20 m/sec

98.

a)

north

b)

east

99.

a)

The force was only applied to the index card, so the coin tended to remain at rest until gravity pulled it down into the cup

b)

Moving the card applied an action force on the card and then gravity applied a reaction force on the coin

100.

a)
b)
101.

a)
b)
102.

***write only the number - no units

(a)  

103.

Which force produces a change in motion?

a)

unbalanced force

b)

balanced force

104.

What is the standard unit force is measured in?

a)

Newtons

b)

pounds

105.

What is the formula for force?

a)

F=M / A

b)

F=M x A

106.
Acceleration occurs when an object changes its speed or ______.
a)
direction
b)
force
c)
inertia
d)
mass
107.
Which runner stopped for a rest?
a)
Albert
b)
Bob
c)
Charlie
108.
Which runner won the race?
a)
Albert
b)
Bob
c)
Charlie
109.
How long did one of the runner's rest?
a)
8 seconds
b)
13 seconds
c)
5 seconds
d)
50 seconds
110.
Velocity is
a)
speed and acceleration
b)
constant speed
c)
a frame of reference
d)
speed in a given direction
111.
Acceleration is
a)
increasing speed
b)
decreasing speed
c)
changing direction
d)
all of the above
112.
A car driving at 50 miles per hour drives for 2 hours. What distance did it cover?
a)
50 miles
b)
25 miles
c)
100 miles
d)
75 miles
113.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
114.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
115.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
116.

What is happening between 2 and 3 seconds?

a)

The object is not moving.

b)

The object is not accelerating.

c)

The object is slowing down.

d)

The object is speeding up.

117.

What is happening between 3 seconds and 4 seconds?

a)

The object is moving in a negative direction.

b)

The object is returning to its starting position.

c)

The object is slowing to a stop.

d)

The object is changing direction.

118.
What is happening at E?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Fast steady speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Steady speed; returning to start position
119.
Which runner had a head start?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
120.
 Every morning, Tom walks along a straight road from his home to the bus stop. Below, is a graph representing Tom’s trip to school.
- What is the distance covered through the second segment, which is between 50 seconds, and 70 seconds?
a)
40 meters
b)
60 meters
c)
80 meters
d)
20 meters
121.
Which graph shows the object standing still?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
122.

What is this line of this graph showing?

a)

moving away from starting point at a constant speed

b)

moving back towards the starting point at a constant speed

c)

acceleration (getting faster)

d)

deceleration (getting slower)

123.
Which line represents an object moving at a faster speed?
a)
A
b)
B
124.
Alan travels 100 km in 5hrs. Find his average speed in km/h
a)
5km/hr
b)
10km/hr
c)
50km/hr
d)
20km/hr
125.
Joanna drives for 400km at an average speed of 80km/h. How long was her journey?
a)
Joanna's journey was 5hrs long
b)
Joanna's journey was 10hrs long
c)
Joanna's journey was 20hrs long
d)
Joanna's journey was 15hrs long
126.
Reese rides her bike 10 miles in 5 hours.
Avery rides her bike 15 miles in 5 hours. Which girl rides her bike faster?
a)
Reese
b)
Avery 
127.
a)
b)
c)
d)
128.
At 60 seconds, how far had this object traveled? 
a)
0 m
b)
10 m
c)
20 m
d)
40 m
129.

Which of the following is the correct equation for calculating SPEED?

a)

s = d / t

b)

s = d x t

c)

s = t / d

d)

s = d - t

130.

What two measurements are needed to calculate speed?

a)

mass and time

b)

temperature and mass

c)

time and distance

d)

distance and energy

131.

What is a unit of speed?

a)

Meters per second

b)

Seconds

c)

Meters per second squared

d)

Meters

132.
What is the average speed of the person during the first 5 seconds?
a)
0 m/s
b)
1 m/s 
c)
3 m/s
d)
6 m/s 
133.
If you slow down on your bicycle, you accelerate.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
134.
You are riding your bike at 9 km/h. Ten minutes later, your speed is 6 km/h.
a)
Acceleration occurred because speed increased.
b)
Acceleration occurred because speed decreased.
c)
Acceleration occurred because you changed directions.
135.
What makes velocity and acceleration differ from speed?
a)
time
b)
distance
c)
direction
d)
time2
136.

a)

He'll continue flying forward over the rock

b)

He'll fall straight down

c)

He and the skateboard will immediately stop

d)

He will move backwards 3 meters

137.

a)

Friction

b)

Inertia

c)

Acceleration

d)

Energy of Motion

138.

a)

A box with a mass of 2kg

b)

A box with a mass of 4kg

c)

A box with a mass of 6kg

d)

A box with a mass of 8kg

139.

a)

inertia

b)

mass

c)

a reaction force

d)

a gravitational force

140.

a)

A 1 g rock

b)

A 25 g rock

c)

A 500 g rock

d)

A 2000 g rock

141.

a)

500 m/sec2

b)

25 m/sec

c)

20 m/sec

d)

125 m/sec2

142.

a)

north

b)

south

c)

east

d)

west

143.

a)

The force was only applied to the index card, so the coin tended to remain at rest until gravity pulled it down into the cup

b)

Moving the card applied an action force on the card and then gravity applied a reaction force on the coin

c)

The card has less mass than the coin, so a smaller force of gravity acted on the card. The larger force of gravity made the coin fall

d)

The acceleration of the coin into the cup was equal and opposite to the acceleration of the card

144.

a)
b)
c)
d)
145.

a)
b)
c)
d)
146.

a)

1st Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

3rd Law

147.

a)

1st Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

3rd Law

148.

a)

1st Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

3rd Law

149.

a)

1st Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

3rd Law

150.

a)

1st Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

3rd Law

151.

a)

1st Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

3rd Law

152.

***write only the number - no units

(a)  

153.
Which force produces a change in motion?
a)
unbalanced force
b)
balanced force
c)
gravitational force
d)
frictional force
154.
What is the standard unit force is measured in?
a)
Newtons
b)
pounds
c)
grams
d)
meters
155.
What is the formula for force?
a)
F=M/A
b)
F=MA
c)
F=AX
d)
what is force?
156.

Which organisms all consume the same producer?

a)

Crabs, pilchards, blennies

b)

Euphausiids, sweeps, water fleas

c)

Tiger sharks, dolphins, octopuses

d)

Sea urchins, crabs, octopuses

157.

Which organisms in the food web shown above compete for the same food source in this environment?

a)

Grasshoppers and snakes

b)

Hawks and frogs

c)

Frogs and snakes

d)

Decomposers and grasses

158.

At which temperature range will there be the most competition for space among these fish species?

a)

5oC to 10oC

b)

10oC to 15oC

c)

15oC to 20oC

d)

25oC to 30oC

159.

A Cross Timbers rancher is concerned about competition between the ranch animals and the deer. Based on the graph, which ranch animals compete for the most food with white-tailed deer?

a)

Cattle that eat grass and feed

b)

Goats that eat weeds and shrubs

c)

Turkeys that eat seeds and fruit

d)

Hogs that eat fruit, seeds, and feed

160.

The student observes a great blue heron catching fish near the edge of the pond. Based on the information the student collected, which bird will compete with the great blue heron for the same hunting spots and similar prey?

a)

The mallard, because it hunts for fish while wading near the edge of the pond

b)

The pied-billed grebe, because it dives in open water to get crayfish on the bottom of the pond

c)

The great egret, because it hunts in water near the edge of the pond for fish and other prey

d)

None of these

161.

Before the Industrial Revolution, the peppered moths were a light gray-brown. A few were a dark gray-brown color. During the Industrial Revolution black soot covered the trees. Then the number of dark peppered moths increased, and the number of light peppered moths decreased. Why?

a)

The soot-covered trees camouflaged the dark moths

b)

The dark moths preyed on the light moths

c)

Bird populations increased in the areas near the factories

d)

The dark moths laid fewer eggs than the light moths

162.

Scientists are studying the effects of climate change on the Baltic Sea. Some scientists predict that if current trends continue, the Baltic Sea will become less salty, and it will contain less dissolved oxygen. As a result of these changes, the Baltic Sea will have less biodiversity. Which statement best explains why biodiversity in the Baltic Sea could decrease if these changes occur?

a)

Fewer types of plants and animals are found in warm water than in cool water

b)

Plants and animals adapted for living in saltwater will grow more slowly in water that has less salt

c)

Plants and animals adapted for living in saltier conditions will not be able to survive and reproduce

d)

Animals adapted for living in warm water will eat all the plants and animals adapted for living in cool water

163.

Copper compounds are used in large amounts to control the growth of algae and other aquatic plants. Copper interferes with photosynthesis in these organisms. What would be the most likely result of an accidental spill of these compounds in an aquatic environment?

a)

The fish would grow larger than usual

b)

The zooplankton population would increase

c)

The plants would increase in size but decrease in number

d)

The plant populations would be reduced

164.

DDT is a pesticide that was once widely used to control agricultural pests and mosquitoes. However, this pesticide caused the eggshells of certain birds, including the brown pelican, to become fragile and thin. The adults would then accidentally crush the eggs while trying to incubate them. What happened to brown pelican populations as a result of DDT use by humans?

a)

The populations increased much

more slowly.

b)

The populations decreased as fewer eggs survived long enough to hatch

c)

The populations remained stable over time

d)

The populations increased as pelicans laid more eggs so that more offspring would survive

165.

What is the most likely explanation for the body-size distribution of house sparrows shown on the map?

a)

Cold temperatures in the North favored the survival of populations of larger sparrows over populations of smaller sparrows

b)

High elevations in the West provided a survival advantage for populations of larger sparrows over populations of smaller sparrows

c)

Warm temperatures in the South allowed populations of larger sparrows to survive over populations of smaller sparrows

d)

Coastal environments in the East tended to give a survival advantage to populations of larger sparrows over populations of smaller sparrows

166.

Green crabs carry a parasitic worm that can infect organisms that prey on the crabs. Which organism is most likely to be infected by this parasite?

a)

Gulls

b)

Barnacle

c)

Marsh Periwinkles

d)

Blue Mussels

167.

How many organisms in this food web eat only producers?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

168.

Which of these human activities is most likely to cause the excessive growth of phytoplankton in the world’s oceans?

a)

The use of chemical fertilizers that are carried by runoff into rivers

b)

The logging of old-growth forests, which results in erosion

c)

The spraying of chemical herbicides that reduce carbon dioxide in the air

d)

The mining of fossil fuels, which requires digging underground tunnels

169.

A coastal area that once supported a thriving fishing industry is overfished. The number of species found living in the marine ecosystem decreases. Which of these activities is most likely to increase the natural biodiversity in the area?

a)

Building artificial reefs and limiting fishing activity

b)

Introducing non-native species to fill unoccupied habitats and banning fishing

c)

Building artificial reefs and increasing fishing activity

d)

Eliminating non-native species and encouraging fishing for large predatory fish

170.

Some areas of an ocean are known as dead zones. These zones form when excess organic material decomposes. This increased decomposition uses up the oxygen from the water. Which human activity is most affected by the increasing number of dead zones in the ocean?

a)

Offshore oil drilling, because water in dead zones is toxic

b)

Commercial fishing, because fish cannot survive without oxygen

c)

Commercial shipping, because dead zones change the course of ocean currents

d)

Sand mining, because oxygen is not available to form the sands on ocean beaches

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