wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

SSA Test Prep for Grade 8 Science

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 2hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The factor measured or observed during an experiment.

a)

dependent variable (outcome variable)

b)

independent variable (test variable)

c)

constant

d)

control

2.

The factor the scientist is testing.

a)

independent variable (test variable)

b)

dependent variable (outcome variable)

c)

control

d)

constant

3.

Factors in an experiment that are unchanged.

a)

independent variable (test variable)

b)

dependent variable (outcome variable)

c)

constant

d)

control

4.

The group that does not receive the independent (test) variable.

a)

independent group

b)

constant group

c)

experimental group

d)

control group

5.

A possible explanation for an observation that can be tested by scientific investigations.

a)

prediction

b)

hypothesis

c)

inference

d)

claim

6.

An explanation of observations or events that is based on knowledge gained from many observations and investigations.

a)

scientific statement

b)

scientific law

c)

scientific theory

d)

scientific explanation

7.

A rule that describes a pattern in nature.

a)

scientific explanation

b)

scientific law

c)

scientific theory

d)

scientific statement

8.

A logical explanation of an observation that is drawn from prior knowledge or experience.

a)

hypothesis

b)

prediction

c)

inference

d)

theory

9.

Information that is obtained through observation or experimentation.

a)

empirical evidence

b)

observation

c)

prediction

d)

hypothesis

10.

The process of a scientist completing multiple trials of their own experiment.

a)

observation

b)

experimentation

c)

replication

d)

repetition

11.

The process of repeating the work of another scientist to confirm or validate results.

a)

observation

b)

experimentation

c)

replication

d)

repetition

12.

The act of using one or more of your senses to gather information and taking note of what occurs.

a)

empirical evidence

b)

observation

c)

science

d)

prediction

13.

A scientific investigation performed in controlled settings such as a laboratory and involving different test groups.

a)

field study

b)

experiment

c)

investigation

d)

study abroad

14.

A summary of the information gained from testing a hypothesis.

a)

inference

b)

conclusion

c)

prediction

d)

hypothesis

15.

prototypes, math models, computer simulations, and physical representations are all examples of:

a)

scientific models

b)

experiments

c)

engineering

d)

investigations

16.

Information gathered during an experiment.

a)

variables

b)

data

c)

observations

d)

predictions

17.

A process scientists use to collect empircal evidence.

a)

investigation

b)

experiment

c)

data analysis

d)

prediction

18.

Not biased.

a)

hypothesis

b)

inference

c)

objective

d)

prediction

19.

The part of an experiment that may change.

a)

constant

b)

control

c)

steps

d)

variable

20.

The transfer of energy from a wave to the medium through which it travels.

a)

heat

b)

absorption

c)

disturbance

d)

vibration

21.

The maximum distance a wave varies from its rest position. Shows how much energy the waves carries.

a)

wavelength

b)

medium

c)

amplitude

d)

height

22.

Range of electromagnetic waves with varying amplitude and wavelength.

a)

visible light

b)

electromagnetic spectrum

c)

visible spectrum

d)

invisible spectrum

23.

A transverse wave that can travel through empty space and through matter.

a)

compressional wave

b)

transitional wave

c)

sound wave

d)

electromagnetic wave

24.

The number of wavelengths that pass by a point each second.

a)

frequency

b)

amplitude

c)

wavelength

d)

energy

25.

A material in which a wave travels.

a)

substance

b)

medium

c)

matter

d)

material

26.

A material through which light does not pass.

a)

opaque

b)

transluscent

c)

transparent

d)

solid

27.

The transfer of thermal energy by electromagnetic waves.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

heat

28.

The bouncing of a wave off a surface.

a)

radiation

b)

refraction

c)

reflection

d)

reduction

29.

The change in direction of a wave as it changes speed moving from one medium to another.

a)

radiation

b)

refraction

c)

reflections

d)

redirection

30.

A longitudinal wave that can travel only through matter.

a)

transverse wave

b)

light wave

c)

electromagnetic wave

d)

sound wave

31.

A material that allows most of the light that strikes it to pass through, but through which objects appear blurry.

a)

translucent

b)

transparent

c)

opaque

d)

solid

32.

A material that allows almost all the light striking it to pass through, and through which objects can be seen easily.

a)

opaque

b)

transparent

c)

transluscent

d)

solid

33.

Weakest energy electromagnetic wave.

a)

radio wave

b)

microwave

c)

xray

d)

gamma ray

34.

Strongest energy electromagnetic wave.

a)

radio wave

b)

micro wave

c)

xray

d)

gamma ray

35.

The distance between one point on a wave and the nearest point just like it.

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

frequency

d)

rest position

36.

What type of wave is this?

a)

transverse

b)

longitudinal

c)

compressional

d)

earthquake

37.

What type of wave is this?

a)

transverse

b)

longitudinal

c)

earthquake

d)

light

38.

Which term determines a waves pitch?

a)

amplitude

b)

wavelength

c)

frequency

d)

rest position

39.

Which term determines a waves energy?

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency

c)

wavelength

d)

rest position

40.

The brittle, rocky outer layer of Earth.

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

inner core

d)

outer core

41.

An area of Earth's crust that has an extended break in it.

a)

hotspot

b)

earthquake

c)

plate

d)

fault

42.

A type of rock formed from cooling magma or lava.

a)

sediment

b)

sedimentary rock

c)

igneous rock

d)

metamorphic rock

43.

Molten rock that is present on Earth's surface.

a)

magma

b)

lava

c)

igneous

d)

metamorphic

44.

Molten rock that is present under Earth's surface.

a)

magma

b)

lava

c)

igneous

d)

metamorphic

45.

Rocks formed by extreme high temperatures and pressure without melting.

a)

sediment

b)

sedimentary rock

c)

igneous rock

d)

metamorphic rock

46.

Theory that Earth's surface is broken into large, rigid pieces that move with respect to each other.

a)

plate tectonics

b)

continental drift

c)

pangea

d)

earthquakes

47.

A type of rock formed through lithification of other pieces of rocks and minerals.

a)

sediment

b)

sedimentary rock

c)

igneous rock

d)

metamorphic rock

48.

Rigid parts of Earth's surface that are broken into pieces and move because of convection currents in Earth's mantle.

a)

tectonic plates

b)

plate tectonics

c)

continents

d)

rocks

49.

Natural disaster involving water that results from plate movement in oceans.

a)

earthquake

b)

tsunami

c)

hurricane

d)

volcano

50.

The plastic layer of the mantle that tectonic plates "float" on.

a)

asthenosphere

b)

upper mantle

c)

lower mantle

d)

lithosphere

51.

Tectonic plates colliding.

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

d)

ridge

52.

Tectonic plates moving away from each other.

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

d)

ridge

53.

Tectonic plates sliding past each other.

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

d)

ridge

54.

This layer of Earth's rotation generates our magnetic field.

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

inner core

d)

outer core

55.

The only liquid layer of Earth.

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

inner core

d)

outer core

56.

Earthquakes, mid ocean ridges, volcanoes, tsunamis, and fault zones are all results of:

a)

tectonic plate movement

b)

weather

c)

human impact

d)

gravity

57.

Dating rock formations using radioactive isotopes in fossils or other remains.

a)

absolute dating

b)

relative dating

c)

law of superposition

d)

radioactive decay

58.

Dating a rock formation by comparing it to the layers around it.

a)

absolute dating

b)

relative dating

c)

carbon dating

d)

radioactive dating

59.

The principle that relative dating is based on.

a)

law of superposition

b)

radioactive decay

c)

absolute dating

d)

fossils

60.

Remains of organisms that lived for a short period of time and were wide spread.

a)

mold fossils

b)

cast fossils

c)

index fossils

d)

amber fossils

61.

A series of chemical reactions that covert the energy in food molecules into a usable form of energy called ATP.

a)

cellular respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

endothermic

d)

exothermic

62.

A series of events that are regularly repeated in the same order

a)

steps

b)

cycle

c)

process

d)

rotation

63.

The process by which green plants and some other organisms use sunlight to synthesize foods from carbon dioxide and water.

a)

cellular respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

endothermic

d)

exothermic

64.

Starting components of a chemical reaction.

a)

elements

b)

molecules

c)

reactants

d)

products

65.

Substance formed as a result of a chemical reaction.

a)

element

b)

molecule

c)

reactant

d)

product

66.

A nonliving part of the ecosystem.

a)

biotic

b)

abioitic

c)

competition

d)

survival

67.

BIOLOGY

A change or the process of change by which an organism or species becomes better suited to its environment.

a)

adaptation

b)

survival

c)

predation

d)

commensalism

68.

An organism that can produce its own food using light, water, carbon dioxide, or other chemicals.

a)

autotroph

b)

heterotroph

c)

predator

d)

prey

69.

The variety of life in the world or in a particular habitat or ecosystem.

a)

hydrodiversity

b)

autodiversity

c)

geodiversity

d)

biodiversity

70.

Any living thing that has an effect on an ecosystem

a)

biotic

b)

abiotic

c)

predator

d)

prey

71.

A symbiotic relationship that benefits one species but does not harm or benefit the other.

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Commensalism

c)

Predation

d)

Mutualism

72.

The demand for resources, such as food, water, and shelter, in short supply in a community.

a)

competition

b)

predation

c)

symbiosis

d)

consumption

73.

All the living things and nonliving things in a given area.

a)

niche

b)

habitat

c)

ecosystem

d)

planet

74.

The process by which different kinds of living organisms are thought to have developed and diversified from earlier forms during the history of the earth.

a)

adaptation

b)

evolution

c)

growth

d)

change

75.

An organism that eats other plants or animals for energy and nutrients

a)

heterotroph

b)

autotroph

c)

prey

d)

producer

76.

A symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit.

a)

commensalism

b)

mutualsim

c)

symbiosis

d)

predation

77.

A symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is harmed.

a)

commensalism

b)

mutualism

c)

parasitism

d)

symbiosis

78.

A close, long-term relationship between two species that usually involves an exchange of food or energy.

a)

Predation

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Symbiosis

79.

The way a species interacts with abiotic and biotic factors to obtain food, find shelter, and fulfill other needs.

a)

niche

b)

environment

c)

role

d)

ecosystem

80.

An energy resource that is available in limited amounts or that is used faster than it can be replaced in nature.

a)

unlimited resource

b)

renewable resource

c)

limited resource

d)

nonrenewable resource

81.

An energy resource that is replaced as fast as, or faster than, it is used.

a)

unlimited resource

b)

renewable resource

c)

limited resource

d)

nonrenewable resource

82.

A flashlight runs on a battery. If the light is left on, the battery runs out and the flashlight stops working. Which statement best describes what has happened to the battery’s energy?

a)

It has been destroyed.

b)

It has changed to potential energy.

c)

It has been stored as kinetic energy.

d)

It has changed to thermal energy and light energy.

83.

Gordon throws a baseball into the air. It rises, stops when it reaches its greatest height, and then falls back to the ground. At what point does kinetic energy convert to potential energy?

a)

when the baseball is rising

b)

when the baseball is falling

c)

just after the baseball hits the ground

d)

while the baseball is stopped in the air

84.

The illustration below shows the locations of a rock as it rolls down a slope.

Which location shows the rock with the lowest amount of potential energy?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

85.

The illustration below shows the locations of a rock as it rolls down a slope.

Which location shows the rock with the lowest amount of kinetic energy?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

86.

At which labeled point does the diver have the GREATEST kinetic energy?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

87.

The picture represents the movement of a pendulum. What sequence represents when the KINETIC energy decreases and the POTENTIAL energy increases?

a)

5-4-3

b)

3-4-5

c)

1-2-3-4-5

d)

5-4-3-2-1-

88.

The pictures represents a roller coaster. In what segment of the trajectory the kinetic energy changes to potential?

a)

A-B

b)

A-C

c)

B-C

d)

C-D

89.

A change in which one or more substances are converted into new substances is a _______. (SC.8.P.9.2)

a)

physical change

b)

nuclear reaction

c)

chemical change

d)

chemical fusion

90.

Jenna wants to paint her room light purple. She makes a mixture of 70% pink paint and 30% blue paint to create the shade she likes. Which of the following best describes what occurs when she mixes the paint? (SC.8.P.9.2)

a)

An energy change occurs as the paint's chemical properties change.

b)

A phase change occurs, allowing the two colors to mix evenly together.

c)

A chemical change occurs as the different color particles react with each other.

d)

A physical change occurs, since only the physical properties of the paint change.

91.

Joey is performing an experiment in science class. He mixes two liquids in a test tube, and gas bubbles appear at the surface of the test tube. What type of changes are most likely taking place? How do you know? (SC.8.P.9.2)

a)

Physical change because you can separate the mixture.

b)

Physical change because it still is a liquid.

c)

Chemical change because he used chemicals.

d)

Chemical change because a gas formed.

92.

When 16 grams of Tin and Hydrogen Fluoride react, they must produce how many grams of product? (SC.8.P.9.1)

a)

32

b)

8

c)

20

d)

16

93.

As the temperature in a chemical reaction __________ the reaction rate _________. (SC.8.P.9.3)

a)

rises, lowers

b)

lowers, rises

c)

rises, rises

d)

none of the above

94.

Three examples of physical changes are ______________________. (SC.8.P.9.3)

a)

boiling of water, bursting of a balloon, and crumpling a piece of paper

b)

burning of gasoline, rotting of an egg, and exploding fireworks

c)

freezing of water, evaporation of gasoline, and rusting a nail

d)

sawing of wood, crushing a can, and toasting a marshmallow

95.

During a chemical reaction, matter cannot be __________ or created. (SC.8.P.9.1)

a)

Changed

b)

Destroyed

c)

Created

d)

Moved

96.
A group of friends gather around a fire to stay warm.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)

insulation

97.
The Gulf Stream is a current that brings warm ocean water from the south to the north.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)

insulation

98.
Which direction will the heat flow while this ice cap melts?
a)
there is no heat transfer
b)

from the ice cap to the water

c)

from the water to the ice cap

d)

in both directions

99.

The man goes to take the hot pot off the stove with his bare hands and gets burned.

a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)

insulation

100.

The picture shows the process that causes a glow stick to emit light. Based on the picture, which of the following describes the energies involved?

a)

Kinetic energy cracks the stick, allowing gravitational energy to transform into light

b)

Mechanical energy cracks the stick, allowing chemical energy to transform into light

c)

Chemical energy cracks the stick, allowing thermal energy to transform into light

d)

Thermal energy cracks the stick, allowing potential energy to transform into light

101.

A man plugs in an iron to press a shirt. Within a couple of minutes the metal part of the iron is very hot. What type of energy transformation is taking place?

a)

chemical energy to light energy

b)

light energy to electrical energy

c)

thermal energy to chemical energy

d)

electrical energy to thermal energy

102.

Heat flow is the transfer of energy from __________.

a)

a cooler object to a warmer object

b)

a solid object to a fluid object

c)

a warmer object to a cooler object

d)

a fluid object to a solid object

103.

The table shows the number of neutrons, protons, and electrons for two atoms. How are the two atoms alike?

a)

They have the same charge.

b)

They have the same mass number.

c)

They have the same atomic number

d)

They are atoms of the same element.

104.

The diagram shows the arrangement of electrons in a neon atom. How many protons are present in this atom's nucleus?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

2

d)

There is not enough information to answer this question.

105.

In the diagram, the arrows labeled III point to the atom's ______________.

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Nucleus

d)

Electrons

106.

Elements with seven valence electrons —

a)

are highly reactive

b)

are highly stable

c)

have a high mass

d)

have a low mass

107.

The atoms of a certain element each contain 11 protons and 1 valence electron. Which statement correctly identifies this element and describes its chemical reactivity?

a)

The element is sodium, and it is highly reactive

b)

The element is fluorine, and it is highly reactive

c)

The element is sodium, and it is not very reactive

d)

The element is fluorine, and it is not very reactive

108.

Which of these elements would have properties most similar to arsenic (As)?

Use the periodic table and your notes slides.

a)

Silicon (Si)

b)

Selenium (Se)

c)

Tin (Sn)

d)

Phosphorus (P)

109.

Sulfur is a nonmetal. Of the following, the physical characteristic that is most

likely to describe a sample of sulfur is —

a)

a shiny appearance

b)

brittleness

c)

malleability

d)

ductility

110.

How many of each atom are in the compound above?

a)

1 magnesium atom, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

b)

3 magnesium atoms, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

c)

6 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

d)

3 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

111.

Potassium nitrate is a compound used in some fertilizers. Its chemical formula

is KNO3. How many TOTAL atoms are in each unit of potassium nitrate?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

3

d)

9

112.

Look at the pictures above. A shows the bag before the vinegar and baking soda are mixed together, and B shows it after they are mixed together. In which picture do the contents of the bag have the greater mass?

a)

The mass is greater in A—before they are mixed.

b)

The mass is greater in B—after they are mixed.

c)

The mass is the same in both.

d)

The mass depends on the temperature.

113.

Which of the following is the best clue that a chemical reaction has taken place?

a)

Change in color

b)

Change in state

c)

Change in particle size

d)

Change in volume

114.

A student uses a magnet to move a .04 kg ball bearing. The magnet exerts a force of 4N, which causes the ball bearing to begin moving. What is the acceleration of the ball bearing when it begins to move?

a)

.01 m/s2

b)

.16 m/s2

c)

3.96 m/s2

d)

100 m/s2

115.

While practicing in a simulator, an astronaut experienced an acceleration of 26 m/s2. The astronaut's mass was 63.0 kg. In Newtons, what force did the astronaut experience?

a)

2.42 N

b)

37 N

c)

1638 N

d)

42,588 N

116.

In this model, which particle determines the reactivity of this atom?

a)

Particle W

b)

Particle X

c)

Particle Y

d)

Particle Z

117.

Which table is correct? (use your periodic table and notes slides)

a)
b)
c)
d)
118.
This rock was another type of rock that was heated and compressed over time. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
119.
This rock started as molten magma. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
120.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
121.
Cooling & crystalization produce
a)
igneous rocks
b)
metamorphic rocks
c)
sedimentary rocks
122.
True or False: Once a rock is sedimentary, it cannot become an igneous rock.
a)
True
b)
False
123.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
124.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
magma, lava, crystals
125.
The process by which igneous rocks are formed...
a)
heat and pressure
b)
melting and cooling
c)
weathering and erosion
126.
The process by which metamorphic rocks are formed...
a)
heat and pressure
b)
erosion and deposition
c)
melting and cooling
127.
The name rock is given when it is broken down into smaller pieces.
a)
texture
b)
weathering
c)
sediment
d)
erosion
128.

This type of rock may from fossils of once living plants or animals.

a)

Metamorphic

b)

Igneous

c)

Sedimentary

129.
True/False: Igneous rocks can only turn into metamorphic rocks.
a)
True
b)
False
130.
The process in which dissolved minerals crystallize and glue sediment together.
a)
compaction
b)
deposition
c)
organic rock
d)
cementation
131.

The process in which layers of sediment get buried and squeezed together.

a)

compaction

b)

deposition

c)

cementation

132.

___________ is the amount of mass in a given volume.

a)

density

b)

mass

c)

volume

133.

________ is the amount of matter in an object.

a)

density

b)

mass

c)

volume

134.

________ is the amount of space that matter takes up.

a)

density

b)

mass

c)

volume

135.

does changing the shape of an object change it's density? Why or why not?

a)

Yes, because it would change its volume

b)

Yes, because it would change its mass

c)

No, because it's mass and volume would still be the same

d)

No, because the mass changes but the volume stays the same.

136.

What is the formula for density?

a)

d=v/m

b)

d=m/v

c)

v=m/d

d)

m=dv

137.

Why do air bubbles rise to the surface of a glass of water?

a)

Because the bubbles are lighter than water

b)

Because bubbles are more dense than water

c)

Because bubbles are less dense than water

138.

Why would you use metals with different densities for different jobs?

a)

because they have different densities and are better for different jobs

b)

because some of them look better than others

c)

because some of them are lighter than others

139.

How do I know if something will float on water?

a)

It's lighter than water

b)

It's density is less than water

c)

it's density is greater than water

d)

the densities are equal

140.

If I put liquids with varying densities into a beaker, which one would go to the bottom?

a)

the one with the least density

b)

the one with the greatest density

c)

they would all mix together

141.

A boundary in which 2 plates move together

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

142.

A region where the rigid plates are moving apart (away from each other)

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

143.

A boundary in which 2 plates slide past each other

a)

transform

b)

Divergent

c)

Convergent

144.

A fracture in Earth where movement has occurred

a)

rift valley

b)

fault

c)

volcano

145.

Deep faulted structure found at divergent plate boundaries

a)

rift valley

b)

fault

c)

mountain

146.

Process that forms new sea floor

a)

mid-ocean ridge

b)

continental drift

c)

sea-floor speading

147.

Place where sea floor is forced down into the mantle

a)

trench

b)

fault

c)

continental drift

148.

An underwater mountain range

a)

Appalachian

b)

Glacial deposits

c)

Mid-ocean ridge

149.

Clues that support the continental drift

a)

glacial deposits

b)

continental drift

c)

rocks, fossils and climate

150.

Movement of the continents

a)

sea-floor spreading

b)

continental drift

c)

mid-ocean ridge

151.

Which body system includes the lungs, trachea, and diaphragm?

a)

cardiovascular system

b)

respiratory system

c)

digestive system

d)

skeletal system

152.

Which body system includes the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas?

a)

digestive system

b)

respiratory system

c)

muscular system

d)

cardiovascular system

153.

Which body system includes the bones?

a)

respiratory system

b)

cardiovascular system

c)

muscular system

d)

skeletal system

154.

Which body system includes the brain and spinal cord?

a)

cardiovascular system

b)

respiratory system

c)

nervous system

d)

muscular system

155.

Which statement describes what happens when you eat a hamburger?

a)

The digestive system breaks down the hamburger, and the excretory system carries nutrients throughout the body.

b)

The digestive system carries nutrients to all the cells of the body through the blood, and the excretory system removes wastes.

c)

The digestive system breaks down the hamburger, and the circulatory system carries the nutrients throughout the body through the blood.

d)

The circulatory system carries the nutrients through the body, and the excretory system breaks down the hamburger.

156.

organ systems make up.....

a)

Tissues

b)

Organs

c)

Organ systems

d)

Organisms

157.

What is the correct order of organization?

a)

cells->tissue->organs->organ systems-> organism

b)

tissue->cells->organs->organ systems-> organism

c)

organs->organ systems-> organism->cells->tissue

158.
Which system takes oxygen into the body and eliminates carbon dioxide?
a)
immune
b)
nervous
c)
respiratory
d)
circulatory
159.
Which system detects information from the environment and directs the way your body responds to this information?
a)
excretory
b)
circulatory
c)
respiratory
d)
nervous
160.

___________ are the building blocks of life.

a)

cells

b)

legos

c)

organelles

d)

tissues

161.
In multicellular organisms, tissues are made up of _______.
a)
organs
b)
systems
c)
cells
d)
blood
162.
Which two body systems deliver oxygen to your cells and take away carbon dioxide?
a)
respiratory and nervous
b)
circulatory and nervous
c)
circulatory and excretory
d)
Respiratory and circulatory
163.

Which two body systems work together to break down food and get rid of wastes?

a)

digestive and excretory

b)

digestive and nervous

c)

excretory and respiratory

d)

nervous and digestive

164.

What is the maintenance of a stable internal environment?

a)

homeostasis

b)

metabolism

c)

respiration

d)

energy

165.

Which systems move and control the body?

a)

circulatory, nervous, muscular

b)

nervous, skeletal, respiratory

c)

nervous, digestive, circulatory

d)

nervous, muscular, skeletal

166.

The 8th Grade Statewide Science Assessment (SSA) is based on these standards,

a)

NGSS

b)

NGSSS

167.

Th 8th grade SSA is made up of all of the 8th grade science standards.

a)

True

b)

False

168.

There are more 7th grade standards than 8th grade standards on the SSA.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

There are an equal number

169.

The content of the SSA changes drastically each year.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

There is no way to actually know

170.

The category, Nature of Science, always counts the most number of points on the SSA.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

It depends

d)

Only the Magic 8 Ball knows for sure!

171.

The 4 Content Categories on the SSA are: Nature of Science, Earth and Space Science, Physical Science, and

a)

Phrenology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Life Science

d)

Geneology

172.

The number of questions on each year's SSA are:

a)

Between 50 and 55

b)

60 and 66

c)

70 and 77

d)

It varies widely each year

173.

Items on the SSA are classified as Low, Medium, or High Cognitive Complexity. Which of the three levels have the greatest number of items?

a)

Low

b)

Medium

c)

High

d)

All levels have the same number of items

174.

All tested standards have exactly the same importance and weight.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

One must consult the Magic 8 Ball once more!

175.

Which category of standards has had the greatest number of points assigned over the last 5 years?

a)

Earth and Space

b)

Life Science

c)

Nature of Science

d)

Physical Science

Similar Resources on Wayground

MITIGASI BENCANA

175 questions

MITIGASI BENCANA

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

Matter Quizizz Review

179 questions

Matter Quizizz Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

7th grade midterm exam review 2019-2020

171 questions

7th grade midterm exam review 2019-2020

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

Unit 3 Chemistry Part 2 Review Wayground Gregg

176 questions

Unit 3 Chemistry Part 2 Review Wayground Gregg

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

sound

180 questions

sound

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th - 8th Grade

Global Climate Change

178 questions

Global Climate Change

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 10th Grade