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8th Grade Midterm REVIEW

Total questions: 173

Worksheet time: 3hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the type of particle found in the cloud around an atom’s nucleus?

a)

It has a negative charge and much less mass than a neutron.

b)

It has a negative charge and about the same mass as a neutron.

c)

It has a positive charge and much less mass than a neutron.

d)

It has a positive charge and about the same mass as a neutron.

2.

Which statement accurately describes the atoms of a specific element?

a)

An Indium, In, atom contains 115 protons inside the nucleus and 49 neutrons outside the nucleus

b)

A scandium, Sc, atom contains 45 electrons outside the nucleus and 21 neutrons inside the nucleus

c)

An aluminum, Al, atom contains 27 electrons and 27 protons inside the nucleus

d)

A zinc, Zn, atom contains 30 protons inside the nucleus and 30 electrons outside the nucleus

3.

What is the total number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in a cadmium, Cd, atom that has a mass number of 112?

Hint: Use APEMAN

a)

48

b)

64

c)

160

d)

208

4.

What is the difference between the number of electrons in an atom of selenium, Se, and the number of electrons in an atom on aluminum, Al?

a)

34

b)

13

c)

21

d)

47

5.

How many valence electrons are in an atom of carbon (C)?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

12

d)

4

6.

Which element is LEAST reactive?

a)

Hydrogen (H)

b)

Titanium (Ti)

c)

Boron (B)

d)

Neon (Ne)

7.

Which element is MOST reactive?

a)

Hydrogen (H)

b)

Titanium (Ti)

c)

Boron (B)

d)

Neon (Ne)

8.

Group 18 on the periodic table is called the Noble Gases. Neon is a gaseous element that belongs to this group, and it is a chemically unreactive element and very stable. Why are neon atoms so stable and unreactive?

a)

They have 10 protons.

b)

They have 8 valence electrons.

c)

They have 10 neutrons.

d)

They have 2 electron energy levels.

9.

Which shaded region contains elements that are shiny, malleable solids?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

10.

In which shaded region would you expect to find dull, brittle solids?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

11.

Which shaded region has elements with properties of metals and nonmetals?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

12.

Which of the following pairs of elements is in the same period?

a)

Li and Mg

b)

B and F

c)

N and P

d)

Si and As

13.

Which element is found in all of these compounds?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Sodium

d)

Oxygen

14.

Which substances have the same number of Carbon atoms?

a)

2 and 4

b)

1 and 2

c)

1 and 3

d)

3 and 4

15.

Sodium sulfate is used in laundry detergent. It is a compound that contains 2 atoms of sodium, 1 atom of sulfur, and 4 atoms of oxygen. What is the correct chemical formula for sodium sulfate?

a)

NA2SO4

b)

Na2S2O4

c)

Na2SO4

d)

Na2SO8

16.

How many total atoms are represented in the chemical formula H3PO4 ?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

8

d)

12

17.

Which of the following represents a chemical reaction?

a)

a sugar cube dissolving in water

b)

a cake baking in an oven

c)

ice cubes forming in a freezer

d)

ice cream melting in a bowl

18.

A student performs the above reaction during a lab. The student masses the reactants and then performs the reaction. What is the mass (the amount of grams) of the products?

a)

19

b)

300.23

c)

20

d)

21

19.
What happens when chemical bonds break and new bonds form?
a)
a physical change
b)
a chemical reaction
c)
matter is destroyed
d)
surface area increases
20.
What is the Law of Conservation of mass?
a)
Mass is created in a chemical reaction
b)
Mass is created in a physical change
c)
New chemicals formed from a chemical reaction have a larger overall mass than the original reactants
d)
Mass is never created or destroyed
21.
In a reaction A + B ----> C,  reactant A has 5g and product  C has 9g. How many grams should reactant B have? 
a)
4g
b)
5g
c)
9g
d)
14g
22.
Matter can not be created nor destroyed: it can only be
a)
Destroyed a little bit
b)
Invisible
c)
Transformed, changed
d)
None of the above
23.

You know a chemical reaction has occurred if 

a)
there is a precipitate.
b)
there is a color change.
c)
there is a temperature change.
d)
All of these answers are evidence.
24.
During a demonstration of Newton’s laws of motion, a student used the setup shown in Figure 1. The student flicked the index card with a fingertip, and the coin fell straight down into a plastic cup as shown in Figure 2. Which of these best explains why the coin fell straight down into the cup instead of remaining on the index card?
a)
The coin was at rest until the card was removed, so it tended to remain in the same location. Once the card was gone, the unbalanced force of gravity caused the coin to fall.
b)
Moving the card applied an action force on the coin. Since the card was gone, gravity applied a reaction force on the coin.
c)
The card had less mass than the coin, so a smaller force of gravity acted on the card. The larger force of gravity on the coin made it fall.
d)
The acceleration of the coin falling into the cup was equal and opposite to the acceleration of the card.
25.
The masses of four vehicles and the net forces acting on them as they enter a highway are recorded in the table below. Which vehicle has the greatest acceleration as it enters the highway?
a)
Sedan
b)
Coupe
c)
SUV
d)
Truck
26.
A student lets a toy car roll four times down a ramp that is 1 m long. Each time the student covers the surface of the ramp with a different material. The student measures the time it takes the car to roll down the ramp and records the results in the table below. Which of these would be the best conclusion based on the data in the table?
a)
Different surfaces affect how fast a toy car accelerates.
b)
Different toy cars travel at different speeds.
c)
Gravity has little effect on the speed of toy cars on different surfaces.
d)
Air resistance is the greatest factor in limiting the acceleration of different toy cars.
27.
According to Newton’s Law of Inertia, which of the following objects will change its motion?
a)
A bike rider on a smooth and level road, pedaling at a constant rate.
b)
A train pulling on another train, each with the same amount of force.
c)
A chair sitting on the floor with balanced forces acting in opposite directions.
d)
A ball rolling across the floor with friction acting in the opposite direction.
28.
Safety belts protect people in cars in the event of an accident because, according to Newton’s Laws of Motion, when an impact causes the car to suddenly change its motion, -
a)
the people in the car will continue to move in the same direction and at the same speed as before the impact.
b)
the speed of the car always increases, giving it greater force since the mass will remain the same.
c)
the speed of the people always increases, since now they have, not one, but two forces acting on them.
d)
the car now has a greater overall mass - its own mass plus the mass of the object by which it has been struck.
29.
According to Newton’s Law of Inertia, an object that is moving will change its motion only if what kinds of forces act on it?
a)
Constant forces
b)
Unbalanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forcesStrong forces
d)
Gravitational forces
30.
What is the net force?
a)
20 N 
b)
0 N 
c)
400 N 
d)
40 N 
31.
What is the unit to MEASURE force?
a)
Kilogram
b)
Meter
c)
Pascal
d)
Newton
32.
What is the net force?
a)
10 N
b)
0 N
c)
25 N
d)
1 N
33.
The formula for Force is
a)
F= MxW
b)
F= MxA
c)
F=MxT
34.
What is Newtons 3nd law of motion?
a)
An object will stay in motion until something acts on it
b)
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
c)
F=MxA
35.
A runners races in the 100 meter dash.  It takes her 10 seconds to finish.  What is her average speed?
a)
10 m/s
b)
1000 m/s
c)
100 seconds
d)
10 seconds
36.
F=MA
An object of mass 10 kg is accelerated upward at 2 m/s2.  What force is required? 
a)
20 N
b)
2 N
c)
5 N
d)
0 N
37.
If an object is stationary (not moving) the forces acting upon it are _____________
a)
unbalanced
b)
weak
c)
balanced
d)
Hulk Smash!
38.
What is your speed if you run the 100m race in 20 seconds?
a)
200 m/s
b)
0.2m/s
c)
5m/s
d)
.5m/s
39.
Describe the motion between O and A
a)
constant speed
b)
at rest 
c)
moving away form the origin
d)
stationary
40.
Which picture represents a balanced force?
a)
top 
b)
bottom 
41.
m/s is a unit of
a)
velocity
b)
acceleration
c)
force 
d)
average speed 
42.
At what letters is there a balanced force (stationary)?
a)
O-A
b)
B-C 
c)
A-B
d)
D-E
43.
At which letter is potential energy the highest?
a)
b
b)
c
c)
a 
d)
d 
44.
A wheeled cart is moving to the right at a constant speed.  Two forces of equal magnitude are acting upon the cart. Which of the following best describes the forces and motion of the cart?
a)
Balanced Forces, Constant Speed
b)
Balanced Forces, Acceleration
c)
Unbalanced Forces, Constant Speed
d)
Unbalanced Forces, Acceleration
45.
Acceleration of an object happens when it ________
a)
slows down
b)
speeds up
c)
changes direction
d)
all of the these
46.

A 20.0 g sample of magnesium reacts with oxygen to form 26.6 g of magnesium oxide. How many grams of oxygen reacted?

a)

6.6 grams

b)

5.6 grams

c)

7.6 grams

d)

8.6 grams

47.

A student creates a mixture of water and washing soda weighing 10 g and a mixture of water and epsom salts weighing 15 grams. According to the law of conservation of mass, what should the weight of the products be after he mixes them?

a)

25 grams

b)

20 grams

c)

30 grams

d)

35 grams

48.

Why does a chemical reaction follow the law of conservation of mass? Select TWO correct answers.

a)

Only new reactants can form, but new products cannot.

b)

Both reactants and products must have the same elements present.

c)

Both reactants and products must have different elements present.

d)

No new elements can be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.

e)

The total mass of the products is always less than the total mass of the reactants.

49.

Which pH level correlates with a slippery texture?

a)

Above 7

b)

Below 7

c)

Exactly 7

d)

Neutral

50.

What is the pH level of ammonia?

a)

7.3

b)

4.0

c)

11.0

d)

6.5

51.

Which substance is acidic?

a)

Blood

b)

Orange Juice

c)

Ammonia

d)

Milk

52.

What is the characteristic of blood in terms of acidity or basicity?

a)

Acidic

b)

Slightly Basic

c)

Basic

d)

Slightly Acidic

53.

According to the Law of Conservation of Mass, is the chemical equation CH₄ + 2O₂ → 2CO₂ + 2H₂O balanced or unbalanced?

a)

Balanced

b)

Unbalanced

c)

Cannot be determined

d)

Partially balanced

54.

How many carbon atoms are present in the products of the equation CH₄ + 2O₂ → 2CO₂ + 2H₂O?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

55.

What is the minimum rubric score a student can receive for their response to the question about the chemical equation?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

56.

The Law of Conservation of Mass states Matter is NEITHER created nor destroyed.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Why does this picture demonstrate the Law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

the number of atoms of each element are the same on both sides

b)

The number of atoms on the left is more than on the left

c)

The products have a higher mass

d)

It doesn't demonstrate the Law of Conservation of Mass

58.

This is the decomposition reaction of hydrogen peroxide. According to the law of conservation of mass, if you start with 40g of hydrogen peroxide you should end up with _____g of water and oxygen combined.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

59.

The effect where the top of a liquid is strong and seems to stick together.

a)

density

b)

surface tension

c)

adhesion

d)

cohesion

60.

The property of water that allows it to stick to something else.

a)

density

b)

surface tension

c)

adhesion

d)

cohesion

61.

Water droplets on a spider web are an example of....

a)

density

b)

surface tension

c)

adhesion

d)

cohesion

62.

Water sticks to itself.

a)

density

b)

surface tension

c)

adhesion

d)

cohesion

63.

Water droplets joining together to make one large water droplet.

a)

density

b)

surface tension

c)

adhesion

d)

cohesion

64.

A water strider (bug) going across the water is an example of

a)

surface tension

b)

cohesion

c)

adhesion

d)

lesions

65.

This property of water allows the liquid to resist an external force due to water's cohesive nature

a)

adhesion

b)

lesion

c)

surface tension

d)

cohesion

66.

Water molecules stick together forming a "skin" on water known as ______ _________ allowing light objects to float.

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

opposites attract

c)

surface tension

d)

polar molecule

67.

______ causes water to form drops. This occurs when _______ molecules bond to water molecules.

a)

gas, water

b)

adhesion, water

c)

cohesion, gas

d)

cohesion, water

68.

The tightness across the surface of water that enables paper clips to float is ____________.

a)

adhesion

b)

capillary action

c)

surface tension

d)

polarity

69.

Why does water form a curved surface in a glass tube?

a)

Gravity pulling it down

b)

The tube's color

c)

Cohesion among water molecules

d)

Adhesion between water and glass

70.
What is adhesion?
a)
Water's ability to stick to itself
b)
Water's ability to stick to other substances
c)
The strength of the cohesion of all the water molecules combined
d)
Tape, glue and other adhesives
71.

Which of the following is an example of COHESION?

a)

water sticking to water

b)

water sticking to glass

c)

oil sticking to plastic

d)

hydrogen sticking to oxygen

72.

A water strider can skate along the top of a pond because:

a)

covalent bonds result in water adhesion (surface tension)

b)

cohesion allows strong hydrogen bonds in water to form below the surface (surface tension)

c)

water striders have adapted to take advantage of water cohesion

d)

water striders are afraid of water and avoid it

73.

A sledgehammer has a mass of 3.5 kilograms. What net force, to the nearest whole newton, will a person need to apply to accelerate the sledgehammer at a rate of 4.0 m/s²?

a)

12 N

b)

14 N

c)

16 N

d)

18 N

74.

Which rocket had the greatest acceleration?

a)

Rocket 1

b)

Rocket 2

c)

Rocket 3

d)

Rocket 4

75.

A student pushes a 51.5 kilogram bookshelf across a smooth floor with a net force of 67 N. What is the approximate acceleration of the bookshelf?

a)

1.3 m/s²

b)

3,450.5 m/s²

c)

15.5 m/s²

d)

0.77 m/s²

76.

The diagram shows a duck swimming in a stream in the opposite direction the stream is flowing. The duck pushes against the water, so the water pushes the duck forward with 20 newtons of force. The water also exerts 15 newtons of resistive force against the duck. Which statement best describes the resulting motion of the duck?

a)

The duck will stop moving.

b)

The duck will stop and then start moving again.

c)

The duck will continue moving in its current direction.

d)

The duck will move in the direction that the stream is flowing.

77.

Immediately after they push away from each other, how does the motion of the mother and daughter change?

a)

The mother moves forward, and the daughter moves backward with a greater acceleration.

b)

Both move forward, but the mother moves with a greater acceleration.

c)

The mother moves backward, and the daughter moves forward with a greater acceleration.

d)

Both move backward, but the daughter moves with a greater acceleration.

78.

The diagrams show forces acting on a toy car as it moves to the right. Which diagram shows the toy car that will most likely accelerate to the right based on these conditions?

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

79.

A student bounces a basketball off the gym floor. Which statement correctly describes the action-reaction force pair that causes the ball to bounce?

a)

The gym floor pushes up on the ball as the ball pushes down on the floor with an equal amount of force.

b)

The gym floor pushes up on the ball with a greater amount of force than the ball pushes down on the floor.

c)

The gym floor pushes up on the ball as gravity pulls down on the ball with an equal amount of force.

d)

The gym floor pushes up on the ball with a greater amount of force than gravity pulls down on the ball.

80.

A plastic tube is arranged on a lab tabletop as shown. A small sphere enters one end of the tube with enough speed to come out the other end of the tube. Which diagram shows where the sphere will go first when it leaves the tube?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

81.

A photograph of a bird perched on a fence post is shown. Which description best identifies the action-reaction pair between the bird and the fence post?

a)

Action: The force of the bird on the wires, Reaction: The force of the wires on the fence post.

b)

Action: The force of the wires on the fence post, Reaction: The force of the fence post on the bird.

c)

Action: The force of the fence post on the bird, Reaction: The force of the bird on the wires.

d)

Action: The force of the bird on the fence post, Reaction: The force of the fence post on the bird.

82.

When a coin is tossed in the air, it travels upward, gradually slows down, momentarily reaches zero speed, then moves back downward with increasing speed. Which statement best explains this change in the coin’s motion?

a)

The force of gravity causes the coin to change its velocity.

b)

The coin’s inertia decreases on the way up and increases on the way down.

c)

The action-reaction force pair of gravity and the applied force cancel each other.

d)

The coin remains in its state of upward motion until the force of friction acts upon it.

83.

A steel ball is at one end of a box that is moving forward as shown. The box suddenly stops. According to Newton’s first law, what happens to the steel ball just after the box stops?

a)

Because of friction, the ball continues rolling forward at the same speed.

b)

Because of friction, the ball rolls forward at an increased speed.

c)

Because of inertia, the ball continues rolling forward at the same speed.

d)

Because of inertia, the ball rolls forward at an increased speed.

84.

A skater pushes off a wall and skates backward for a few meters before stopping. Which statement best describes an action-reaction force pair in this situation?

a)

The wall pushes on the skater when the skater pushes on the wall.

b)

The wheels slow down, and the skater stops.

c)

The skater exerts a force on the wall, and the wheels exert a force on the floor and begin to turn.

d)

The friction of the floor decreases when the wheels roll on the floor.

85.

A large rock is motionless on a flat sidewalk. Which statement best explains why the rock remains motionless?

a)

There are no forces acting on the rock.

b)

The only force acting on the rock is directed toward the sidewalk.

c)

The forces acting on the rock are all balanced.

d)

The sidewalk exerts an unbalanced force on the rock.

86.

A pitcher throws a ball toward a player holding a softball bat. The player uses the bat to hit the ball. The bat applies a 10-newton force to the ball. Which statement correctly describes the reaction force between the bat and ball?

a)

The reaction force is the force that causes the ball to move toward the bat.

b)

The reaction force is the force applied to the bat by the player holding the bat.

c)

The reaction force is the force that pulls the ball toward the ground.

d)

The reaction force is the force of the ball on the bat.

87.

Scientists observed a celestial object emitting a wavelength of 3 x 10-10m. What type of telescope did the scientists have to use to view this?

a)

Radio wave

b)

Infrared ray

c)

X-ray

d)

Gamma Ray

88.

What electromagnetic spectrum is associated with the colors red, green, and blue?

a)

gamma rays

b)

visible light

c)

radio waves

d)

x-rays

89.

Which statement BEST describes how scientific data are used to explain the origin of the universe?

a)

The relative number of hydrogen and helium atoms in the universe provides evidence that these atoms formed in stars.

b)

Red-shifted light from galaxies shows that the universe is expanding, so there must have been a beginning of the expansion.

c)

Red-shifted light from galaxies shows that the universe is in a steady state, so the universe is static and does not expand or contract.

d)

The relative number of hydrogen and helium atoms in the universe provides evidence that these elements have always been present.

90.

What is the primary reason for the cosmic microwave background radiation observed in the universe?

a)

It is caused by the scattering of light by cosmic dust.

b)

It is the result of black holes emitting radiation.

c)

It is the afterglow of the Big Bang.

d)

It is the result of the fusion of hydrogen in stars.

91.

The diagrams show a wave before and after more energy was applied. Compare the original wave with the new wave after the change. How did the characteristics of the wave change after the energy was applied? Circle TWO correct answers.

a)

The energy applied increased the frequency.

b)

The energy applied increased the amplitude.

c)

The energy applied increased the wavelength.

d)

The wavelength and frequency decreased after energy was applied.

e)

The amplitude remained the same before and after energy was applied.

92.

Which does the existance of cosmic background radiation support?

a)

the Big Bang Theory

b)

the inflationary model

c)

critical density

d)

Hubble constant

93.

The wave frequency of a tsunami is greater closer to shore compared to farther at sea. What patterns can be observed in a tsunami wave as it approaches shore?

a)

It speeds up and increases in amplitude.

b)

It speeds up and decreases in amplitude.

c)

It slows down and increases in amplitude.

d)

It slows down and decreases in amplitude.

94.

A wave diagram is shown. What is the amplitude of the wave?

a)

2 m

b)

4 m

c)

6 m

d)

8 m

95.

A technician uses electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency range to sterilize a lab surface. Which type of electromagnetic waves would be best for this purpose?

a)

radio waves

b)

microwaves

c)

infrared waves

d)

ultraviolet waves

96.

8.8ab

a)

The atomic number of oxygen is 8. What is the atomic mass of oxygen?

b)

The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s². What is the acceleration due to gravity on the Moon?

c)

The speed of light is approximately 3.0 x 10^8 m/s. What is the speed of sound in air?

d)

The boiling point of water is 100°C. What is the freezing point of water?

97.

What is the approximate surface temperature of the Sun?

a)

3,000 C

b)

5,500 C

c)

10,000 C

d)

20,000 C

98.

What does the Y-axis of the HR diagram measures?

a)

Luminosity

b)

Temperature

99.

What does the X-axis of the HR diagram measures?

a)

Luminosity

b)

Temperature

100.

What is the color of the highest surface temperature?

a)

Red

b)

Orange

c)

White

d)

Blue

101.

What is the color of the lowest surface temperature?

a)

Red

b)

Orange

c)

White

d)

Blue

102.

Most of the stars on the HR diagram are classified as what type of star?

a)

White Dwarfs

b)

Blue Giants

c)

Red Giants

d)

Main Sequence

103.

What type of star has a high temperature and a high luminosity?

a)

White Dwarfs

b)

Blue Giants

c)

Red Supergiants

d)

Smaller Main Sequence stars

104.

What type of star has a high temperature and a low luminosity?

a)

White Dwarfs

b)

Blue Giants

c)

Red Supergiants

d)

Smaller Main Sequence stars

105.

What type of star has a low temperature and a high luminosity?

a)

White Dwarfs

b)

Blue Giants

c)

Red Supergiants

d)

Smaller Main Sequence stars

106.

What factor affects the luminosity of a star?

a)

Size of the star

b)

Surface temperature of the star

c)

Telescope quality

d)

Human eye-sight

107.

What factor affects the color of a star?

a)

Size of the star

b)

Surface temperature of the star

c)

Telescope quality

d)

Human eye-sight

108.
A star is born when ________________ begins to happen.
a)
nuclear fusion
b)
nuclear abrasion
c)
crying
d)
nuclear fission
109.
The core of a Red Giant collapses and becomes a ___________________.
a)
White Dwarf
b)
Blue Supergiant
c)
Red Supergiant
d)
Black Hole
110.
After a supernova, the core can collapse into a neutron star, or if massive enough even a ___________.
a)
Black Hole
b)
White Dwarf
c)
Brown Dwarf
d)
Black Dwarf
111.
When a Red Giant's outer atmosphere drifts away it is now known as a ____________.
a)
planetary cloud
b)
White Dwarf cloud
c)
planetary nebula
d)
expanding nebula
112.
A black hole is an object so dense with so much gravity that even ________ cannot escape.
a)
man
b)
bacon
c)
spaceships
d)
light
113.
a gigantic explosion that causes the death of a large star
a)
pulsar
b)
red giant 
c)
supernova
d)
black hole
114.
The color of a star depends on its
a)
size
b)
temperature
c)
shape
d)
magnitude
115.
As our sun continues through its life cycle, it will _________.
a)
gradually get smaller and smaller until it dies out.
b)
Gradually get larger until its outer layers drift off.
c)
become denser and denser until it forms a black hole.
d)
become hotter and hotter until it becomes a blue hypergiant.
116.
All stars in the main sequence stage are fusing ________ into ________ in their cores.
a)
hydrogen into helium
b)
helium into carbon
c)
oxygen into iron
d)
helium into hydrogen
117.
What is the relationships between the size of a star and its lifetime?
a)
The larger the star, the shorter the lifetime.
b)
The larger the star, the longer the lifetime.
118.
What is the correct life cycle of a star like our Sun?
a)
Nebula, main sequence, red supergiant, supernova, black hole, neutron star
b)
nebula, main sequence, red giant, planetary nebula, white dwarf, black dwarf 
c)
Main sequence, white dwarf, red giant, red supergiant, nebula
d)
Nebula, main sequence, brown dwarf, white dwarf, black dwarf
119.
Why won't our sun ever become a black hole?
a)
It is too massive
b)
It is too old
c)
It is too young
d)
It is too small
120.
This is an image of the formation of a star, also known as a .... 
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Planetary Nebula
c)
Supernova
d)
Stellar Nebula
121.
what stage of the life cycle of a star is this? 
a)
Planetary Nebula
b)
Black Hole
c)
Neutron Star
d)
Giant/Supergiant
122.
What determines if a star becomes a giant or a supergiant?
a)

star mass

b)
star temperature
c)
star color
d)
star luminosity
123.

The number of waves that pass a given point in a certain amount of time

a)

wavelength

b)

frequency

c)

amplitute

d)

volume

124.

As the source moves towards the observer, the frequency of the waves

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

125.

As the source moves away from the observer, the frequency of the waves

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

126.

Use the diagram to complete the question.


As the source approaches (is closer to) the observer, the frequency is

a)

higher

b)

lower

c)

remains the same

127.

Use the dfiagram to answer the question.


As the source moves away from the observer, the wavelength

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

128.

Use the diagram to complete the question.


As the source moves away from the observer, there is a shift toward

a)

violet

b)

blue

c)

green

d)

red

129.

The shift in the absorption lines toward red shows that the star is moving

a)

toward Earth

b)

away from Earth

c)

in an orbit around the sun

d)

in an orbit around the Earth

130.

Rocky planets have a _____________ denisty.

a)

low

b)

high

131.

Gas planets have a __________ density.

a)

low

b)

high

132.

As the age of the universe increases, the size of the universe

a)

increases

b)

decreases

133.

Which process allows stars change mass into great amounts of energy?

a)

Gravitational pull

b)

Heat transfer

c)

Nuclear fusion

d)

Radioactive decay

134.

As the mass of an object increases, the gravitational force

a)

increases

b)

decreases

135.

Which of the following is evidence for the universe's expansion?

a)

A) Blue shift

b)

B) Red shift

c)

C) Green shift

d)

D) Yellow shift

136.

What is the cosmic microwave background (CMB)?

a)

Leftover radiation from the Big Bang

b)

Radiation from the sun

c)

Light from distant stars

d)

Sound waves in space.

137.

What does the Steady-State Theory say about the universe?

a)

The universe began with a big explosion.

b)

The universe is constantly expanding and changing.

c)

The universe has no beginning or end and remains the same on a large scale.

d)

The universe will eventually stop expanding and start collapsing.

138.

According to the Steady-State Theory, how does the universe maintain a constant density as it expands?

a)

  • By shrinking matter

b)

  • By adding new galaxies

c)

  • By creating new matter

d)

  • By absorbing black holes

139.

In the Steady-State Theory, the universe is said to be....

a)

  • Static and finite.

b)

  • Rotating in one direction

c)

  • Shrinking over time

d)

  • Expanding but unchanging on a large scale

140.

what season is the southern hemisphere experiencing at position K.

a)

winter

b)

fall

c)

summer

d)

spring

141.

Alaska is in the northern part of North America. According to the diagram, which season is Alaska experiencing?

a)

Winter

b)

Spring

c)

Summer

d)

Fall

142.

We experience summer when the part of Earth we are living on ______________ the Sun.

a)

tilts away

b)

tilts toward

c)

rotates away

d)

rotates toward

143.

Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 1?

a)

Winter

b)

Spring

c)

Summer

d)

Fall

144.

The earth is a tilted planet.  What is the degree of tilt?

a)

Approximately 25 degrees

b)

Exactly 25 degrees

c)

23.5 degrees

d)

90 degrees with respect to the sun

145.

How does Earth's axial tilt affect the seasons?

a)

It causes the Earth to rotate faster.

b)

It changes the distance between the Earth and the Sun.

c)

It causes different parts of Earth to receive varying amounts of sunlight throughout the year.

d)

It affects the gravitational pull of the Moon.

146.

What happens to the length of days and nights when the Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun?

a)

Days are longer than nights.

b)

Days and nights are of equal length.

c)

Nights are longer than days.

d)

There is no change in the length of days and nights.

147.

What is the primary reason for the occurrence of different seasons on Earth?

a)

The Earth's distance from the Sun changes significantly.

b)

The Earth's axial tilt.

c)

The Earth's rotation speed.

d)

The Earth's orbit is a perfect circle.

148.

If the Earth's axial tilt were to increase, what would likely happen to the seasons?

a)

Seasons would become less distinct.

b)

Seasons would become more extreme.

c)

There would be no change in the seasons.

d)

Seasons would disappear completely.

149.

If it is Summer in the Northern Hemisphere, then it is __________ in the Southern Hemisphere.

a)

Summer

b)

Winter

c)

Fall

d)

Spring

150.

If it is Winter in the Northern Hemisphere, then it is ___________ in the Southern Hemisphere.

a)

Summer

b)

Winter

c)

Fall

d)

Spring

151.

If it is Fall in the Northern Hemisphere, then it is ___________ in the Southern Hemisphere.

a)

Summer

b)

Winter

c)

Fall

d)

Spring

152.

If it is Spring in the Northern Hemisphere, then it is __________ in the Southern Hemisphere.

a)

Summer

b)

Winter

c)

Fall

d)

Spring

153.
One rotation of Earth is equal to
a)
a day.
b)
a year.
154.
Why do globes lean sideways?
a)
To allow them to spin easier.
b)
To demonstrate the tilt of Earth's axis.
c)
To demonstrate the effects of gravity.
d)
To demonstrate day and night.
155.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon 
d)
Venus
156.

Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)

full moon tide

b)

new moon tide

c)

neap tide

d)

spring tide

157.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
158.
Tides are caused by
a)
strong winds that blow over ocean waters.
b)
the interaction of Earth, the moon and the sun.
c)
the shifting of the plates on the ocean floor.
d)
variations in the salinity of ocean water
159.
What causes tides?
a)
gravity
b)
wind
c)
spring
d)
neap
160.
If tides alternate from high to low and there are two of each type of tide a day, about how many hours will generally be between each different tide?
a)
2 hours
b)
6 hours
c)
12 hours
d)
24 hours
161.
How many low tides and high tides happen in a day?
a)
1 low tide, 1 high tide
b)
4 low tides, 4 high tides
c)
3 low tides, 3 high tides
d)
2 low tides, 2 high tides
162.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
163.

What is the tide that occurs during a first quarter and a third quarter moon?

a)

neap tide

b)

low tide

c)

spring tide

d)

high tide

164.

Neap tides are the ________ tides.

a)

strongest

b)

weakest

165.

What is the tide that occurs during a full moon and a new moon.

a)

spring tide

b)

low tide

c)

high tide

d)

neap tide

166.

What is the rise and fall of the level of the water in the ocean?

a)

tides

b)

waves

c)

tsunamis

d)

hurricanes

167.

The figure below illustrates ocean water levels in a location on the Florida coast.

What is the tidal range in this location?

a)

–1 m

b)

0 m

c)

+1 m

d)

2 m

168.

During which if these moon phases are we going to see the strongest tide?

a)

full moon

b)

3rd quarter

c)

waxing crescent

d)

waning gibbous

169.

The moon is mainly responsible for the tides on Earth because it is _________ _________.

a)

much closer

b)

far away

c)

behind the sun

170.

The tidal bulge follows the movement of the _____.

a)

moon

b)

sun

c)

Earth

d)

ocean

171.

The _____ _____ is the difference between the levels of ocean water at high tides and low tides. That range depends on the sun-Earth-moon;s position.

a)

ocean waves

b)

mountain level

c)

sea level

d)

tidal range

172.

Which of the following images shows revolution or orbiting?

a)
b)
c)
d)
173.

Which direction does the moon revolve around Earth?

a)

Clockwise

b)

Counterclockwise

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