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ESC Mega Review (ESRT)

Total questions: 177

Worksheet time: 6hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A stream flowing at 0.3 cm/s can erode what type of sediment?
a)
Pebbles, sand, silt, and clay
b)
Sand, silt, and clay
c)
Silt and clay
d)
Clay Only
2.
What is the largest sediment size that a stream flowing at 10 cm/s can carry?
a)
1.0 cm
b)
0.2 cm
c)
0.1 cm
d)
0.01 cm
3.
For a stream to carry a sediment the size of 20 cm, how fast must it's velocity be?
a)
200 cm/s
b)
100 cm/s
c)
50 cm/s
d)
500 cm/s
4.
Which sediment requires the least amount of velocity to be eroded?
a)
Cobbles
b)
Pebbles
c)
Silt
d)
Clay
5.
What type of sediment has a diameter of 0.003 cm?
a)
Sand
b)
Silt
c)
Clay
d)
Pebbles
6.
If a stream were flowing 100 cm/s and slowed to 10 cm/s, what type of sediment would it no longer carry?
a)
Clay
b)
Silt
c)
Sand
d)
Pebbles
7.
What types of sediments would be on the stream bed (not eroded) of a river flowing at 200 cm/s?
a)
Boulders only
b)
Boulders, Cobbles, and Pebbles
c)
Boulders and Cobbles
d)
Nothing
8.
What variables does this stream graph not account for? (Hint: Read the fine print!)
a)
Density and Shape
b)
Mass and Size
c)
Gravity and Slope
d)
Discharge and Volume
9.
What is the largest type of sediment that can be carried by a river flowing at 3 cm/s?
a)
Silt
b)
Sand
c)
Pebbles
d)
Clay
10.
What determines a river's ability to erode sediment?
a)
Discharge
b)
Velocity
c)
Gradient (Slope)
d)
All the Above
11.

How many minutes in a degree of Longitude or Latitude?

a)

15

b)

30

c)

45

d)

60

12.

What compass direction of Longitude would be used on this map?

a)

North

b)

East

c)

South

d)

West

13.

What ocean current is located in the WESTERN hemisphere of the planet?

a)

Kuroshio Current

b)

Labrador Current

c)

East Australia Current

d)

Agulhas Current

14.

Approximately, what line of Latitude is the Easter Island Hot Spot on?

a)

20° N

b)

118° W

c)

20° S

d)

118° E

15.

As you travel in New York from Syracuse to Utica, what will you notice about Polaris in the night sky?

a)

It will remain the same

b)

It will go up

c)

It will go down

d)

It will disappear

16.

What are the coordinates for Slide Mt. in New York State?

a)

42° N, 74° 29' E

b)

74° 29' N, 42° E

c)

42° N, 74° 29' W

d)

42° W, 74° 29' S

17.

Approximately what Latitude is the Alaska Current located at?

a)

60° S

b)

145° W

c)

60° N

d)

145° E

18.

If it is 11 am at the Iceland Hot Spot, what time is it at the Canary Hot Spot?

a)

10 am

b)

11 am

c)

12 pm

d)

9 am

19.

How high is Polaris in the night sky at the Yellowstone Hot Spot?

a)

You cannot see Polaris in the night sky

b)

118°

c)

45°

d)

60°

20.

How many degrees of Longitude approximately separate our world's time-zones based on our planet's rotation?

a)

60°

b)

45°

c)

30°

d)

15°

21.

What is a texture for an Intrusive Igneous Rock?

a)

Vesicular

b)

Very Coarse

c)

Glassy

d)

Fine

22.

What Clastic Rock has a grain size of 0.004 cm?

a)

Conglomerate

b)

Breccia

c)

Sandstone

d)

Siltstone

e)

Dolostone

23.

What kind of Texture can be found in Foliated Metamorphic Rock?

a)

Glassy

b)

Mineral Alignment

c)

Vesicular

d)

Fine to Medium

24.

What is one difference between the igneous rocks Rhyolite and Granite?

a)

Composition

b)

Density

c)

Color

d)

Crystal Size

25.

Which rock is composed out of visible angular sediments that are cemented and compacted together?

a)

Breccia

b)

Sandstone

c)

Dolostone

d)

Gneiss

26.

What kind of Metamorphic Rocks would form at Point A in the Rock Diagram?

a)

Limestone

b)

Marble

c)

Gneiss

d)

Gabbro

27.

How is a Mafic Igneous Rock different from a Felsic Igneous Rock?

a)

It is more dense

b)

It is darker in color

c)

It is rich in Fe and Mg

d)

All the above

28.

It you were to find a rock with cemented shell fragments what would you classify it as?

a)

Clastic Sedimentary

b)

Nonfoliated Metamorphic

c)

Bioclastic Sedimentary

d)

Crystalline Sedimentary

29.

This planet has the longest period of revolution.

a)

Mercury

b)

Mars

c)

Saturn

d)

Neptune

30.

This planet has the longest period of rotation.

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

31.

This planet has a higher period of rotation than period of revolution.

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

32.

Rotation means...

a)

to orbit.

b)

to spin.

33.

Revolution means...

a)

to orbit.

b)

to spin.

34.

This planet is approximately half the size of Earth.

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Jupiter

35.

This planet is 227.9 million kilometers from the Sun.

a)

Mercury

b)

Earth

c)

Mars

d)

Pluto

e)

Pluto's not a planet!

36.

This planet could float in water.

a)

Earth

b)

Jupiter

c)

Saturn

d)

You would need a huge bathtub.

37.

This is the largest planet by size and mass.

a)

Earth

b)

Mars

c)

Jupiter

d)

Saturn

38.

This planet has the most circular orbit.

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Earth

d)

Mars

39.

In which area of the Earth's interior is the pressure most likely to be 2.5 million atmospheres?

a)

asthenosphere

b)

stiffer mantle

c)

inner core

d)

outer core

40.

Which statement best describes Earth's crust and mantle?

a)

The crust is thicker and less dense than the mantle.

b)

The crust is thicker and more dense than the mantle.

c)

The crust is thinner and less dense than the mantle.

d)

The crust is thinner and more dense than the mantle.

41.

The actual temperature at the boundary between the stiffer mantle and the outer core is estimated to be approximately

a)

1.5° C

b)

250º C

c)

3000° C

d)

5000° C

42.

Compared to the continental crust, the oceanic crust is

a)

thicker, and more dense

b)

thinner, and more dense

c)

more granitic, and has the same density

43.

The thinnest section of Earth's crust is found beneath

a)

oceans

b)

desert regions

c)

coastal plains

d)

mountain regions

44.

At which depth below Earth's surface is the density most likely 9.5 g/cm3?

a)

1,500 km

b)

2,000 km

c)

3,500 km

d)

6,000 km

45.

In which layer of Earth's interior is the inferred temperature 6,000°C?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

46.

The cross section below shows a drill rig used to collect rock samples from below Earth's surface. The rock samples collected from the bottom of the drill hole (2 km deep) came from which Earth layer?

a)

lithosphere

b)

hydrosphere

c)

asthenosphere

d)

stiffer mantle

47.

What caused the interior of Earth to separate into layers?

a)

a decrease in the rate of rotation of Earth

b)

the gravitational pull on materials of varying densities

c)

variations in heating by the Sun due to Earth's tilt

d)

collisions with meteors and comets

48.

The arrows shown in the asthenosphere represent the inferred slow circulation of the plastic mantle by a process called

a)

insolation

b)

conduction

c)

convection

d)

radiation

49.

From the top of the stiffer mantle to the center of Earth, the rock material is inferred to be

a)

solid all the way to the center of the inner core

b)

solid, then liquid to the center of the inner core

c)

solid, then liquid, then solid again to the center of the inner core

d)

solid, then liquid, then gaseous to the center of the inner core

50.

In which layer of the Earth is the pressure inferred to be 3.5 million atmospheres?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

51.

A p-wave traveled for 3200 km to reach a seismic station. How long had it traveled for?

a)

00:01:60

b)

00:04:50

c)

00:10:40

d)

00:05:50

52.

An earthquake occurs 6800 km from the seismic station which recorded the p and s-waves recordings. What was the time difference between the arrival times of the p and s-waves?

a)

00:10:10

b)

00:08:20

c)

00:18:40

d)

00:014:40

53.

If the p-waves arrive at 03:22:43am and the s-waves arrive at 03:29:57am, what is the time difference between their arrivals?

a)

00:14:07

b)

00:07:14

c)

03:07:14

d)

00:07:00

54.

The S-waves of an earthquake were recorded at 01:10:55 am. If the epicenter is 4000 km away from the seismic station, what time were the P-waves recorded at the same seismic station?

a)

01:05:20 am

b)

00:05:30 am

c)

01:03:45 am

d)

12:58:15 pm

55.

The p-waves of an earthquake arrived at a seismic station at 08:55:50 am and the s-waves arrived at 09:03:40 am. What is the distance to the epicenter from this seismic station?

a)

4700 km

b)

6100 km

c)

2200 km

d)

750 km

56.

What was the origin time for an earthquake whose p-waves arrived at 02:54:40 pm at a seismic station in Buffalo, NY and it was determined the epicenter was 2000 km away?

a)

03:02:00 pm

b)

02:57:50

c)

02:58:50 pm

d)

02:50:30 pm

57.

The s-waves of an earthquake arrived 00:07:20 after the p-waves. How far away was the earthquakes epicenter?

a)

2000 km

b)

5600 km

c)

4200 km

d)

1400 km

58.
How old is a bone that has 12.5% of the original amount of radioactive carbon-14 remaining?
a)
5,700 years
b)
11,400 years
c)
17,100 years
d)
22,800 years
59.
According to the graph, what is the half-life of this isotope?
a)
100 years
b)
150 years
c)
200 years
d)
300 years
60.
The surface temperature of which sample increased at the slowest rate?
a)
water
b)
basaltic sand
c)
copper pennies
d)
iron fragments
61.
What is the density of this material?
a)
1.0 g/cm3
b)
5.0 g/cm3
c)
10.0 g/cm3
d)
20.0 g/cm3
62.
How many joules are required to evaporate 1 gram of boiling water?
a)
4
b)
334
c)
2260
d)
2594
63.
Which pie graph correctly shows the percentage of elements by volume in Earth's troposphere?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
64.
New York State’s Catskills are classified as which type of landscape region?
a)
mountain
b)
plateau
c)
lowland
d)
plain
65.
Which ocean current warms the climate of northwestern Europe?
a)
North Atlantic Current
b)
North Equatorial Current
c)
Canary Current
d)
Labrador Current
66.
Which surface feature was produced by crustal movements at a transform plate boundary
a)
East African Rift
b)
Tasman Hot Spot
c)
Aleutian Trench
d)
San Andreas Fault
67.
A stream flowing at a velocity of 100 centimeters per second can transport
a)
silt, but not sand, pebbles, or cobbles
b)
silt and sand, but not pebbles or cobbles
c)
silt, sand, and pebbles, but not cobbles
d)
silt, sand, pebbles, and cobbles
68.
hich igneous rock is dark colored, cooled rapidly on Earth's surface, and is composed mainly of plagioclase feldspar, olivine, and pyroxene
a)
Obsidian
b)
Rhyolite
c)
Gabbro
d)
Scoria
69.
Which process most likely formed a layer of the sedimentary rock, gypsum
a)
precipitation from seawater
b)
folding of clay-sized particles
c)
solidification of magma
d)
melting of sand-sized particles
70.
The metamorphic rock at location A is most likely
a)
marble
b)
quartzite
c)
phyllite
d)
slate
71.
Evidence indicates that 251 million years ago a mass extinction of many life-forms occurred on Earth. Which form of life became extinct at this time?
a)
Trilobites
b)
Dinosaurs
c)
Mammoths
d)
Eurypterids
72.
Which group of organisms has the shortest record of life on Earth?
a)
eurypterids
b)
birds
c)
graptolites
d)
placoderm fish
73.
The inferred temperature and pressure of Earth's interior at a depth of 3,000 kilometers are approximately
a)
1000°C and 0.5 million atmospheres
b)
5000°C and 1.5 million atmospheres
c)
1000°C and 1.0 million atmospheres
d)
5000°C and 3.0 million atmospheres
74.
The distance from this seismic station to the epicenter of the earthquake is approximately
a)
1,600 km
b)
3,200 km
c)
4,400 km
d)
5,600 km
75.
If the air temperature is 20°C and the relative humidity is 58%, what is the dewpoint?
a)
5°C
b)
12°C
c)
15°C
d)
38°C
76.
An air temperature of 30°C is equal to
a)
–22°F
b)
–2°F
c)
74°F
d)
86°F
77.
A barometric pressure of 1021.0 millibars is equal to how many inches of mercury?
a)
29.88
b)
30.15
c)
30.25
d)
30.50
78.
Compared with our Sun, the star Betelgeuse is
a)
smaller, hotter, and less luminous
b)
larger, hotter, and less luminous
c)
larger, cooler, and more luminous
d)
smaller, cooler, and more luminous
79.
Which two characteristics do all Jovian planets have in common?
a)
small diameters and low densities
b)
large diameters and low densities
c)
small diameters and high densities
d)
large diameters and high densities
80.
Which NY State landscape region is located at 44⁰ N and 75⁰ W?
a)
Allegheny Plateau
b)
Erie-Ontario Lowlands
c)
Tug Hill Plateau
d)
Adirondack Mountains
81.
At which latitude would an observer on Earth find the altitude of Polaris to be 37 degrees?
a)
37 degrees North
b)
37 degrees South
c)
55 degrees North
d)
55 degrees South
82.
Index fossils are useful to geologists for correlating rocks because each species is widely distributed and became extinct after a _______________ geologic existence 
a)
long
b)
short
83.
Which would be considered the best index fossil?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
84.
Which two elements are most useful for the radioactive dating of recent organic remains?
a)
C14 and N14
b)
K40 and Ca40
c)
U238 and Pb206
d)
Rb87 and SR87
85.
Which geologic event occurred most recently?
a)
deposition of sediments for rock layer A
b)
formation of the fault
c)
intrusion of the igneous material E
d)
cementation of sediments for rock layer D
86.

Why does oceanic crust subduct under continental crust?

a)

The oceanic crust is more dense.

b)

The oceanic crust is less dense.

c)

The oceanic crust is thicker.

d)

The oceanic crust is cooler.

87.
How are ridges formed? 
a)
Two plates collide with one another.
b)
Two plates sink below Earth's surface.
c)
Two plates slide beside each other. 
d)
Two plates move away from one another.
88.
Why do plates move? 
a)
Convection currents in the mantle cause plates to move.
b)
The outer core spins
c)
The inner core is magnetic
d)
The plates are floating on an ocean
89.

Convert 70 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit

a)

149 °F

b)

158 °F

c)

154 °F

d)

10 °F

90.

What ocean current would someone take to travel away from Australia on the west side?

a)

East Australia Current

b)

Antarctic Circumpolar Current

c)

Agulhas Current

d)

South Equatorial Current

91.

What is the approximate latitude of Kingston?

a)

74° 30' W

b)

74° 30 ' E

c)

42° N

d)

42° S

92.

What is the dewpoint temperature when the relative humidity is 36% and the dry-bulb temperature is 20°C.

a)

8°C

b)

4°C

c)

11°C

d)

-10°c

93.

In which two zones of the atmosphere does temperature decrease with altitude?

a)

Troposphere and Stratosphere

b)

Stratosphere and Mesosphere

c)

Thermosphere and Mesophere

d)

Mesosphere and Troposphere

94.

On a warm summer evening, the air temperature is 22°C and the wet-bulb temperature is 19°C. What is the relative humidity?

a)

17%

b)

22%

c)

75%

d)

83%

95.

What is the approximate location of the Easter Island Hot Spot?

a)

25° N 120° W

b)

25° N 120° E

c)

25° S 120° W

d)

25° S 120° E

96.

The planetary wind belts from 30N to 60N cause most weather systems to travel across the US from the

a)

northwest toward the southeast

b)

northeast toward the southwest

c)

southwest toward the norhteast

d)

southeast toward the northwest

97.

A low pressure belt is located at which Earth latitude?

a)

30 degrees N

b)

30 degrees S

c)

90 degrees S

d)

60 degrees S

98.

Which mineral has a nonmetallic luster, cubic cleavage, and has a hardness of 2.5?

a)

Galena

b)

Muscovite Mica

c)

Halite

d)

Biotite Mica

99.

A barometric pressure of 988.0 millibars is equal to

a)

29.70 inches of Hg

b)

29.17 inches of Hg

c)

29.07 inches of Hg

d)

29.77 inches of Hg

100.

Which ocean current flows southwest along the east coast of South America

a)

Falkland Current

b)

Peru Current

c)

Brazil Current

d)

South Equatorial Current

101.

The elevation of an area changes 10 cm over a 100 year time period. Calculate the rate of change for this uplift.

a)

10 cm/year

b)

.1 cm/year

c)

.1 years/cm

d)

10 years/cm

102.

Put these in order (siltstone, shale and sandstone) from smallest to largest particle.

a)

siltstone, shale, sandstone

b)

sandstone, siltstone, shale

c)

shale, siltstone, sandstone

d)

sandstone, shale, siltstone

103.

As altitude within the troposphere increases, the amount of water vapor generally

a)

increases, only

b)

decreases, only

c)

remains the same

d)

decreases, then increases

104.

Cube A has a volume of 32 cm3 and a mass of 160 g, what is the density?

a)

.2 g/cm3

b)

12.8 g/cm3

c)

5.0 g/cm3

d)

64.0 g/cm3

105.

What is the Gradient if the elevation at point A is 125m and the elevation of at point B is 100m and the distance between them is 3 km.

a)

0.12 m/km

b)

8.3 m/km

c)

33.3 m/km

d)

41.7 m/km

106.

Which substance has the least specific heat?

a)

iron

b)

water

c)

lead

d)

granite

107.

Igneous rocks form from the direct result of

a)

precipitation from evaporating water

b)

melting and solidification in magma

c)

erosion and deposition of soil particles

d)

heat and pressure causing changes in existing rock

108.

What is the wind speed at this station model?

a)

15 knots

b)

25 knots

c)

35 knots

d)

45 knots

109.

Which weather symbol best represents the type of precipitation that was most likely occurring at this location?

a)
b)
c)
d)
110.

Which of these minerals is made of Fe3O4?

a)

garnet

b)

quartz

c)

olivine

d)

magnetite

111.

Which process is necessary for the formation of sedimentary rocks?

a)

melting

b)

erosion

c)

heat

d)

solidification

112.

Which mineral is used to make hydrofluoric acid?

a)

calcite

b)

halite

c)

talc

d)

fluorite

113.

What is the best way to determine if a mineral sample is calcite or quartz?

a)

Place the minerals near a magnet.

b)

Measure the mass of the mineral.

c)

Place a drop of acid on the mineral.

d)

Observe the color of the mineral.

114.

Which rock is made up of rounded fragments of rock held together by a natural cement?

a)

breccia

b)

scoria

c)

conglomerate

d)

quartzite

115.

What is the latitude and longitude of Watertown to the nearest whole degree?

a)

43 N 76 E

b)

44 N 76 W

c)

44 N 76 E

d)

44 W 76 N

116.

What is the most likely source of an mT air mass?

a)

Pacific Ocean off the coast of Canada

b)

central Mexico

c)

central Canada

d)

The Gulf of Mexico

117.

Which element, found in both biotite mica and muscovite mica, makes up the greatest percent by volume of Earth's crust?

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

potassium

d)

silicon

118.

Which of the following elements is not found in Plagioclase Feldspar?

a)

Na

b)

Al

c)

Si

d)

Pb

119.

Quartz and halite have different crystal shapes primarily because

a)

light reflects from crystal surfaces

b)

energy is released during crystallization

c)

of impurities that produce surface variations

d)

of the internal arrangement of the atoms

120.

Obsidian's glassy texture indicates that it formed

a)

slowly, deep below Earth's surface

b)

slowly, on Earth's surface

c)

quickly, deep below Earth's surface

d)

quickly, on Earth's surface

121.
Why does Planet B revolve faster than Planet C
a)
it's more dense than planet C
b)
It's farther to the star
c)
it's less dense than planet C
d)
it's closer to the star
122.

Which type of surface bedrock is most commonly found in the Utica, New York area?

a)

sedimentary, with limestone, shale, sandstone, and dolostone

b)

sedimentary, with limestone, shale, sandstone, and conglomerate

c)

metamorphic, with quartzite, dolostone, marble, and schist

d)

metamorphic, with gneiss, quartzite, marble, and slate

123.

The Catskills are commonly called mountains, but are actually part of the Allegheny Plateau. The Catskills are classified as a plateau because of their

a)

low elevation

b)

bedrock structure

c)

bedrock age

d)

high degree of metamorphism

124.

The only dinosaur fossils found in New York State are footprints found on 210-million-year old bedrock. In which New York State landscape region were these dinosaur fossils found?

a)

Newark Lowlands

b)

Tug Hill Plateau

c)

Allegheny Plateau

d)

Adirondack Mountains

125.

Which types of surface bedrock are most likely found near Jamestown, New York?

a)

slate and marble

b)

basalt and limestone

c)

shale and sandstone

d)

granite and sandstone

126.

Which landscape region is a flat plain consisting mainly of unsorted clays, gravels, sands, scratched pebbles, boulders, and cobbles?

a)

Syracuse

b)

The Adirondacks

c)

The Catskills

d)

Long Island

127.

Which stream pattern will occur over a relatively flat surface with loose, unconsolidated sediments?

a)

Annular

b)

Trellis

c)

Dendritic

d)

Radial

128.

Which stream pattern would occur on top of a mountain?

a)

Dendritic

b)

Annular

c)

Radial

d)

Rectangular

129.

Which statement best explains why 18,000 years ago the coastline was at a different location than it is today?

a)

North America had just separated from Africa, and the Atlantic Ocean was forming.

b)

The east coast of North America was being subducted under the Eurasian Plate

c)

large amount of Earth's water was stored in large continental ice sheets.

d)

The climate of Earth was extremely hot and dry.

130.

What are the top most dominant greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?

a)

Carbon dioxide, sulfer dioxide, oxygen, chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's)

b)

Nitrogen, argon, methane, chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's)

c)

Water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's)

d)

Hydrogen, methane, Ozone, chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's)

131.

Which factor is primarily responsible for causing different drainage patterns

a)

Annual rainfall

b)

Bedrock structure

c)

Prevailing winds

d)

Concentration of CO2

132.

Which body of water is about 50 km to the east of Mt. Marcy?

a)

Lake Champlain

b)

The Long Island Sound

c)

Lake Superior

d)

Lake Erie

133.
Which city is closest to the epicenter?  
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
134.

How long does it take for the P wave to travel 2000 km?

a)

1900 km

b)

4 minutes

c)

7 minutes and 20 seconds

d)

4000 km

135.

The minerals talc, muscovite mica and quartz are similar because they

a)

have the same hardness

b)

are the same color

c)

contain silicon and oxygen

d)

break along cleavage planes

136.

The mineral above is most likely

a)

garnet

b)

quartz

c)

olivine

d)

halite

137.

Which mineral has a metallic luster, a black streak, and is an ore of iron?

a)

Galena

b)

Magnetite

c)

Pyroxene

d)

Graphite

138.

Which property was used to classify these minerals?

a)

color

b)

luster

c)

chemical composition

d)

hardness

139.

The mineral graphite is often used as

a)

a lubricant

b)

an abrasive

c)

a source of iron

d)

a cementing material

140.

Which physical property of the mineral is most easily seen in the photograph?

a)

fracture

b)

hardness

c)

streak

d)

cleavage

141.
How light reflects off of a mineral is called the mineral's 
a)
luster
b)
streak
c)
cleavage
d)
fracture
142.
A mineral's resistance to being scratched is called?
a)
streak
b)
luster
c)
hardness
d)
heft
143.
Which mineral property is being shown here?
a)
luster
b)
hardness
c)
cleavage
d)
streak
144.
What mineral is what is in pencils?  You can write with it.
a)
feldspar
b)
magnetite
c)
graphite
d)
kaolinite
145.
What mineral is known as "fools gold"?
a)
graphite
b)
quartz
c)
galena
d)
pyrite
146.

How effective is the physical property of color in identifying a mineral?

a)

Very effective. You can immediately identify it based only on the color.

b)

It doesn't make a difference. Every mineral can be any color.

c)

Color alone may not be used to identify a mineral. Some minerals come in a variety of colors.

d)

Color isn't a physical property.

147.
True or False: Minerals make up rocks. 
a)
True
b)
False
148.
Atoms in a mineral are arranged___________________.
a)
In the order they land
b)
In a specific repetitive pattern
c)
In a circular pattern
d)
In a straight line
149.

Which best explains why these landscapes appear different?

a)

Landscape A formed in a dry region and B formed in a humid region

b)

Landscape A formed in a humid region and B formed in a dry region

c)

Landscape A formed in a glaciated region and Landscape B did not

d)

Landscape A did not form in a glaciated region and Landscape B did

150.

Which climate conditions normally produce the

greatest amount of chemical weathering?

a)

warm and moist

b)

warm and dry

c)

cool and moist

d)

cool and dry

151.

Which type of climate has the greatest amount of

rock weathering caused by frost action?

a)

a dry climate in which temperatures remain

below freezing

b)

a dry climate in which temperatures alternate

from below freezing to above freezing

c)

a wet climate in which temperatures remain

below freezing

d)

a wet climate in which temperatures alternate

from below freezing to above freezing

152.

Chemical weathering will increase if

a)

air temperature decreases and precipitation decreases

b)

air temperature decreases and precipitation increases

c)

air temperature increases and precipitation decreases

d)

air temperature increases and precipitation increases

153.

During what period will no fossils be found in NYS? (HINT ESRT P. 8+9)

a)

Devonian

b)

Ordovician

c)

Jurassic

d)

Permian

154.

What group of organisms has NOT gone extinct? (HINT ESRT P. 8+9)

a)

Placoderm Fish

b)

Dinosaurs

c)

Ammonoids

d)

Brachiopods

155.

What event occurred approximately at the same time as the Alleghenian Orogeny? (HINT ESRT P 8+9)

a)

Extensive coal-forming forests covered earth

b)

The earliest dinosaurs evolved

c)

The earliest flowering plants evolved

d)

Oceanic oxygen was produced by cyanobacteria

156.

Which events occurred at the same time? (HINT ESRT P 8+9)

a)

Dinosaurs and the earliest amphibians evolved

b)

Placoderm fish and Earth's first forests evolved

c)

The Burgess Shale Fauna and Eurypterids evolved

d)

Abundant grazing mammals and diverse bony fishes evolved

157.

Approximately what time did the Phanerozoic Eon start? (HINT ESRT P 8+9)

a)

1000 mya

b)

4600 mya

c)

550 mya

d)

0 mya

158.

The Precambrian Era is approximately how much of earth's history?

a)

90%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

159.
Which layer of Earth is LIQUID?
a)
upper mantle
b)
lower mantle
c)
outer core
d)
inner core
160.
Scientists determine what Earth’s interior looks like by using:
a)
Volcanoes
b)
Seismic Waves
c)
Continental Drift
d)
Convection Currents
161.
Volcanic ash is a good geologic time marker because the ash
a)
 is deposited rapidly over a large area
b)
 spreads evenly in all compass directions
c)
 is easily weathered and eroded
d)
remains in the atmosphere for millions of years
162.
 The block diagram represents a rapid downslope flow of saturated soil and rock layers.  What are two likely causes of this rapid downslope flow?
a)
groundwater and abrasion
b)
groundwater and gravity
c)
prevailing wind and abrasion
d)
prevailing wind and gravity
163.
What would most likely reduce the amount of runoff at location B?
a)
infiltration occurring faster than precipitation
b)
greater condensation than evaporation
c)
saturated soil below the land surface
d)
a frozen land surface
164.
The map shows a stream. Letters A, B, C, and D represent locations on the stream surface. Arrows represent the direction of stream flow.  Which two locations have the greatest stream velocities?
a)
A and B
b)
B and C
c)
C and D
d)
D and A
165.
Which agent of erosion most likely moves sediments in a sand dune?
a)
wind
b)
glaciers
c)
wave action
d)
running water
166.
Clouds most likely form as a result of
a)
moist air rising, compressing, and warming
b)
moist air rising, expanding, and cooling
c)
dry air rising, compressing, and warming
d)
dry air rising, expanding, and cooling
167.

What is the density of the continental crust?

a)

3.0g/cm3

b)

2.7g/cm3

c)

5.5g/cm3

d)

3.4g/cm3

168.

How are the layers of the Earth's interior arranged?

a)

by density

b)

by volume

c)

by mass

d)

by personality

169.
According to the graph, what is the half-life of this isotope?
a)
100 years
b)
150 years
c)
200 years
d)
300 years
170.
The average rate of temperature change, in Fahrenheit degrees per hour, between 6 a.m. and noon was
a)
6 °/h
b)
8 °/h
c)
3 °/h
d)
18 °/h
171.
Which surface feature was produced by crustal movements at a transform plate boundary
a)
East African Rift
b)
Tasman Hot Spot
c)
Aleutian Trench
d)
San Andreas Fault
172.
If the air temperature is 20°C and the relative humidity is 58%, what is the dewpoint?
a)
5°C
b)
12°C
c)
15°C
d)
38°C
173.
Which station model represents a location that is currently receiving some form of precipitation?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
174.
How old is the Earth?
a)
4.6 billion years old
b)
2 trillion years old
c)
3.6 million years old
d)
7 billion years old 
175.
Convection currents:
a)
Cause tsunamis when they are strong. 
b)
bring heat from the sun-warmed surface of the earth to the interior. 
c)
bring heat from the core of the earth towards the surface. 
d)
have caused many mass-extinctions throughout Earth's history. 
176.
The red line represents a _ front and it is moving _.
a)
cold; southwest
b)
cold; northeast
c)
warm; southwest
d)
warm; northeast
177.
What type of front is this?
a)
warm
b)
cold 
c)
stationary
d)
occluded

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