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Anat. & Phys. Semester 1 Final

Total questions: 174

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Physiology is generally studied:

a)

in terms of chemical and physical events in living systems

b)

to learn about the about the function of the body

c)

in conjunction with anatomy for best understanding

d)

all of the above

2.

The structural and functional unit of life is:

a)

a cell

b)

an organ

c)

the organism

d)

a molecule

3.

Which of the following is the proper order from small to large?

a)

molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organisms

b)

cells, molecules, organs, tissues, organ systems

c)

cells, molecules, tissues, organs

d)

molecules, tissues, cells, organisms

4.

Homeostasis in the human body is controlled primarily by which two organ systems?

a)

cardiovascular and integumentary

b)

skeletal and endocrine

c)

nervous and endocrine

d)

cardiovascular and respiratory

5.

Which of the following organ systems is matched most accurately to the "life function" it provides?

a)

integumentary system -- movement

b)

nervous system -- excretion

c)

muscular system -- maintaining boundaries

d)

nervous system -- responsiveness

6.

Negative feedback systems:

a)

regulate blood clotting and the birth process

b)

operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and grows

c)

operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced

d)

always inhibit a process as reflected in their naming as "negative"

7.

If you were to assume the anatomical position, you would:

a)

lie face down

b)

lie flat on your back with the palms of your hands flat on the floor

c)

stand erect with the palms of your hands facing forward

d)

stand erect with the palms of your hands cupped toward your thighs

e)

stand on your head

8.

The term "sagittal section of the brain" means that the brain was cut:

a)

across horizontally

b)

into anterior and posterior parts

c)

into right and left parts

d)

on the diagonal

9.

Which type of section could be used to separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity?

a)

frontal

b)

sagittal

c)

dorsal

d)

transverse

e)

ventral

10.

Which ventral cavity subdivision has no bony protection?

a)

thoracic

b)

pelvic

c)

abdominal

d)

cranial

11.

Match the following organ with the correct body cavity location: stomach

a)

cranial

b)

abdominopelvic

c)

thoracic

d)

spinal

e)

none of these

12.

Match the following organ with the correct body cavity location: urinary bladder

a)

cranial

b)

abdominopelvic

c)

thoracic

d)

spinal

e)

none of these

13.

Match the following organ with the correct body cavity location: heart

a)

cranial

b)

abdominopelvic

c)

thoracic

d)

spinal

e)

none of these

14.

Match the following organ with the correct body cavity location: lungs

a)

cranial

b)

abdominopelvic

c)

thoracic

d)

spinal

e)

none of these

15.

Match the following organ with the correct body cavity location: liver

a)

cranial

b)

abdominopelvic

c)

thoracic

d)

spinal

e)

none of these

16.

Match the following organ with the correct body cavity location: eyes

a)

cranial

b)

abdominopelvic

c)

thoracic

d)

spinal

e)

none of these

17.

Match the following organ with the correct body cavity location: brain

a)

cranial

b)

abdominopelvic

c)

thoracic

d)

spinal

e)

none of these

18.

The horizontal plane divides the body into

a)

right and left portions

b)

anterior and posterior portions

c)

superior and inferior portions

d)

none of the above

19.

An organ is

a)

the smallest unit of life

b)

a group of systems

c)

two or more different tissues that combine to perform a general function

d)

a group of similar cells that combine to perform a common function

20.

The smallest unit capable of life by itself is:

a)

an organ

b)

an organelle

c)

tissue

d)

a cell

e)

a nucleus

21.

Osmosis involves:

a)

a differentially permeable membrane

b)

a difference in water concentration

c)

diffusion

d)

all of the above

22.

The process in which fairly large particles are engulfed and brought into the cell is:

a)

pinocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

electrical forces in the membrane

d)

shape and position changes of carrier molecules in the plasma membrane

23.

Match the description with the correct stage of mitosis:


Centrioles reach the opposite ends of the cell and the chromosomes attach to the spindle

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

24.

Match the description with the correct stage of mitosis:


Two nuclear membranes are formed

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

25.

Match the description with the correct stage of mitosis:


The centromeres divide and the chromosomes begin to move apart

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

26.

Match the description with the correct stage of mitosis:


The chromosomes are precisely lines up on the spindle equator

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

27.

If DNA is a sequence of AAA, then a segment of messenger RNA synthesized on it will have a base sequence of:

a)

TTT

b)

GGG

c)

CCC

d)

UUU

e)

AAA

28.

Organized groups of cells with similar structures and a common purpose form a(n):

a)

organ

b)

tissue

c)

organism

d)

organ system

29.

Match the tissue description with the type of tissue:


Filtration, secretion, and absorption are important functions of this tissue

a)

connective tissue

b)

epithelium

c)

muscle

d)

nervous tissue

30.

Match the tissue description with the type of tissue:


Composed largely of nonliving extracellular matrix; important in protection and support

a)

connective tissue

b)

epithelium

c)

muscle

d)

nervous tissue

31.

Match the tissue description with the type of tissue:


Enables us to be aware of the external environment and to react to it; specialized for communication

a)

connective tissue

b)

epithelium

c)

muscle

d)

nervous tissue

32.

Match the tissue description with the type of tissue:


Lines body cavities and covers surfaces; commonly has one surface attached and the other free

a)

connective tissue

b)

epithelium

c)

muscle

d)

nervous tissue

33.

Match the tissue description with the type of tissue:


Responsible for essentially all examples of body movements

a)

connective tissue

b)

epithelium

c)

muscle

d)

nervous tissue

34.

Select the most accurate match below between tissue type and general funtion:

a)

epithelial -- connects body parts

b)

muscle -- secretory or glandular

c)

connective -- contract and shorten

d)

nervous -- conduction of electrochemical impulses

35.

The muscle type forming the muscular heart is:

a)

skeletal muscle

b)

smooth muscle

c)

cardiac muscle

d)

voluntary muscle

36.

The movement of molecules from a region of a higher concentration to a region of lower concentration is

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

filtration

d)

active transport

37.

The transport of substances against a concentration gradient across a selectively permeable membrane is

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

filtration

d)

active transport

38.

Which is not a fiber type found in connective tissue?

a)

reticular

b)

collagen

c)

elastic

d)

interstitial

39.

The type of cartilage that functions as a shock absorber between vertebrae is

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

elastic cartilage

c)

fibrocartilage

d)

perichondrium

40.

The type of cartilages at the ends of long bones is

a)

elastic cartilage

b)

fibrocartilage

c)

hyaline cartilage

d)

none of the above

41.

____ connect bone to bone

a)

ligaments

b)

tendons

c)

matrix

d)

collagen

42.

The three types of muscle tissue are

a)

skeletal, smooth and cardiac

b)

dense, loose and striated

c)

squamous, cuboidal and columnar

d)

skeletal, smooth and connective

43.

Intercalated discs are

a)

discs between vertebrae

b)

junctions between smooth muscle cells

c)

junctions between cardiac muscle cells

d)

junctions between skeletal muscle cells

44.

The membrane that lines the thoracic cavity and surrounds each lung

a)

cutaneous

b)

peritoneum

c)

pleural

d)

visceral

45.

The membrane that surrounds the heart

a)

pericardium

b)

peritoneum

c)

pleural

d)

visceral

46.

The dermis of the skin is composed of

a)

epithelium

b)

fat

c)

connective tissue

d)

muscle

47.

The hypodermis is _______ to the dermis

a)

superficial

b)

proximal

c)

deep

d)

distal

48.

The axial skeleton is made up of which bones?

a)

limbs, thoracic cage, shoulder and hip girdle

b)

skull, vertebral column, thoracic cage

c)

shoulder and hip girdle, limbs, vertebral column

d)

none of the above

49.

The youngest cells of the epidermis, the only ones capable of mitosis are found in the

a)

stratum basale

b)

stratum spinosum

c)

stratum corneum

d)

stratum granulosum

50.

The dermis of the skin is composed primarily of what tissue?

a)

connective tissue

b)

stratified squamous epithelium

c)

keratin

d)

cuboidal epithelium

51.

The manufacture of keratin in the epidermis of the skin functions to

a)

give the skin its color

b)

increase sensitivity to touch

c)

prevent underlying structures from drying out

d)

increase hair follicle development

52.

Which of the following layers of the skin consist of dead cells?

a)

stratum basale

b)

stratum spinsoum

c)

stratum granulosum

d)

stratum corneum

53.

Dermal papillae form at the junction between

a)

epidermis and hypodermis

b)

dermis and hypodermis

c)

epidermis and dermis

d)

none of the above

54.

The arrector pili muscle functions

a)

to keep the skin moist

b)

to straighten the hair

c)

as a site of nutrient exchange

d)

to prevent baldness

55.

Skin color is determined by:

a)

the amount of carotene in the stratum corneum and subcutaneous tissue

b)

pigments in the epidermis (melanin)

c)

the degree of oxygenation of the blood

d)

all of the above

56.

Which of the following is a function of the skin?

a)

body temperature control via sweating and heat radiation

b)

production of vitamin D

c)

protection from bacterial invasion

d)

all of the above

57.

When the body temperature rises, which of the following takes place?

a)

eccrine glands become active

b)

arrector pili muscles contract

c)

Pacinian corpuscles are stimulated

d)

blood is prevented from reaching skin capillary beds

e)

all of the above

58.

Sebaceous glands are important for:

a)

production of keratin

b)

keeping skin and hair soft and flexible

c)

production of sweat

d)

heat regulation of the body

59.

Joe just burned himself on a hot pot. A blister forms and the burn is painful. Joe's burn is most likely a:

a)

first-degree burn

b)

second-degree burn

c)

third-degree burn

60.

The apocrine sweat glands are:

a)

most responsible for odor in humans

b)

found primarily in the axillary and anogenital areas

c)

more often than not associated with hair follicles

d)

become active during puberty

e)

all of the above

61.

The "tanning" effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is somewhat protective due to:

a)

increased production of melanin that helps to block ultraviolet light

b)

an increased concentration of keratin that "toughens" the skin

c)

added layers of epidermis that thicken the skin

d)

an increased blood supply that carries the heat of the sun away

62.

The rule of nines is helpful clinically in:

a)

diagnosing skin cancer

b)

estimating the extent of a burn

c)

preventing acne

d)

none of the above

63.

Which is a function of the skeletal system?

a)

support

b)

provides levers for muscle activity

c)

storage

d)

all of the above

64.

A bone that has essentially the same width, length, and height is most likely:

a)

a long bone

b)

a short bone

c)

a flat bone

d)

an irregular bone

65.

The shaft of a long bone is properly called the:

a)

epiphysis

b)

periosteum

c)

diaphysis

d)

compact bone

66.

The osteon exhibits:

a)

a central Haversian canal carrying a blood vessel

b)

concentric lamellae of matrix

c)

osteocytes in lacunae

d)

canaliculi that connect lacunae the Haversian canal

67.

In adult long bones, hyaline cartilage is found:

a)

in the medullary cavity

b)

between trabeculae

c)

on articular surfaces

d)

in the epiphyseal line

e)

in the diaphysis

68.

The spinal cord passes through a large opening in the occipital bone. This opening is an example of a:

a)

foramen

b)

sinus

c)

ramus

d)

facet

e)

tubercle

69.

Which of the following bones is not part of the knee joint?

a)

femur

b)

tibia

c)

fibula

d)

patella

70.

Anatomical characteristics of a synovial joint include:

a)

articular cartilage

b)

a joint cavity

c)

an articular capsule

d)

all of the above

71.

Multiaxial joints of the body include:

a)

the knee and elbow

b)

the ankle and wrist

c)

the hip and shoulder

d)

intercarpal and intertarsal joints

72.

The diaphysis of long bones contains the medullary cavity which is filled with

a)

red bone marrow

b)

yellow bone marrow

c)

compact bone

d)

periosteum

73.

The cells which are trapped in the matrix of bone are called

a)

osteoblasts

b)

osteoclasts

c)

osteocytes

d)

hydroxyapatite

74.

An example of flat bones those found in the

a)

legs

b)

vertebrae

c)

ankles

d)

cranium

75.

The connective tissue sheet that envelops bone and is attached to its outer surface is called

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

spongy bone

d)

compact bone

76.

The bone cell that wanders through bone and dissolves matrix are called

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoclasts

c)

osteoblasts

d)

none of the above

77.

The axial skeleton is made up of which bones

a)

scapula and clavicle

b)

vertebrae and sternum

c)

cranial and facial bones

d)

vertebrae, sternum, cranial and facial bones

78.

There are ________ pairs of ribs in the thoracic cage

a)

5

b)

8

c)

12

d)

10

79.

The ____ is the concave, lateral surface of the scapula which articulates with the head of the humerus.

a)

subscapular fossa

b)

coracoid process

c)

glenoid cavity

d)

supraspinous fossa

80.

What part of the hip do we sit on?

a)

the greater sciatic notch

b)

the inferior ramus of the pubis

c)

the ramus of the ischium

d)

the ischial tuberosity

81.

The bony ridge you feel on the inside of your ankle is the ___ of the tibia

a)

lateral condyle

b)

medial condyle

c)

medial malleolus

d)

lateral malleolus

82.
a)
hyaline cartilage
b)
fibrocartilage
c)
bone
d)
blood
83.
a)
smooth muscle
b)
bone
c)
nerve
d)
blood
84.
a)
nerve
b)
elastic cartilage
c)
fibrocartilage
d)
cardiac muscle
85.
a)
simple cuboidal
b)
transitional
c)
pseudostratified
d)
simple columnar
86.
a)
elastic cartilage
b)
simple squamous
c)
areolar
d)
simple cuboidal
87.
Which type of muscle tissue would line the intestines?
a)
Smooth
b)
Cardiac
c)
Skeletal
d)
Transitional
88.
What type of Connective Tissue are TENDONS and LIGAMENTS
a)
Dense Connective Tissue
b)
Osseous Tissue
c)
Loose connective Tissue
d)
Cartilage
89.
What type of Connective tissue is found at the ends of bones to reduce friction?
a)
Cartilage
b)
Dense connective tissue
c)
Adipose Tissue
d)
Loose connective tissue
90.
What type of tissue SIGNALS the intestines to move food along?
a)
Nervous Tissue
b)
Blood Tissue
c)
Smooth muscle tissue
d)
Skeletal Muscle Tissue
91.
What type of muscle tissue is VOLUNTARILY controlled
a)
Skeletal Only
b)
Skeletal and Cardiac
c)
Smooth and Cardiac
d)
Cardiac Only
92.
Which type of epithelial tissue stretches and is found in the bladder and other urinary organs?
a)
Transitional
b)
Simple Cuboidal
c)
Stratified Squamous
d)
Stratified Columnar
93.
What type of epithelial tissue would make up salivary, sweat, oil, and mammary glands?
a)
Simple cuboidal
b)
Simple columnar
c)
Simple squamous
d)
Transitional
94.
Histology refers to the
a)
Study of tissues
b)
Study of the body
c)
Removal of tissues
d)
Study of the brain
95.
What is the function of epithelial cells?
a)
Act as barriers between the external environment, or between organs and fluidfilled cavities
b)
Provide movement by pulling on bones
c)
Provide secretions which help to digest food
d)
Act as the messaging pathway between different areas of the body
96.
Which of the following cell types is correctly matched with it's cell shape?
a)
Squamous - flattened, pancake
b)
Cuboidal - rectangular
c)
Columnar - flattened, pancake
d)
Columnar - cubed/square
97.
Squamous cells are found where?
a)
Blood vessels and air sacs of lungs
b)
Respiratory passages
c)
Ducts of glands
d)
Uterine tube
98.
The common term for adipose tissue is
a)
Fat
b)
Blood
c)
Bone
d)
Cartilage
99.
Cardiac muscle is specific to which organ?
a)
Heart
b)
Brain
c)
Pancreas
d)
Lungs
100.
What tissue type is this?
a)
Adipose tissue
b)
Cardiac muscle
c)
Nervous tissue
d)
Skeletal muscle
101.
What tissue type is this?
a)
Skeletal muscle
b)
Nervous tissue
c)
Adipose tissue
d)
'Specialised' connective tissue
102.
Which tissue is this?
a)
Simple squamous
b)
simple columnar
c)
transitional
d)
simple cuboidal
103.
What tissue is this?
a)
Pseudostratified
b)
Simple cuboidal
c)
Transitional
d)
Simple Squamous
104.
The muscle tissue shown is called ______.
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
105.
What are the four main tissues found in the body?
a)
Epithelial, Connective, Bone, Blood
b)
Muscle, Connective, Blood, Epithelial
c)
Nervous, Muscle, Connective, Epithelial
d)
Nervous, Muscle, Connective, Bone
106.
Towards the Front. 
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
107.
Away from midline
a)
Lateral
b)
Distal
c)
Superior
d)
Transverse
108.
Divides body into top and bottom portions (superior-head; inferior-feat)
a)
Medial Plane
b)
Sagittal
c)
Proximal 
d)
Transverse Plane
109.
A body part is above another part, or is closer to the head
a)
Superficial
b)
Lateral
c)
Superior
d)
Deep
110.
The knee is _______ to the ankle.
a)
proximal
b)
lateral
c)
distal
d)
medial
111.
The head is ______ to the chest.
a)
superior
b)
dorsal
c)
inferior
d)
ventral
112.
The bone is _____ to the skin.
a)
inferior
b)
superficial
c)
deep
d)
posterior
113.
The cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity are both contained within the _______ cavity.
a)
dorsal
b)
ventral
c)
abdominal
d)
throacic
114.
The thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity are both contained within the _______ cavity.
a)
dorsal
b)
ventral
c)
cranial
d)
spinal
115.
Where is the femoral region located?
a)
The thigh 
b)
Lumbar region
c)
Orbital
d)
The chest
116.
This plane divides the body into front and back sections.
a)
transverse
b)
midsagittal
c)
frontal or coronal
d)
mediastinum plane
117.
Which system absorbs oxygen and releases carbon dioxide?
a)
respiratory
b)
urinary
c)
endocrine
d)
lymphatic
118.
Which system eliminates waste products and helps maintain homeostasis?
a)
urinary
b)
respiratory
c)
cardiovascular
d)
digestive
119.
Which system helps with voluntary and involuntary movement; helps circulate blood and move food through the digestive tract.
a)
muscular
b)
skeletal
c)
lymphatic
d)
urinary
120.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
121.
Homeostasis in the human body is often maintained by a: 
a)
neutral feedback loop 
b)
solar feedback loop
c)
positive feedback loop
d)
negative feedback loop
122.
Region 4
a)
Left Lumbar
b)
Right Lumbar
c)
Umblical
d)
Right Hypochondriac
123.
Region 9
a)
Epigastric
b)
Left Hypochondriac
c)
Left Iliac
d)
Right Iliac
124.
What is the first component of homeostatic control mechanisms that recognizes the change (stimulus) in the body or environment. 
a)
Receptor
b)
Control center
c)
Effector
d)
Regulation
125.
The third component of homeostatic control mechanisms that provides the means for the control center's response to the stimulus (change) in the body or environment. 
a)
Receptor
b)
Regulation
c)
Effector
d)
Effective
126.
Carpal is your
a)
ankle
b)
neck
c)
knee
d)
wrist
127.
Sternal is your
a)
breastbone 
b)
backbone 
c)
leg bones 
d)
arm bones
128.
Nasal is your
a)
ears 
b)
nose
c)
eyes 
d)
mouth 
129.
The study of how the body and its parts work is
a)
Anatomy
b)
Physiology
c)
Biology
d)
Ecology
130.
1. The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts is 
a)
Anatomy
b)
Physiology
c)
Biology
d)
Ecology
131.
The right shoulder is ______ to the sternum.
a)
medial
b)
proximal
c)
distal
d)
lateral
132.

The topmost layer of the skin

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Subcutaneous fats

d)

muscles

133.

Layer of skin that contains sweat glands and hair follicles

a)

Muscles

b)

Subcutaneous fats

c)

Epidermis

d)

Dermis

134.
New skin cells are always being made at the _____________ part of the epidermis.
a)
highest
b)
lowest
c)
middle
d)
epidermis
135.
The dermis is ___________ than the epidermis.
a)
thinner
b)
stickier
c)
slimier
d)
thicker
136.
The dermis is broken down into the upper and lower level. The upper layer is called the:
a)
reticular layer
b)
lipocyte layer
c)
follicle layer
d)
papillary layer
137.
Why do you turn red when you are hot?
a)
The blood vessels in your skin constrict, reducing blood flow to cool the body
b)
The blood vessels constrict to increase blood flow to cool the body
c)
The blood vessels dilate to increase blood flow to the skin
d)
The blood vessels dilate to decrease blood flow to the skin
138.
Tiny openings at the skin’s surface are called
a)
epidermis
b)
pores
c)
dermis
d)
oil gland
139.
What do the ridges on your fingers help you do?
a)
Clean up
b)
Pinch people
c)
Pick up things
d)
party hard
140.
Why can fingerprints be used to identify you?
a)
Everyone has the same ones
b)
Everyone has different ones
c)
Everyone has an equal amount
d)
Everyone's fingerprints make them smile
141.
Goosebumps are caused by contractions of the ______ muscle
a)
Arrector pili
b)
Apocrine
c)
Eccrine
d)
Sebaceous
142.
The protein that makes us "waterproof" is called
a)
keratin
b)
melanin
c)
carotene
d)
mucus
143.
The epidermis is composed of _____.
a)
stratified squamous epithelium
b)
simple columnar epithelium
c)
adipose tissue
d)
connective tissue
144.
The clear layer only present in certain areas of the body is called:
a)
Stratum granulosum
b)
Stratum spinosum
c)
Stratum corneum
d)
Stratum lucidum
145.
The vascular of the skin is the:
a)
Dermis
b)
Epidermis
c)
Hypodermis
d)
Stratum basale
146.
A sunburn might be an example of a:
a)
1st degree burn
b)
2nd degree burn
c)
3rd degree burn
d)
4th degree burn
147.
Brownish black pigment produced by cells in the skin.
a)
erythrocytes
b)
leukocytes
c)
melanocytes
148.
Yellow discoloration of the skin that can indicate bile in the blood as a result of liver or gallbladder diseases.
a)
erythema
b)
jaundice
c)
cyanosis
d)
albinism
149.
Bluish discoloration of the skin caused by insufficient oxygen:
a)
erythema
b)
jaundice
c)
cyanosis
d)
albinsim
150.

Where can you expect to find apocrine glands?

a)

Your armpits

b)

Your hands

c)

Your feet

d)

Your forehead

151.

Where can you expect to find eccrine glands?

a)

Your forehead

b)

Your armpits

c)

Your groin

152.

Your fingerprints and toe prints are produced by folds in your _________________ called _________________.

a)

epidermis; papillae

b)

dermis; papillae

c)

hypodermis; papilomas

d)

dermis; papilomas

153.

The site of new nail growth occurs at the __________________.

a)

Lunula

b)

Papillae

c)

Keratinocytes

d)

Melanocytes

154.

Which is an example of a hinge joint?

a)

shoulder

b)

wrist

c)

elbow

d)

neck

155.

The bones of a joint are held together by

a)

tendons

b)

bursas

c)

epipheses

d)

ligaments

156.

About how many bones are in the adult human body?

a)

108

b)

206

c)

300

d)

509

157.
A __________________ plane divides the body into equal right and left
a)
midsagital
b)
frontal
c)
transverse
d)
oblique
158.
to increase the angle of a joint would be 
a)
flexion
b)
extension
c)
prone
d)
supine
159.
to decrease the angle of a joint would be 
a)
flexion
b)
extension
c)
prone
d)
supine
160.
Epithelial tissue lacks blood vessels: it is
a)
vascular
b)
avascular
c)
histological
d)
muscular
161.
What is ossification?
a)
production of blood cells within the bones
b)
conversion of cartilage to bone
c)
replacement of red bone marrow with yellow bone marrow
d)
formation of ligaments and tendons
162.
What is the name of the collar bone?
a)
Clavicle
b)
Scapular
c)
Sternum
d)
Xiphoid
163.
The scientific name for your kneecap is this.
a)
femur
b)
tibia
c)
patella
d)
fibula
164.
A joint that can fully move is a
a)
hyaline cartilage
b)
fixed joint
c)
cranium
d)
synovial joint
165.
What type of bones are the vertebrae?
a)
long
b)
short
c)
sesamoid
d)
irregular
166.
There are _ cervical vertebrae
a)
2
b)
5
c)
7
d)
12
167.
There are _ thoracic vertebrae
a)
2
b)
5
c)
7
d)
12
168.
There are _ lumbar vertebrae
a)
2
b)
5
c)
7
d)
12
169.
What are the bones that make up the arches of the foot?
a)
tarsals
b)
metacarpals
c)
metatarsals
d)
carpals
170.
Where two or more bones meet is called a(n)
a)
junction
b)
cartilage
c)
break
d)
joint
171.
What type of joint is the shoulder?
a)
hinge
b)
ball and socket
c)
condyloid
d)
gliding
172.
What type of joint is the thumb?
a)
gliding
b)
condyloid
c)
saddle
d)
ball and socket
173.
What type of joint is the hip?
a)
saddle
b)
gliding
c)
ball and socket
d)
hinge
174.
adduction means ?
a)
Move toward the body
b)
Move away from the body
c)
All joints straight
d)
Joints bent 

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