wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 172

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The front of the body

a)

dorsal

b)

anterior

c)

posterior

d)

lateral

2.

Refers to the middle of the body

a)

middle

b)

medial

c)

caudal

d)

dorsal

3.

which of the following has the same meaning as ventral

a)

posterior

b)

anterior

c)

lateral

d)

distal

4.

how many abdominal quadrants do you have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

5.

The low back is on the ____________ side of the body.

a)

distal

b)

ventral

c)

lateral

d)

dorsal

6.

The mouth is ___________________ to the shoulders

a)

posterior

b)

inferior

c)

superior

d)

distal

7.

The toes are ________________ to the knee.

a)

posterior

b)

superior

c)

proximal

d)

distal

8.

The elbow is ________________ to the fingers.

a)

caudal

b)

proximal

c)

inferior

d)

distal

9.

Which of the following best describes the anatomical position?

a)

Erect body position, face forwrad, arms at side, feet slightly apart, palms of hands supinated (facing forward)

b)

Erect body position, face forward, arms out to the sides, feet together, palms of hands pronated (facing backward)

c)

Erect body postion, facing backwards, arms flat against the body, feet apart, palms touching outer thighs

10.

The anatomical plane that divides the body into front and back halves is the _______________ plane.

a)

transverse

b)

fronal/coronal

c)

sagittal

11.

The term that refers to "toward the head" is ___________.

a)

coronal

b)

caudal

c)

distal

d)

anterior

12.

The anatomical plane that divides the body into EQUAL right and left halves is the _______________ plane.

a)

horizontal

b)

transverse

c)

frontal

d)

mid-sagittal

13.

The ear is ______________ to the nose.

a)

lateral

b)

medial

c)

sagittal

d)

posterior

14.

Which connective tissue stores fat cells?

a)

adipose

b)

tendons

c)

epidermis

d)

ligaments

15.

What is the relationship of the arms to the chest?

a)

deep

b)

superficial

c)

lateral

d)

medial

16.

Which abdominal are is on either side of the epigastric region?

a)

hypogastric

b)

iliac

c)

umbilical

d)

hypochondriac

17.

Which organ is found in the buccal cavity?

a)

soft palate

b)

lungs

c)

bladder

d)

cerebellum

18.

This body plane divides the body into the top and bottom halves

a)

frontal

b)

midsagital

c)

transverse

d)

vertical

19.

Which abdominal region is above the hypogastric region?

a)

lumbar

b)

umbilical

c)

hypochondriac

d)

epigastric

20.

A group of similar cells that perform a common function are:

a)

cells

b)

tissues

c)

organs

d)

organ systems

21.

A living thing that carries out life processes by itself are known as:

a)

cells

b)

organs

c)

tissues

d)

organisms

22.

A structure made up of a collection of tissues that carries out a specialized function is called an:

a)

organ system

b)

organism

c)

cell

d)

organ

23.

The structure of a cell, tissue, or organ determines its ___________, or the activity of each part in an organism.

a)

body

b)

function

c)

homeostasis

d)

brain

24.

Animals have four basic types of tissue: nervous, epithelial, connective and?

a)

skin

b)

hair

c)

muscle

d)

teeth

25.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)
keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
b)
decrease body temperature
c)
increase body temperature
d)
regulate blood pressure
26.
The two types of feedback systems that help organisms maintain homeostasis are:
a)
positive and negative 
b)
receptor and effector
c)
static and dynamic
d)
minor and major
27.
Maintaining body temperature is an example of a:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
28.

When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. This is an example of a:

a)

Positive Feedback Loop

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

29.

Which of the following scenarios describes a positive feedback mechanism?

a)

After childbirth, high levels of prolactin induce lactation in the mother. During nursing, infant suckling triggers the release of more prolactin, which further stimulates lactation.

b)

After eating, blood glucose levels rise, stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas. Insulin causes cells to uptake glucose from the blood, lowering blood glucose levels.

c)

several hours after a meal, blood glucose levels begin to drop, prompting the pancreas to secrete glucagon. Glucagon causes the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, raising blood glucose levels.

d)

During exercise, an increase in body temperature causes the body to produce sweat. As the sweat vaporizes, the body cools down due to evaporative cooling.

30.

In a negative feedback loop, what happens to a variable (like temperature) when it increases past its normal state?

a)

It continues to increase.

b)

It decreases until it resumes its normal state.

c)

It decreases until it is lower than its normal state.

d)

It does not change.

31.

What is another word that can be used to describe "homeostasis"?

a)

equal

b)

complete

c)

stable

d)

correct

32.

What is the point of a feedback loop?

a)

To provide the body with more energy.

b)

To provide the body with more food.

c)

To make sure the conditions in the body are always changing.

d)

To make sure the conditions in the body remain stable.

33.

Homeostasis is described as when the body is

a)

balanced

b)

functioning below capacity

c)

functioning above capacity

d)

metabolising

34.

Feedback interactions in the human body are important because they

a)

determine the diversity necessary for evolution to occur.

b)

direct the synthesis of altered genes that are passed on to every cell in the body.

c)

regulate the shape of molecules involved in cellular communication.

d)

keep the internal body environment within its normal range.

35.

What are the levels of organization starting from simple to complex?

a)

cells- tissues- organs- organ systems- organisms-

b)

organisms- organ systems- organs- tissues- cells

c)

cells- organs- tissues- organ systems-

d)

tissue- cells- organs- organ systems- organisms-

36.
As you get dehydrated, your blood becomes thicker and harder to pump. Your kidneys will respond by stopping urine production, sending the water from urine into your bloodstream to thin your blood back to normal level.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
37.
Towards the Front. 
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
38.
Away from midline
a)
Lateral
b)
Distal
c)
Superior
d)
Transverse
39.
Divides body into top and bottom portions (superior-head; inferior-feat)
a)
Medial Plane
b)
Sagittal
c)
Proximal 
d)
Transverse Plane
40.
A body part is above another part, or is closer to the head
a)
Superficial
b)
Lateral
c)
Superior
d)
Deep
41.
Away from the origin or trunk
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Proximal
d)
Posterior
42.
The knee is _______ to the ankle.
a)
proximal
b)
lateral
c)
distal
d)
medial
43.
Closer to midline in relation to another part
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Medial
d)
Proximal
44.
The bone is _____ to the skin.
a)
inferior
b)
superficial
c)
deep
d)
posterior
45.
The right shoulder is ______ to the sternum.
a)
medial
b)
proximal
c)
distal
d)
lateral
46.
The rib cage is _____ to the heart.
a)
proximal
b)
medial
c)
superficial
d)
distal
47.
Which part is superior to the lungs?
a)
none of them are correct
b)
cranium
c)
hips
d)
rib cage
48.
The cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity are both contained within the _______ cavity.
a)
dorsal
b)
ventral
c)
abdominal
d)
throacic
49.
The thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity are both contained within the _______ cavity.
a)
dorsal
b)
ventral
c)
cranial
d)
spinal
50.
Which body cavity contains organs including the stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas?
a)
abdominal
b)
pelvic
c)
thoracic
51.
Which body cavity is located above the diaphragm and is surrounded by the rib cage?
a)
abdominal
b)
pelvic
c)
thoracic
52.
This body cavity is created by the bones of the skull to protect the brain.
a)
cranial
b)
spinal
c)
vertebral
53.

The plane that passes from front to back and divides the body into right and left portions.

a)

Sagittal (medial)

b)

Transverse (Horizontal)

c)

Frontal (coronal)

54.
The region labeled 1 is 
a)
cervical
b)
acromial 
c)
brachial 
d)
popliteal
55.
The region labeled 4 is 
a)
lumbar
b)
sternal
c)
antecubital
d)
axillary
56.
The region labeled 12 is
a)
pubic
b)
pelvic
c)
popliteal
d)
inguinal
57.
The region labeled 13 is 
a)
inguinal
b)
gluteal
c)
pubic
d)
lumbar
58.
The region labeled 12 is 
a)
vertebral
b)
lumbar
c)
sacral
d)
deltoid
59.
The region labed 10 is
a)
deltoid
b)
scapular
c)
olecranal
d)
vertebral
60.
The region labeled 26 is 
a)
patellar
b)
popliteal
c)
sural
d)
calcaneal
61.
The region labeled 13 is
a)
plantar
b)
calcaneal
c)
crural
d)
fibular
62.
The region labeled 17 is 
a)
gluteal
b)
sacral
c)
femoral
d)
fibular
63.
If a person gets a black eye, they are injured in which area?
a)
occipital
b)
orbital
c)
oral
d)
coxal
64.
James falls and hits the back of his head. Which region is injured?
a)
occipital
b)
orbital
c)
oral
d)
acromial
65.
Carpal tunnel syndrome sometimes requires the wearing of a brace on the
a)
ankle 
b)
knee
c)
wrist
d)
elbow
66.

Energy form stored in bonds between atoms and molecules

a)

chemical

b)

nuclear

c)

thermal

d)

electromagnetic

67.

Energy form stored by an object due to it being compressed or stretched

a)

elastic

b)

motion

c)

chemical

d)

gravitational

68.

Energy form characterized by the flow of electrons

a)

electrical

b)

electromagnetic

c)

elastic

d)

chemical

69.

Energy an object has due to its motion

a)

motion (mechanical)

b)

thermal

c)

chemical

d)

gravitational

70.

Motion is classified as _________ energy.

a)

kinetic

b)

potential

71.

Chemical energy is classified as _________ energy.

a)

kinetic

b)

potential

72.

Electrical energy is classified as _________ energy.

a)

kinetic

b)

potential

73.
Covalent bonds are between...
a)
two or more nonmetals
b)
sodium and chlorine
c)
metals and metals
d)
metals and nonmetals
74.
What kind of bond forms when atoms exchange electrons?
a)
ionic
b)
covalent
c)
artificial
d)
univalent
75.
What is a valence electron?
a)
The sum of neutrons and protons.
b)
The # of electrons in the last shell.
c)
A type of bond.
d)
A popular compound.
76.

Why do elements bond?

a)

To be friends

b)

To create a new element

c)

To become stable

d)

To get bigger

77.

What are the 3 subatomic particles of an atom?

a)

carbon atom, proton, electron

b)

quarks, neutrons, protons

c)

nucleus, protons, electrons

d)

protons, neutrons, electrons

78.

Generally, the number of neutrons ____ the number of protons in an atom.

a)

=

b)

<

c)

>

79.

Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

80.

Which subatomic particle has a positive charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

81.

Which subatomic particle has a neutral or no charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

82.
all matter is made of what 
a)
energy 
b)
atoms 
c)
electrons 
d)
compounds 
83.

Which subatomic particles contribute the most to the mass of an atom?

a)

Protons and Neutrons

b)

Protons only

c)

Electrons only

84.
Ions are: 
a)
atoms with a positive or negative charge
b)
atoms with no charge
c)
atoms with ONLY a positive charge
d)
atoms with ONLY a negative charge
85.

Isotopes of an element have a different number of...

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Mass

86.

Which of the following is a good description of radioactivity?

a)

The energy necessary for the creation of zombies

b)

Elements that have unstable nuclei that may decay and result into transformation into a new element

c)

The way that atoms of elements clone themselves into new copies

d)

The method by which electrons are stripped from atoms to become charged particles

87.

What are the "X" shaped things in the drawing.

a)

PMATs

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Telophase

88.

During what phase of Mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the Middle

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

89.

PMAT helps us remember the correct order of the phases of Mitosis. Which of the following has the phases of Mitosis in the correct Order

a)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase

c)

Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

90.

In which phase of Mitosis do the Chromosomes pull Apart

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

91.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

92.
Cells spend 90% of their time in this stage of the cell cycle. This is the reason you would see most cells in this stage if viewed under a microscope.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Interphase
93.
What do the cells look like at the end of mitosis?
a)
different from original cell
b)
similar to the original cell
c)
identical to the original cell
d)
none of these
94.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
95.
Identify the stage of mitosis. 
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
anaphase
d)
cytokinesis
96.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
97.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

98.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

99.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
100.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
101.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
102.

Is it safe to drink salt water?

a)

Yum, so salty!

b)

No, you could die of dehydration.

103.
You put a cell into a solution, the cell grows. Is the solution hypotonic or hypertonic to the cell? 
a)
hypertonic
b)
hypotonic
c)
isotonic
d)
not enough information
104.
An ISOTONIC solution has a(n) ______________ concentration of solute (dissolved stuff) than inside the cell.
a)
lower
b)
equal
c)
higher
105.
If a cell is placed in a HYPOTONIC solution, water will move _________ of the cell, causing it to ___________.
a)
into, swell
b)
out of, shrivel
c)
in and out of the cell, stay the same
106.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________.
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
107.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
108.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
109.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
110.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
111.
Glycerol and fatty acids are the monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
112.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
113.
What type of macromolecule works as an enzymes to speed up chemical reactions?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
114.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
115.
Which macromolecule stores energy (long term), insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
116.
The structure of DNA is different from RNA because
a)
DNA has a double helix structure and RNA has a single strand structure.
b)
DNA has a single strand structure and RNA has a double helix structure.
c)
RNA is composed of only hydrogen bonds and DNA is composed of carbon bonds.
d)
DNA is composed of only hydrogen bonds and RNA is composed of carbon bonds.
117.
Living things require specific organic molecules in order to survive. The picture above represents some specific examples of foods that are mainly composed of one of these necessary organic molecules. The organic molecules found in these types of food are
a)
Lipids-Fats
b)
Carbohydrates-Starch
c)
Nucleic Acid-RNA
d)
Protien
118.
What organelle controls and regulates cellular activity?
a)
Ribosome
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Lysosome 
119.
The major function of ribosomes is to
a)
Make fats
b)
Synthesize protein
c)
Digest protein
d)
Make sugars
120.
The ____________ packages and processes material before it exports out of the cell.
a)
Vacuoles
b)
mitochondria
c)
Golgi apparatus 
d)
nucleus 
121.
Which of the following is an enzyme filled organelle that breaks down waste in the cell?
a)
lysosomes
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria 
d)
Golgi apparatus 
122.
Select the statement that best describes the function of the cell wall.
a)
It gives structural support to plant cells.
b)
Its jelly-like fluid surrounds the nucleus and most of the cell’s internal parts.
c)
It contains the cell’s nuclear material. 
d)
It produces food from sunlight. 
123.
What am I?       I'm a real "powerhouse". I break down glucose to make ATP.  
a)
Cell membrane 
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondria
d)
lysosome
124.
What is the name and function of the organelle displayed above?
a)
Mitochondria: breakdown glucose and produce ATP
b)
Chloroplast: converts solar energy into chemical energy
c)
Vacuole: Stores H2O, salt, food
d)
Nucleus: stores genetic information
125.
which of the following transports material within the cell?
a)
Golgi apparatus 
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
cell wall 
d)
ribosomes
126.
Which structure would be found in a grass cell but NOT on your cell?
a)
cell wall
b)
nucleus
c)
mitochondria 
d)
vacuoles 
127.
In what type of cells would you expect to find many mitochondria ?
a)
muscle cells
b)
nerve cells
c)
skin cells
d)
sperm cells
128.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ________________ attached to it. 
a)
ribosomes 
b)
chromosomes 
c)
Golgi apparatus 
d)
nucleolus 
129.
What is the function of vacuoles?  
a)
make protein
b)
store genetic information
c)
storage of salt, H2O, food, and waste
d)
transports material outside the cell
130.
Which of these statements best describes the function of the cell membrane?
a)
It allows things to freely enter and exit the cell
b)
it controls which substances enter and exit the cell
c)
it prevents substances from entering the cell
d)
it prevents substances from leaving the cell
131.
The arrow is point to the 
a)
mitochondria 
b)
Cell membrane 
c)
nucleus 
d)
ribosome
132.
The arm and leg bones can be used to determine forensic height
a)
true
b)
false
133.
Which is the most reliable bone to determine the sex of a skeleton? 
a)
Femur
b)
Skull
c)
Pelvic bone
d)
Collarbone
134.
One of the  ways to determine the race using bones is by examining the :
a)
the pelvis
b)
the leg bones
c)
skull
d)
the occipital bump
135.
The younger the individual, the ______ cartilage they have.
a)
More
b)
Less
136.
Which of the following describes a purpose of bones?
a)
To provide the framework for our bodies.
b)
They anchor our muscles to allow movement.
c)
They protect our organs.
d)
All of the above.
137.

Which suture is the arrow pointing to?

a)

Sagittal

b)

Coronal

c)

Lamboidal

d)

Temporal

138.

What CANNOT be determined by examining bones?

a)

age

b)

race

c)

weight

d)

gender

139.
attaches bone to bone
a)
tendon
b)
ligament 
c)
cartiliage
d)
bones
140.
attaches muscle to bone 
a)
tendon
b)
ligament 
c)
cartilage
d)
bone
141.
our hip joint would be considered which type of joint?
a)
hinge
b)
ball and socket
c)
pivot
d)
fixed 
142.
what type of bone is the femur
a)
Long bone
b)
Short bone
c)
Flat bone
d)
Irregular bone
143.
What type of bone is the scapula
a)
long bone
b)
short bone
c)
flat bone
d)
sesamoid bone
144.
What are the bones that protect your heart and lungs?
a)
rib cage
b)
sternum
c)
clavicle
d)
femur
145.
What is the name of this bone?
a)
Femur
b)
Humerous
c)
Skull
d)
Shin
146.
What type of joint is the elbow?
a)
Plane
b)
Hinge
c)
Pivot
d)
Ball and Socket
147.

Long bones have a _____ that makes up most of bone's length and is composed of compact bone

a)

epiphyseal plate

b)

yellow marrow

c)

diaphysis

d)

articular cartilage

148.

Yellow marrow functions to ______.

a)

produce new bone cells

b)

store calcium

c)

store fat

d)

produce calcium

149.

Spongy bone

a)

C

b)

B

c)

E

d)

D

150.

Periosteum

a)

C

b)

F

c)

E

d)

B

151.

Shaft, composed of compact bone

a)

C

b)

F

c)

A

d)

B

152.

Area that causes the lengthwise growth

a)

D

b)

F

c)

A

d)

B

153.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Skull (Cranium)

b)

Mandible

c)

Clavicle

d)

Scapula

154.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Skull (Mandible)

b)

Clavicle

c)

Mandible

d)

Scapula

155.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Carpals

156.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Carpals

157.

From wrist to fingertip, what is the order of bones?

a)

Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

b)

Phalanges, metacarpals, carpals

c)

Carpals, phalanges, metacarpals

d)

Metacarpals, carpals, phalanges

158.

At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?

a)

25 years

b)

15 years

c)

5 years

d)

Birth

159.

Articular cartilage is found in what part of the long bone?

a)

inside of the medullary cavity

b)

on the outer surface of the diaphysis

c)

the outer surface of the epiphyses

d)

in the spaces of the spongy bone

160.

What lines the medullary cavity and spaces of the spongy bone?

a)

Periosteum

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Intramembranous

d)

Endosteum

161.

Bone cells are known as

a)

Lacunae

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Collagen

d)

Osteon

162.

Osteogensis is known as

a)

Bone growth

b)

Bone development

c)

Bone-forming cells

163.

Secondary ossification centers appears in

a)

Epiphyses

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Epiphyseal plate

d)

Endosteum

164.

The function of Osteoclasts is

a)

To breakdown calcified matrix of bone

b)

Secrete acids that dissolve the inorganic component of calcified matrix

c)

Phagocytize components of the bony matrix

d)

All the above

165.

The skull bones, hyoid bone and vertebral column bones are found in which skeleton

a)

Axial Skeleton

b)

Appendicular Skeleton

166.
Name the bone located at number 12.
a)
Patella
b)
Clavicle
c)
Sternum
d)
Scapula
167.
Name the bone located at number 14.
a)
Femur
b)
Fibula
c)
Tibia
d)
Radius
168.
The site of bone growth on a long bone is called
a)
Epiphyseal plate
b)
diaphysis
c)
periosteum
d)
meduary cavity
169.
Bone tissue is also called osseous tissue.
a)
True
b)
False
170.

Bone forming cells:

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteoclasts

d)

osteomasts

171.

Bone destroying cells:

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteomasts

d)

osteoclasts

172.

Blood cell formation:

a)

ossification

b)

hemostasis

c)

hematopoiesis

d)

hemophilia

Similar Resources on Wayground

Programming Logic and Design, 5th edition. Ch 1- 4

168 questions

Programming Logic and Design, 5th edition. Ch 1- 4

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

ESC Mega Review (ESRT)

177 questions

ESC Mega Review (ESRT)

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 10th Grade

KB Science Review

170 questions

KB Science Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Chp. 22 Human Psy

167 questions

Chp. 22 Human Psy

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

ÔN TẬP PHẤN SINH THÁI HỌC

169 questions

ÔN TẬP PHẤN SINH THÁI HỌC

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

BIO MIDTERM REVIEW

170 questions

BIO MIDTERM REVIEW

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade

Biology Semester Review

174 questions

Biology Semester Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade

Biology Final Quizizz

177 questions

Biology Final Quizizz

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 10th Grade