Free Printable BIO MIDTERM REVIEW

1.

What is science?

a)

A way of observing, but not testing.

b)

An organized way of gathering and analyzing evidence about the natural world.

c)

A way of taking data and manipulating it to match your bias.

d)

None of the above

2.

What is a goal of science?

a)

Provide natural explanations for events in the natural world.

b)

Understand patterns and make predictions.

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

3.

What if we only made observations and never followed the scientific method?

a)

Conclusions would not be based on data and evidence.

b)

Superstitions could be disproved.

c)

Only experimental groups, not control groups would used.

d)

All of these

4.

What is an inference?

a)

Using data to support or reject a hypothesis

b)

A logical interpretation based on existing information

c)

The part of an experiment that changes

d)

The part of an experiment that stays the same

5.

The work of scientists usually begins with

a)

Testing a hypothesis

b)

Careful observations and asking questions

c)

Creating experiments

d)

Drawing conclusions

6.

An explanation that can be tested in ways that support or reject it is a(n)

a)

Observation

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Conclusion

d)

None of these

7.

Based on your observations of mold and water, you make a prediction that the presence of water could accelerate the growth of bread mold. This is

a)

a conclusion.

b)

a hypothesis.

c)

an experiment.

d)

an analysis.

8.

Experimental Design #1: A scientist wants to test their hypothesis that if they shine light into a fish tank for one week, then the fish will gain weight. The scientist sets up two identical tanks with fish of the same age, size and species, and fed them the same amount of food. The light was shined into one tank for one week. Since one fish was looking a little sad, the scientist gave that fish an extra serving of food to cheer up. Which response explains why the Experiment Design #1 is not valid:

a)

Controlled experiments can only change or test one independent variable at a time.

b)

Dependent variables are not used in controlled experiments.

c)

Control groups will always have sad participants.

d)

None of these

9.

Two types of data that can be collected and analyzed are

a)

Independent and dependent

b)

Control and variable

c)

Quantitative and qualitative

d)

None of these

10.

Using data and evidence to support or reject a hypothesis is how we are able to

a)

Draw conclusions

b)

Make a graph

c)

Form a hypothesis

d)

Observe and make inferences

11.

A scientist conducted an important experiment in Poland, however, she kept the results to herself. What should she be doing to help advance science?

a)

Keep records of the results.

b)

Store the results in a safe area.

c)

Report results.

d)

None of these

12.

Experimental Design #2: A personal trainer thinks that her clients get better workouts and are stronger if they listen to music while working out. She divides her 20 clients into 2 groups of 10. For the first group, she plays music and asks them to lift a 50 lb. weight. For the second group, she repeats the test, but does not play any music. All 10 members of the first group could lift the weight, but only 7 members of the second group could lift the weight. She concluded that her hypothesis was correct and she now plays music for her clients. What is the trainer’s hypothesis in Experimental Design #2?

a)

If clients listen to music while working out, the clients in Group 1 will feel happier.

b)

If clients listen to music while working out, the clients in Group 1 will lift the weight.

c)

If clients listen to music while working out, the clients in Group 2 will lift the weight.

d)

None of these

13.

Experimental Design #2: A personal trainer thinks that her clients get better workouts and are stronger if they listen to music while working out. She divides her 20 clients into 2 groups of 10. For the first group, she plays music and asks them to lift a 50 lb. weight. For the second group, she repeats the test, but does not play any music. All 10 members of the first group could lift the weight, but only 7 members of the second group could lift the weight. She concluded that her hypothesis was correct and she now plays music for her clients.What is the control group in Experimental Design #2?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 2

c)

The music

d)

Being able to lift the weight

14.

Experimental Design #2: A teacher thinks a special scent pumped through the air conditioning vent into the classroom will make the students perform better on tests. The teacher pumps the special scent into the Period A class of 30 students and gives a test. The teacher gives the same test to the Period B class of 30 students, but does not pump the special scent in to the class. The Period A class reports a very relaxed feeling during the test and they score 8% better on the test than the Period B class. What is the independent (or manipulated) variable in Experimental Design #2?

a)

Period A

b)

Period B

c)

The special scent

d)

The performance on the test

15.

Experimental Design #2: A personal trainer thinks that her clients get better workouts and are stronger if they listen to music while working out. She divides her 20 clients into 2 groups of 10. For the first group, she plays music and asks them to lift a 50 lb. weight. For the second group, she repeats the test, but does not play any music. All 10 members of the first group could lift the weight, but only 7 members of the second group could lift the weight. She concluded that her hypothesis was correct and she now plays music for her clients. What is the dependent (or responding) variable in Experimental Design #2?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 2

c)

The music

d)

Being able to lift the weight

16.

Experimental Design #2: A personal trainer thinks that her clients get better workouts and are stronger if they listen to music while working out. She divides her 20 clients into 2 groups of 10. For the first group, she plays music and asks them to lift a 50 lb. weight. For the second group, she repeats the test, but does not play any music. All 10 members of the first group could lift the weight, but only 7 members of the second group could lift the weight. She concluded that her hypothesis was correct and she now plays music for her clients. What is the Quantitative data in Experimental Design #2?

a)

The music was played for the clients

b)

10 members in Group 1 and 7 members in Group 2 could lift the weight.

c)

Group 1 clients reported being happier

d)

None of these

17.

Which of the following is NOT a helpful scientific attitude?

a)

Curious

b)

Creative

c)

Open-minded

d)

Uninterested

e)

Skeptical

18.

Which aspect of scientific research allows researchers to evaluate each other’s work?

a)

Data collection

b)

Data analysis

c)

Peer review

d)

Observation

19.

What is the most reliable outlet that scientists use to share their work?

a)

Peer-reviewed scientific journals

b)

TV morning talk shows

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

20.

A well-tested explanation that unifies a broad range of observations and hypotheses is a

a)

Theory

b)

Law

c)

Rule

d)

Postulate

21.

Just because science CAN be used, doesn't always mean it should be used. This statement reveals that science works together with

a)

Society

b)

Laws

c)

Moral principles

d)

None of these

22.

Made of cells is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

23.

Able to reproduce is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

24.

Able to stay warm is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

25.

Based on a universal genetic code is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

26.

Based on the metric system is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

27.

Able to grow and develop is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

Obtain and use materials and energy is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

29.

Respond to the environment is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

30.

Maintain a stable internal environment is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

31.

Taken as a group, they evolve is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

32.

Able to move is a characteristic of life.

a)

true

b)

false

33.

The genetic code of all living things is

a)

Teacher’s phone number

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

DNA

d)

tRNA

34.

Which type of reproduction involves one parent making a copy of itself?

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

c)

Conjugation

d)

None of these

35.

Metabolism is

a)

The combination of chemical reactions through which an organism builds up or breaks down materials.

b)

Process of changes in shape and form from a larva to adult.

c)

Seasonal behavior resulting in movement from one environment to another.

d)

None of these

36.

A signal to which an organism responds is a(n)

a)

Stimulus

b)

Response

c)

Homeostasis

d)

None of these

37.

The relatively constant internal conditions that organisms maintain is

a)

Stimulus

b)

Response

c)

Homeostasis

d)

None of these

38.

Table #1 - Analyze a table and create a graph: What is the independent (or manipulated) variable in Table #1?

a)

pH of water

b)

Number of tadpoles

c)

The tadpole farmer

d)

None of these

39.

What is the dependent (or responding) variable in Table #1??

a)

pH of water

b)

Number of tadpoles

c)

The tadpole farmer

d)

None of these

40.

What is the optimum pH for tadpole development according to Table #1??

a)

5.5

b)

6.0

c)

6.5

d)

7.0

41.

What is the basic unit of matter?

a)

atoms

b)

molecules

c)

compounds

d)

none of these

42.

Which atomic particle has a positive charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

valence

43.

Which atomic particle has a negative charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

valence

44.

Which atomic particle has no charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

valence

45.

What happens to positive and negative particles?

a)

attract

b)

repel

46.

Atoms usually have the same number of protons and electrons, therefore they are

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

none of these

47.

What is an atom that has more neutrons than protons and electrons?

a)

ion

b)

isotope

c)

valence

d)

none of these

48.

What are the valence electrons?

a)

the electrons on the innermost orbital

b)

the electrons on the outermost orbital

c)

the protons on the outermost orbital

d)

none of these

49.

How many e- must there be in the first orbital for it to be “full”, and how many e- must there be in all other orbitals for it to be “full”?

a)

2; 12

b)

2; 10

c)

2; 8

d)

8; 8

50.

What does the atomic number indicate?

a)

the mass of the atom

b)

the charge of the atom

c)

the number of neutrons

d)

the number of protons and electrons

51.

NaCl is

a)

molecule

b)

compound

c)

both of these

d)

none of these

52.

O2 is a

a)

molecule

b)

compound

c)

both of these

d)

none of these

53.

Why do atoms have to form bonds?

a)

an atom’s outer orbital is not full

b)

an atom’s inner orbital is not full

c)

they share orbitals

d)

none of these

54.

Which type of bond happens when atoms gain or lose electrons, become positively or negatively charged and “stick like a magnet” to other atoms?

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

valence bond

d)

none of these

55.

Which type of bond happens when atoms share electrons to fill their outer orbital?

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

valence bond

d)

none of these

56.

The atoms that are available for bonding are the valence electrons.

a)

true

b)

false

57.

What does it mean in chemistry terms to be an organic compound?

a)

it has no carbon atoms

b)

it has two or more carbon atoms

c)

it has all carbon atoms

d)

none of these

58.

What are polymers?

a)

single, individual molecules

b)

many molecules linked together

c)

like letters in the alphabet

d)

none of these

59.

Which macromolecule is the main part of skin and muscles, is responsible for the body’s repair and defense, and is the material of enzymes?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

60.

Which macromolecule is used for short-term energy, is a part of the structure of cells, and promotes cell recognition?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

61.

Which macromolecule is used for long-term energy storage, cell structure and the cushioning of body organs?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

62.

Which macromolecule carries genetic instructions and is responsible for protein synthesis (instructions for making proteins)?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

63.

Pigments, hormones and enzymes are examples of nucleic acids.

a)

true

b)

false

64.

An enzyme is a(n)

a)

catalyst

b)

protein

c)

something that speeds up a chemical reaction

d)

all of these

65.

How does an enzyme work?

a)

It lowers the amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction

b)

It increases the amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction

c)

It fills the outer orbital of an atom to make a bond

d)

none of these

66.

In the enzyme diagram, which structure is the substrate?

a)

a

b)

b

67.

In the enzyme diagram, which structure is the active site?

a)

a

b)

b

68.

Enzymes are destroyed after they are used.

a)

true

b)

false

69.

What is a calorie?

a)

The amount of energy needed to raise 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius.

b)

A chemical used to make ATP

c)

Raw material to repair tissue

d)

None of the above

70.

Vitamins and minerals are essential materials needed to grow and stay healthy.

a)

true

b)

false

71.

Whose work with the first microscopes and cells led to the cell theory?

a)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

b)

Robert Hooke

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Both Hooke and Leeuwenhoek

72.

Which of the following is NOT a principle of the cell theory?

a)

Cells are the basic unit of life

b)

All living things are made of cells

c)

Cells arise from spontaneous generation

d)

All cells come from pre-existing cells

73.

Anton van Leeuwenhoek first saw moving things he named

a)

Animacules

b)

Bacteria

c)

Cells

d)

None of these

74.

Prokaryotes do not have

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Nucleus

d)

Genetic Material

75.

Which of the following is an example of a prokaryote?

a)

Plant Cells

b)

Animal Cells

c)

Bacteria Cells

d)

Fungus Cells

76.

Which of the following cells has a true nucleus?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

Bacteria

d)

Organelles

77.

Which of the following serves as the cell’s boundary from its environment?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Channel Proteins

78.

Only plant cells have a cell wall.

a)

true

b)

false

79.

Which organelle contains DNA (hereditary info)?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

e)

Vacuoles

80.

Which organelle converts chemical energy in food to useable compounds and is the “power house” of the cell?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

e)

Vacuoles

81.

Which organelle organizes cell division?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

e)

Vacuoles

82.

Which organelle cleans up the cell by breaking down and recycling macromolecules?

a)

Chloropast

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosome

e)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

83.

Only plant cells have mitochondria.

a)

true

b)

false

84.

Which organelle assembles proteins and lipids and may or may not have ribosomes attached?

a)

Chloropast

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosome

e)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

85.

Which organelle makes proteins by putting amino acids in long chains?

a)

Chloropast

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosome

e)

Ribosome

86.

Only plant cells have chloroplasts.

a)

true

b)

false

87.

Which organelle modifies, sorts and packages proteins and lipids for storage or transport out of the cell; is the “shipping department”?

a)

Chloropast

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosome

e)

Ribosome

88.

Which organelle is only found in plant cells, convert solar energy to chemical energy by storing it in sugar and is like a “solar panel?”

a)

Chloropast

b)

Cytoskeleton

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosome

e)

Ribosome

89.

Which organelle is represented by #1 in the diagram?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Lysosome

e)

Golgi Apparatus

90.

Which organelle is represented by #2 in the diagram?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Lysosome

e)

Golgi Apparatus

91.

Which organelle is represented by #3 in the diagram?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Lysosome

e)

Golgi Apparatus

92.

Which organelle is represented by #4 in the diagram?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Lysosome

e)

Golgi Apparatus

93.

Which organelle is represented by #5 in the diagram?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Ribosome

e)

Golgi Apparatus

94.

Which organelle is represented by #6 in the diagram?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Ribosome

e)

Golgi Apparatus

95.

Which organelle is represented by #7 in the diagram?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytosekelton

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Centrioles

e)

Golgi Apparatus

96.

Which structure regulates the movement of materials into and out of the cell?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Ribosome

97.

What is the lipid bilayer?

a)

Two layer cell membrane made of phospholipid molecules

b)

Single layer cell membrane made of phospholipid molecules

c)

Bilipids used for cell transport

d)

None of these

98.

Which molecules of the lipid bilayer are hydrophilic?

a)

Polar Heads

b)

Non-Polar Tails

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

99.

The cell membrane contains channels that help move materials from one side to the other. What are these channels made of?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Bilipids

d)

Proteins

100.

Integral proteins, such as channel proteins, allow materials to move

a)

Into the Cell

b)

Out of the Cell

c)

Through the Cell

d)

Into and Out of the Cell

101.

Proteins that are located on the side or edge of the cell membrane are called

a)

Peripheral Proteins

b)

Integral Proteins

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Glycolipids

102.

The material that works as chemical recognition sites on the cell membrane and attaches cells to make tissues is

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

None of these

103.

Diffusion is the movement of molecules from

a)

High to Low Concentrations

b)

Low to High Concentration

c)

Equilibrium

d)

None of these

104.

Which type of cell transport requires input of energy from the cell because it is going against the concentration gradient?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Facilitated Diffusion

d)

Active Transport

105.

The diffusion of water from high to low concentration across a membrane is called

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Facilitated Diffusion

d)

Active Transport

106.

Which type of cellular transport is shown in the above diagram?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Facilitated Diffusion

d)

Active Transport

107.

Which item in the diagram is the revolving nosepiece, which holds the objective lenses?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

108.

Which item in the diagram is the coarse adjustment?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

109.

Which item in the diagram is the fine adjustment?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

110.

What formula would you use to calculate the total magnification of a microscope used to view a specimen?

a)

Objective lens x 2

b)

Eyepiece x objective lens

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

111.

What is an autotroph?

a)

Self-feeder

b)

Plant

c)

Photosynthetic bacteria

d)

all of these

112.

How do heterotrophs obtain food?

a)

They make it through photosynthesis

b)

They eat organisms that store sugar in their cells

c)

They release CO2

d)

none of these

113.

Cells must complete thousands of activities every minute. What do cells need to power these activities?

a)

Heat

b)

Pigments

c)

Energy

d)

none of these

114.

What molecule do cells use to make the fuel they need to power their daily activities?

a)

Sugar

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

none of these

115.

Why do plants, algae and some bacteria perform photosynthesis?

a)

To break sugar

b)

To make oxygen

c)

To make sugar

d)

none of these

116.

What is ATP?

a)

Adenine Triple

b)

Adenosine Triphosphate

c)

Arsenic Tin Phosphate

d)

none of these

117.

Which letter in the diagram above represents the part of the ATP molecule that breaks off to release energy for the cell?

a)

a.

b)

b.

c)

c.

d)

d.

e)

e.

118.

What is the missing part of the following photosynthesis equation? Carbon Dioxide + Water -------> Sugar + Oxygen

a)

NADP+

b)

Light

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

none of these

119.

Chemicals that absorb light are called

a)

Pigments

b)

Acids

c)

Bases

d)

none of these

120.

Which letter represents a thylakoid?

a)

a.

b)

b.

121.

Which letter represents the stroma?

a)

a.

b)

b.

122.

Which letter represents where is the chlorophyll located?

a)

a.

b)

b.

123.

Which letter represents where the light-dependent reactions occur?

a)

a.

b)

b.

124.

Which letter represents where the light-independent (Calvin Cycle) reactions?

a)

a.

b)

b.

125.

Chlorophyll accomplishes two tasks during the light dependent reactions. They are:

a)

Carrying products from light dependent reactions to the Calvin Cycle

b)

Splitting H2O and releasing O2

c)

Accepting CO2 and releasing O2

126.

Which molecule picks up a H+ and two e- and carries them from the light-dependent reactions to the light-independent (Calvin Cycle) reactions to complete photosynthesis?

a)

NADP+

b)

NADPH

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

ATP

127.

The equation that summarizes cellular respiration is

a)

Oxygen + Sugar --> Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy

b)

Oxygen + Water --> Carbon Dioxide + Sugar + Energy

c)

Sugar + Water --> Carbon Dioxide + Oxygen + Energy

d)

none of these

128.

Cellular respiration begins with a pathway called

a)

Electron Transport Chain

b)

Kreb's Cycle

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Photosynthesis

129.

Where does the first stage of cellular respiration, sometimes called “sugar breaking,” take place?

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoids

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

130.

Which molecule from glycolysis is needed for the Krebs Cycle to begin?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

ATP

c)

Pyruvic Acid

d)

none of these

131.

What is the net gain of ATP during glycolysis?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

32

d)

36

132.

Fermentation occurs when there is

a)

Too much oxygen

b)

No oxygen

c)

No carbon dioxide

d)

none of these

133.

What type of fermentation makes muscles sore after exercise?

a)

Lactic acid

b)

Alcoholic

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

none of these

134.

What is the byproduct of alcoholic fermentation?

a)

Carbon dioxide and alcohol

b)

Oxygen and alcohol

c)

Sugar and alcohol

d)

Water and alcohol

135.

Which letter represents electron transport chain?

a)

a.

b)

b.

c)

c.

136.

Which letter represents glycolysis?

a)

a.

b)

b.

c)

c.

137.

Which letter represents the Krebs Cycle?

a)

a.

b)

b.

c)

c.

138.

Which letter represents the stage of cellular respiration that makes 32 ATP?

a)

a.

b)

b.

c)

c.

139.

How many total ATP are produced as a result of cellular respiration?

a)

2

b)

32

c)

36

d)

none of these

140.

Which molecule in cellular respiration accepts 2 electrons from NADH to keep glycolysis making ATP, thereby allowing cells to live?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

none of these

141.

If cells grow too large, they have more trouble

a)

Dividing

b)

Producing daughter cells

c)

Storing materials and waste products

d)

Moving needed materials in and waste products out

142.

The goal of cell division is

a)

Growth

b)

Repair

c)

Move materials out of the cell

d)

Both Growth and Repair

143.

Which of the following happens when a cell divides?

a)

The cell’s volume increases

b)

It becomes more difficult for the cell to get rid of wastes

c)

Each new cell receives an identical copy of the original cell’s DNA

d)

It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients

144.

During _____ reproduction, DNA from two parents combines and cells produce genetically different offspring, whereas during _____ reproduction, DNA from one parent is copied and cells produce genetically identical offspring.

a)

Sexual; asexual

b)

Sexual; sexual

c)

Asexual; asexual

d)

None of these

145.

The time from the beginning of one cell division to the beginning of the next is the

a)

Cell cycle

b)

Mitosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

None of these

146.

The cell cycle generally takes about hours to complete.

a)

12

b)

24

c)

36

d)

48

147.

During which phase in the cell cycle does mitosis happen?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

148.

During which phase in the cell cycle does the cell copy its DNA?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

149.

Which of the following is a correct statement about the events of the cell cycle?

a)

Little happens during the G1 and G2 phases.

b)

DNA replicates during cytokinesis.

c)

The M phase is usually the longest phase.

d)

None of these

150.

Together, the G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase make up _____.

a)

The cell cycle

b)

Interphase

c)

Cyclins

d)

None of these

151.

The end of the cell cycle results in the final division of the cytoplasm. This is called

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Telophase I

c)

Telophase II

d)

None of these

152.

The structure labeled A in Figure 10–1 is called the

a)

Centromere

b)

Centriole

c)

Sister chromatid

d)

Spindle

153.

The structures labeled B in Figure 10–1 are called

a)

Centromere

b)

Centriole

c)

Sister chromatid

d)

Spindle

154.

Chromatin is the form of DNA that is spread out into thin strands.

a)

true

b)

false

155.

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes condense, become thick and are visible?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

156.

The phase of mitosis shown in step C in the Figure 10–2 is called

a)

Meiosis

b)

Metaphase

c)

Mitosis

d)

None of these

157.

During which phase of mitosis does a nuclear envelope re-form around each cluster of chromosomes as shown in step E of Figure 10-2?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

158.

During which phase of mitosis are chromosomes pulled apart at the centromere?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

159.

Which of the following explains why normal cells grown in a petri dish tend to stop growing once they have covered the bottom of the dish?

a)

The cells lack cyclin.

b)

The petri dish inhibits cell growth.

c)

Contact with other cells stops cell growth.

d)

Most cells grown in petri dishes have a defective p53.

160.

In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell cycle is controlled by internal regulators called

a)

Centrioles

b)

Spindle fibers

c)

Cyclins

d)

The nuclear envelope

161.

An example of an external regulator on cell division is

a)

Skin healing after a deep cut

b)

Cyclins

c)

P53 gene

d)

None of these

162.

Cells that experience stress, such as DNA damage, and do not pass certain internal checkpoints can go through programmed cell death. This is called

a)

Reduction division

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Homologous chromosomes

d)

Mitosis

163.

Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to regulate their _____.

a)

Size

b)

Cell cycle

c)

Spindle fibers

d)

Surface area

164.

Malignant tumors

a)

Do not spread to other parts of the body

b)

Invade and destroy surrounding tissues

c)

Instruct a slow down of cell growth

d)

None of these

165.

When cancer spreads to other parts of the body, it’s called _____.

a)

Metastasis

b)

Benign

c)

Apoptosis

d)

None of these

166.

Figure 10-4 shows the phases of Mitosis out of order. List the correct order for the diagrams in Figure 10–4.

a)

D, A, C, B

b)

A, B, C, D

c)

B, C, A, D

d)

A, C, D, B

167.

Identify the structures labeled X in Figure 10–4.

a)

Spindle

b)

Centrioles

c)

Centromere

d)

Chromatids

168.

Identify the structures labeled Y in Figure 10–4.

a)

Spindle

b)

Centrioles

c)

Centromere

d)

Chromatids

169.

After the steps shown in Figure 10–4 are arranged in the correct order, what would a diagram of the next step show?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Telophase II

d)

Interphase

170.

If you were to observe a sample of dividing cells, which phase would MOST of the cells be in?

a)

Interphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

BIO MIDTERM REVIEW

Total questions: 170

Worksheet time: 11hrs 24mins

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