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Biology Final Quizizz

Total questions: 177

Worksheet time: 44hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are characteristics of living things? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

All living things have cells.

b)

All living things reproduce.

c)

All living things grow and develop.

d)

All living things get and use energy.

e)

All living things respond to stimuli.

2.

Which of the subatomic particles of an atom are involved in chemical bonding?

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

electrons

d)

all of the above

3.

In the process of covalent bonding, atoms share electrons. This means that

a)

Protons and neutrons attract

b)

Electrons from each atom are attracted to the nucleus of both atoms

c)

Atoms lose electrons and become ions

d)

Atoms gain electrons and become ions

4.

In the process of ionic bonding, ions come together because

a)

Positive and negative ions attract

b)

Opposite charges repel

c)

Salt is magnetic

d)

Like charges attract each other

5.

Biology is the study of

a)

minerals

b)

life

c)

the weather

d)

energy

6.

The smallest units that carry out all the functions of life are called

a)

molecules

b)

cells

c)

organelles

d)

species

7.

All living things maintain a balance within their cells and the environment through the process of

a)

growth

b)

development

c)

homeostasis

d)

evolution

8.

Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process of

a)

communicating

b)

inferring

c)

collecting and analyzing data

d)

making a guess

9.

A scientific theory

a)

is absolutely certain

b)

is unchangeable

c)

may be revised as new evidence is presented

d)

is a controlled experiment

10.

Which of the following are likely topics in a biology course?

a)

Why does the Texas horned lizard squirt blood out of its eyes?

b)

How is a banded pipefish able to hide in its environment of seaweeds?

c)

What chemicals cause plant stems to lengthen or flowers to bloom?

d)

All of these.

11.

Students in a biology class ran an experiment on a type of flowering plant. Their goal was to find the optimal time in the plant's life for flowering. What time period will provide the most flowering plants? Use Table 1-1 to determine your answer.

a)

5-6 days

b)

6-7 days

c)

7-8 days

d)

9-10 days

12.

Which of the following results from quantitative analysis of Figure 1-1?

a)

The babies are cold.

b)

There are 8 offspring.

c)

There isn't enough food.

d)

These are the first offspring these rabbits have had.

13.

Which of the following would be LEAST likely to be studied in biology?

a)

the relationship between fungi and trees

b)

the formation of rocks in a volcanic area

c)

the chemicals at work in the stomach

d)

the speed at which a hummingbird flies

14.

What is the basis of the metric measurement system? (Hint: the metric system uses measurements like meters, centimeters, kilometers, etc.)

a)

Its measures are based on divisions that are powers of ten.

b)

It is based on European measurement standards.

c)

It is the only scientific measurement system.

d)

It is based on the wavelength of krypton-86 radiation.

15.

Which of the following is an observation?

a)

You notice the air temperature is cooler in the morning.

b)

You propose that a cold front is approaching.

c)

You hypothesize that the temperature will increase tomorrow.

d)

You conclude that the season is changing.

16.

Tasha is testing the effect of blue-colored light on the growth of tomato plants. Which is the independent variable in this experiment?

a)

light color

b)

light intensity

c)

amount of light

d)

temperature of light

17.

A researcher is interested in the effects of nitrate and phosphate on plant growth and sets up an experiment in which groups of five plants are given 1, 2, and 3 grams of nitrate and 1, 2, and 3 grams of phosphate in all combinations over a period of one month. The plants are grown in the same size planter, using the same amount of sunlight and water for each. The researcher measures plant height and weight at the end of the experiment. What is missing in this experimental design?

a)

a control

b)

an independent variable

c)

a dependent variable

d)

a constant

18.

Which of the following correctly sequences the steps of the scientific method?

a)

question, explain, design and conduct experiment, observe, collect and analyze data, report findings

b)

observe, question, make a testable explanation, experiment, collect and analyze data, state findings

c)

form a hypothesis, observe, investigate a testable question, collect and analyze data, state results

d)

design and conduct an investigation based on a testable question, form a hypothesis, collect data, state findings

19.

The graph in Figure 1-2 shows the three stages in the growth of a corn plant from a seed to a mature plant. Study the graph and then answer the questions. From Figure 1 - 2, predict the mass of the plant on Day 110.

a)

25 grams

b)

65 grams

c)

81 grams

d)

110 grams

20.

The study of biology includes things that were once living and those alive today.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

An amoeba is unicellular; therefore, it is an organism

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which of the following is not one of the main characteristics of living things?

a)

has cellular structure

b)

uses oxygen

c)

goes through stages of growth and development

d)

maintains homeostasis

23.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the atom?

a)

proton

b)

alpha particle

c)

neutron

d)

electron

24.

_________ and ______ are found in the nucleus of an atom, while ________ orbit the nucleus in energy levels.

a)

Protons and electrons, neutrons

b)

Neutrons and electrons, protons

c)

Protons and neutrons, electrons

d)

Electrons and protons, neutrons

25.

What type of bond do atoms make when they share electrons?

a)

ionic

b)

hydrogen

c)

covalent

26.

What is the element symbol for Carbon?

a)

H

b)

Ca

c)

C

d)

O

27.

If carbon has four valence electrons in its outer most energy level, how many single covalent bonds can it form in order to fill that energy level with eight electrons?

a)

2 bonds

b)

4 bonds

c)

6 bonds

d)

8 bonds

28.

The attraction that causes water and other liquids to form drops on thin films is called ________________. This is also water’s ability to be attracted to other water molecules.

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

c)

capillary action

d)

surface tension

29.

Which end of the water molecule has a slightly positive charge?

a)

the oxygen end

b)

the hydrogen end

c)

both ends are slightly positive

d)

neither end is positive

30.

Most atoms adopt one of three simple strategies to achieve a filled shell. Which of the following is NOT one of these strategies.

a)

share electrons

b)

give away electrons

c)

take electrons

d)

create electrons

31.

The element symbol for Carbon is ____, the element symbol for Hydrogen is ____, and the element symbol for oxygen is ____.

a)

Ca, He, Ox

b)

Ca, H, O

c)

C, H, O

d)

C, He, Ox

32.

Which of the following statements about atomic structure is NOT true?

a)

Electrons have a negative charge and help determine how atoms will form bonds.

b)

The nucleus of an atom surrounds an area called the electron cloud.

c)

Electrons are found in a region called the electron cloud.

d)

The nucleus of an atom contains both protons and neutrons.

33.

What type of chemical bond forms when two atoms share a pair or pairs of electrons?

a)

covalent bond

b)

hydrogen bond

c)

ionic bond

d)

atomic bond

34.

About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?

a)

carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen

b)

carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen

c)

oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen

d)

carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

35.

Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids are said to be organic because they contain ________ and are found in _________ things

a)

carbon, nonliving

b)

hydrogen, living

c)

carbon, living

d)

hydrogen, nonliving

36.

In the chemical reaction shown below, C6H12O6 +6O2 are the _____________ because they are _________________________.

6CO2 + 6H2O --> C6H12O6 +6O2

a)

reactants, the materials that enter the chemical reaction

b)

reactants, the materials produced by the chemical reaction

c)

products, the materials that enter the chemical reaction

d)

products, the materials produced by the chemical reaction

37.

How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 11 monomers long?

a)

12

b)

11

c)

10

d)

9

38.

Glucose is an example of a monomer of carbohydrates. Monomers of carbohydrates are called:

a)

dissacharides

b)

starch

c)

polysaccharides

d)

monosaccharides

39.

Glycogen, cellulose and starch are examples of large carbohydrates called

a)

polysaccharides

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

unsaturated fats

40.

Refer to the illustration above. Molecules like molecule 2 are monomers found in

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

41.

Lipids are composed of:

a)

glucose & sucrose

b)

amino acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

glycerol & fatty acids

42.

Nucleic acids include

a)

chlorophyll and retinal

b)

DNA and RNA

c)

lipids and sugars

d)

glucose and glycogen

43.

In humans and other multicelluar organisms, which substance plays a central role as a quick energy source?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

fat

c)

protein

d)

water

44.

An organism’s genetic information is stored in which type of macromolecule?

a)

DNA

b)

carbohydrate

c)

lipid

d)

protein

45.

A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a

a)

carbohydrate

b)

fatty acid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

46.

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by condensation reactions?

a)

C18H36O18

b)

C18H32O16

c)

C6H10O5

d)

C18H10O15

47.

How does an enzyme influence a biological reaction?

a)

It increases the energy difference between reactants and products.

b)

It decreases the activation energy necessary to begin the chemical reaction.

c)

It increases the kinetic energy of reactants, thereby increasing their tendency to collide.

d)

It decreases the kinetic energy of reactants, enabling them to move through a chemical change.

48.

Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates or lipids?

a)

C

b)

H

c)

N

d)

O

49.

There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?

a)

different side chains (R groups) attached to a carboxyl carbon

b)

different side chains (R groups) attached to the amino groups

c)

different side chains (R groups) attached to an á (alpha) carbon

d)

different asymmetric carbons

50.

Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?

a)

peptide bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

disulfide bonds

d)

phosphodiester bonds

51.

Long chains of amino acids are found in

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

sugars

52.

All proteins

a)

are exactly the same in structure but different in function.

b)

are exactly the same in function but different in structure.

c)

have a unique structure that determines their unique function.

d)

are enzymes.

53.

Enzymes

a)

are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.

b)

provide CO2 for chemical reactions.

c)

are biological catalysts that help to speed up chemical reactions.

d)

absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.

54.

Without enzymes, the chemical reactions in the body would

a)

happen too fast

b)

occur at much the same rates as they dow ith enzymes

c)

require a different pH

d)

occur too slowly to support life processes

55.

A student set up four test tubes containing starch solution to perform starch digestion. Supplies included amylase (enzyme found in humans that digests starch) and an incubator. In which tube listed would starch digestion proceed most quickly?

a)

Tube 1: No amylase, room temperature (25°C)

b)

Tube 2: No amylase, body temperature (37°C)

c)

Tube 3: Amylase present, room temperature (25°C)

d)

Tube 4: Amylase present, body temperature (37°C)

56.

Examine the chemical reaction below and select ALL the correct answers.

a)

This reaction bonds monomers together.

b)

This reaction breaks polymers apart into monomers.

c)

This is a dehydration synthesis (condensation) reaction that H2O is released with each bond.

d)

This is a hydrolysis reaction that consumes H2O .

57.

Examine the chemical reaction below and select ALL the correct answers.

a)

This reaction bonds monomers together.

b)

This reaction breaks polymers apart into monomers.

c)

This is a dehydration synthesis (condensation) reaction that H2O is released with each bond.

d)

This is a hydrolysis reaction that consumes H2O.

58.

Carbohydrates functions are

a)

quick energy for living things

b)

various functions: structural, transport, signaling, catalysts, etc.

c)

stores energy and makes up cell membranes

d)

stores and transmits genetic information

59.

Proteins functions are

a)

quick energy for living things

b)

various functions: structural, transport, signaling, catalysts, etc.

c)

stores energy and makes up cell membranes

d)

stores and transmits genetic information

60.

Lipids functions are

a)

quick energy for living things

b)

various functions: structural, transport, signaling, catalysts, etc.

c)

stores energy and makes up cell membranes

d)

stores and transmits genetic information

61.

Nucleic acids functions are

a)

quick energy for living things

b)

various functions: structural, transport, signaling, catalysts, etc.

c)

stores energy and makes up cell membranes

d)

stores and transmits genetic information

62.

Match the letters in the diagram below with their correct identifier.

Enzyme

a)

C

b)

E

c)

A

d)

B

e)

D

63.

Match the letters in the diagram below with their correct identifier.

Product(s)

a)

C

b)

E

c)

A

d)

B

e)

D

64.

Match the letters in the diagram below with their correct identifier.

Substrate

a)

C

b)

E

c)

A

d)

B

e)

D

65.

Match the letters in the diagram below with their correct identifier.

Active Site

a)

C

b)

E

c)

A

d)

B

e)

D

66.

Match the letters in the diagram below with their correct identifier.

Enzyme Substrate Complex

a)

C

b)

E

c)

A

d)

B

e)

D

67.

The smallest units that carry out all the characteristics of life are

a)

cells

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm

d)

Golgi apparatus

68.

Which statement is NOT one of the fundamental principles of the cell theory?

a)

All living things are composed of one or more cells.

b)

The cell is the basic unit of structure and function in living things.

c)

All cells have a nucleus.

d)

All cells come from pre-existing cells.

69.

All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except

a)

DNA

b)

an endoplasmic reticulum

c)

a plasma membrane

d)

ribosomes

70.

One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that

a)

DNA is found only in prokaryotes.

b)

mitochondria are found in eukaryoties but chloroplasts are not.

c)

the Golgi apparatus is found only in prokaryotes.

d)

eukaryotes have a nucleus.

71.

Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, but it does have a plasma membrane and circular DNA. You conclude that the cell is probably from a(n)

a)

animal

b)

plant

c)

prokaryote

d)

extinct organism

72.

Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?

a)

an amoeba

b)

a virus

c)

a bacterium

d)

a liver cell

73.

When using the compound light microscopes in the lab, which of the following is the correct procedure?

a)

Once you have a specimen in focus, slide the microscope across the table to your partner so they can see the specimen, too.

b)

Use the coarse focus knob to adjust the focus when on low, medium and high power objective lenses.

c)

When finished for the day, lower the microscope back to the low power objective lens, remove and store/clean the slide, turn the microscope off, wrap the cord, cover the microscope and carry it using both hands back to the storage cabinet.

d)

If you are at high power and cannot see the specimen, use the coarse focus knob since the fine focus knob is not working.

74.

What is the approximate size of B in this image?

a)

200 mm

b)

500 mm

c)

700 mm

d)

1000 mm

75.

Which of the following scientists, looking at cork gave cells their name?

a)

Issac Newton

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Robert Hooke

d)

Anton Van Lewenhoak

76.

The structute that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is called the

a)

nucleus

b)

cell wall

c)

nuclear membrane

d)

plasma membrane

77.

A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)

a)

organelle

b)

organ tissue

c)

tissue

d)

organism

78.

The organelles are associated with photosynthesis are the

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplasts

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

vacuoles

79.

Where are you least likely to find water in the structure shown in this image?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

80.

Which of the following types of molecules are the main structural components of the cell membrane?

a)

phospholipids and cellulose

b)

nucleic acids and proteins

c)

phospholipids and proteins

d)

proteins and cellulose

81.

The process by which water passes into or out of a cell is called

a)

solubility

b)

osmosis

c)

selective transport

d)

endocytosis

82.

All of the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except

a)

a cell wall

b)

a plasma membrane

c)

mitochondria

d)

the endoplasmic reticulum

83.

In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

lysosome

84.

Both water and solutes easily diffuse through the cellular membrane.


Refer to the illustration above. Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as a result of diffusion?

a)

cell 1

b)

cell 2

c)

cell 3

d)

cell 4

85.

Both water and solutes easily diffuse through the cellular membrane.


Refer to the illustration above. In this system, solute molecules in cell 2 are most likely to

a)

remain in cell 2

b)

adhere to cell 2's membrane

c)

diffuse into cell 1

d)

diffuse into cell 4

86.

Both water and solutes easily diffuse through the cellular membrane.


Refer to the illustration above. In which direction are water molecules in this system most likely to diffuse?

a)

from 1 to 2

b)

from 2 to 4

c)

from 4 to 3

d)

from 3 to 1

87.

The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

d)

endocytosis

88.

Ridding the cell of material by discharging it from sacs at the cell surface is called

a)

pinocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

89.

Which of the following does not expend energy?

a)

diffusion

b)

endocytosis

c)

active transport

d)

a sodium-potassium pump

90.

Proteins are made on the

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosomes

c)

nucleus

d)

plasma membrane

91.

The statement "Cells are produced only from existing cells" is part of the (a)   .

92.

A cell with a well-defined nucleus and cytoplasm surrounded by a plasma membrane is a(n) (a)   cell.

93.

A plasma membrane is said to be (a)   permeable because it allows the passage of some solutes and not others.

94.

(a)   molecules have polar “heads” and non-polar “tails” and are found in the plasma membrane.

95.

The meshlike network of protein fibers that supports the shape of the cell is called the (a)   .

Answer choices are cytoskeleton, exocytosis, ocular lenses, endocytosis, and objective lenses.

96.

Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in figure Y is called (a)   .

Answer choices are cytoskeleton, exocytosis, ocular lenses, endocytosis, and objective lenses.

97.

Refer to the illustration above. Cells often trap extracellular particles and fluid. This is shown in figure X and is called (a)   .

Answer choices are cytoskeleton, exocytosis, ocular lenses, endocytosis, and objective lenses.

98.

In the diagram above, identify what H is pointing to? (a)   .

Answer choices are cytoskeleton, exocytosis, ocular lenses, endocytosis, and objective lenses.

99.

In the diagram above, identify what Y is pointing to? (a)   .

Answer choices are cytoskeleton, exocytosis, ocular lenses, endocytosis, and objective lenses.

100.

What is structure #2?

a)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Central Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

e)

Chloroplast

101.

What is structure #1?

a)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Central Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

e)

Chloroplast

102.

What is structure #4?

a)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Central Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

e)

Chloroplast

103.

What is structure #6?

a)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Central Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

e)

Chloroplast

104.

What is structure #8?

a)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Central Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

e)

Chloroplast

105.

The cell in the picture above is an animal cell.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Animals are the only types of organisms that contain a nucleus in their cells.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

How do organisms get the energy they need?

a)

by burning food molecules and releasing their energy as heat

b)

by breathing oxygen into the lungs and combining it with carbon dioxide

c)

by breaking down food molecules gradually and capturing their chemical energy

d)

by using the sun’s energy to break down food molecules and form chemicals

108.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?

a)

glycolysis -----> fermentation -----> Krebs cycle

b)

Krebs cycle -----> electron transport -----> glycolysis

c)

glycolysis -----> Krebs cycle -----> electron transport

d)

Krebs cycle -----> glycolysis -----> electron transport

109.

What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a)

6O2 + C6H12O6 ® 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

b)

6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy ® 6CO2+ 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O ® 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy

d)

6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy ® 6O2 + C6H12O6

110.

Cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down

a)

glucose (food molecules)

b)

ATP

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

111.

Which of these is a product of cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

glucose

d)

lactic acid

112.

Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to

a)

chloroplasts

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

nuclei

113.

The products of photosynthesis are the

a)

products of cellular respiration

b)

reactants of cellular respiration

c)

products of glycolysis

d)

reactants of fermentation

114.

The Krebs cycle does NOT occur if

a)

oxygen is present

b)

oxygen is not present

c)

glycolysis occurs

d)

carbon dioxide is present

115.

Lactic acid fermentation occurs in

a)

bread dough

b)

any environment containing oxygen

c)

muscle cells

d)

mitochondria

116.

In cellular respiration, the greatest amount of ATP is produced during

a)

during the electron transport chain

b)

during the Krebs cycle

c)

during the formation of Acetyl CoA

d)

during Glycolysis

117.

Which of the following is NOT part of cellular respiration?

a)

electron transport

b)

glycolysis

c)

the Krebs cycle

d)

the Calvin Cycle

118.

C6 H12O6 + 6O2 + ADP + P ----> 6CO2 + 6 H2O + MOLECULE A

a)

NADPH

b)

ATP

c)

NADH

d)

ADP

119.

What is the main purpose of the cycle shown above?

a)

sugar production

b)

destruction of CO2

c)

production of ADP

d)

production of NADP-

120.

In Figure 9.12, which step shows the generation of an ATP molecule?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

8

121.

In Figure 9.12, which steps show CO2 being released?

a)

1 & 2

b)

3 & 4

c)

5 & 6

d)

7 & 8

122.

If yellow, red, and orange pigments exist in the leaves of trees, why are leaves green except for in the autumn?

a)

Chlorophyll is the most abundant of all the pigments.

b)

Chlorophyll molecules are the largest of the all pigment molecules.

c)

Chlorophyll reproduces faster than the other pigments.

d)

Green is the color of the spectrum most easily seen by humans.

123.

Organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called

a)

autotrophs

b)

heterotrophs

c)

thylakoids

d)

pigments

124.

Which of the following organism is a heterotroph?

a)

mushroom

b)

alga

c)

wheat

d)

sunflower

125.

Which structure in this image above represents a single thylakoid?

a)

structure A

b)

structure B

c)

structure C

d)

structure D

126.

The stroma is the region outside the

a)

thylakoids

b)

chloroplasts

c)

plant cells

d)

mitochondria

127.

Which chemical shown in the image above is an electron carrier molecule?

a)

H2O

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

NADP+

d)

oxygen

128.

Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into

a)

oxygen and carbon

b)

high-energy sugars and proteins

c)

ATP and oxygen

d)

oxygen and high-energy sugars

129.

In the image above, why might the change in jar A burn longer than the candle in jar B?

a)

Carbon dioxide produced by the plant allows the candle to burn longer.

b)

Chlorophyll produced by the plant allows the candle to burn longer.

c)

Glucose produced by the plant allows the candle to burn longer.

d)

Oxygen produced by the plant allows the candle to burn longer.

130.

Where do the light-dependent reactions take place?

a)

in the stroma of the chloroplast

b)

within the mitochondria membranes

c)

within the thylakoid membranes

d)

in the outer membrane of the chloroplasts

131.

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions?

a)

oxygen gas and glucose

b)

ATP, NADPH, and oxygen gas

c)

ATP, carbon dioxide gas, and NADPH

d)

carbon dioxide gas, oxygen gas, and NADPH

132.

The Calvin cycle is another name for the

a)

light-independent reactions

b)

light-dependent reactions

c)

photosynthesis reaction

d)

electron transport chain

133.

Imagine that the y-axis of each graph in the image above describes the rate of photosynthesis. Which of the graphs represents the effect of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

134.

In the image above, between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?

a)

A and B

b)

A and C

c)

B and C

d)

C and D

135.

Using the image above, which pairing matches the structures shown in the cell diagrams with the process that take place within those structures?

a)

A: photosynthesis; B: cellular respiration

b)

C: photosynthesis; D: cellular respiration

c)

D: photosynthesis; E: cellular respiration

d)

E: photosynthesis; D: cellular respiration

136.

Which of the following is one of the ways that cellular respiration and photosynthesis are opposite processes?

a)

Photosynthesis releases energy, and cellular respiration stores energy.

b)

Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back.

c)

Photosynthesis removes oxygen from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back.

d)

Photosynthesis consumes glucose, and cellular respiration produces glucose.

137.

Which of the following pass high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain?

a)

NADH and FADH2

b)

ATP and ADP

c)

citric acid

d)

acetyl–CoA

138.

Choose the series arranged in order from largest to smallest in size.

a)

chromosome, nucleus, cell, DNA, nucleotide

b)

cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nucleotide

c)

nucleotide, chromosome, cell, DNA, nucleus

d)

cell, nucleotide, nucleus, DNA, chromosome

139.

Applicants for the "Supervisor" job of the Help Wanted ad in the image above, could qualify if they were ______.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

140.

Applicants for the "Executive Position" job of the Help Wanted ad in the image above, could qualify if the were _____.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

141.

Purines and pyrimidines are

a)

bases found in amino acids

b)

molecules that can replace phosphate groups from defective DNA

c)

names of specific types of DNA molecules

d)

nitrogen bases found in nucleotides

142.

If a DNA sample contains 22% thymine, what would the percentage of adenine represent?

a)

11%

b)

22%

c)

33%

d)

44%

143.

Refer to the illustration above. The entire molecule shown in the diagram is called a(n)

a)

amino acid

b)

nucleotide

c)

polysaccharide

d)

pyrimidine

144.

The scientists credited with establishing the structure of DNA are

a)

Avery and Chargaff

b)

Hershey and Chase

c)

Mendel and Griffith

d)

Watson and Crick

145.

X-ray diffraction photographs by Wilkins and Franklin suggested that

a)

DNA and RNA are the same molecules.

b)

DNA is composed of either purines or pyrimidines, but not both.

c)

DNA molecules are arranged as a tightly coiled helix.

d)

DNA and proteins have the same basic structure.

146.

Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? Studies on different species showed the amount of adenine was the same as the amount of thymine and the amount of cytosine is the same as the amount of guanine.

a)

Frederick Griffith

b)

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

c)

Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod

d)

Erwin Chargaff

147.

The addition of nucleotides to other nucleotides form a complementary strand of DNA

a)

is carried out by DNA polymerase.

b)

is accomplished only in the presence of tRNA.

c)

prevents separation of complementary strands of RNA.

d)

is the responsibility of the complementary DNA mutagens.

148.

During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be

a)

TTGCATG

b)

AAGTATC

c)

CCTAGCT

d)

GGATCGA

149.

DNA replication begins with the enzyme __________, which is responsible for ___________.

a)

primase, adding nucleotides

b)

polymerase, unwinding the helix

c)

helicase, unwinding the helix

d)

primase, attaching Okazaki fragments

150.

Which of the following types of RNA carries instructions for making a specific protein from the nucleus to the ribosomes?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

All of the above

151.

RNA differs from DNA in that RNA

a)

is single-stranded

b)

contains a different sugar molecule

c)

contains the nitrogenous base uracil

d)

All of the above

152.

In RNA molecules, adenine is complementary to

a)

cytosine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

153.

This is a template DNA sequence: 3'AATCGC5'. This is a partially-completed mRNA strand transcribed from the DNA template: 3'GCGA5'. What is the next nucleotide that RNA polymerase will attach?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

T

d)

U

154.

Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a(n)

a)

mutagen

b)

codon

c)

anticodon

d)

exon

155.

During translation, a ribosome binds to

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

protein

d)

a peptide bond

156.

In which part of the cell does the process shown in the image above take place?

a)

in the nucleus

b)

in food vacuoles

c)

at the ribosomes

d)

on the chromosome

157.

Structure lll in the image above represents a(n) ____.

a)

gene

b)

amino acid

c)

codon

d)

DNA molecule

158.

The process illustrated in the image above is called _____.

a)

translation

b)

replication

c)

monoploidy

d)

transcription

159.

Which of the structures in the image above are composed of RNA?

a)

II and IV

b)

III and IV

c)

I and V

d)

III and V

160.

Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma (formation of proteins)?

a)

protein synthesis, transcription, translation

b)

protein synthesis, translation, transcription

c)

transcription, translation, protein synthesis

d)

translation, transcription, protein synthesis

161.

Which of the following is a possible sequence of nucleotides in the original template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe–leu–ile–val would be

a)

3' AAA–GAA–TAA–CAA 5'.

b)

3' AAC–GAC–GUC–AUA 5'.

c)

3' AUG–CTG–CAG–TAT 5'.

d)

3' AAA–AAT–ATA–ACA 5'.

162.

What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence?


AUG–UCU–UCG–UUA–UCC–UUG

a)

met–arg–glu–arg–glu–arg

b)

met–glu–arg–arg–glu–leu

c)

met–ser–leu–ser–leu–ser

d)

met–ser–ser–leu–ser–leu

163.

The molecule shown above is ______, and its major function is to ________.

a)

tRNA, carry instructions for making proteins to the ribosome

b)

mRNA, store and transmit genetic information

c)

tRNA, carry amino acids to ribosomes

d)

rRNA, carry amino acids to ribosomes

164.

The tRNA shown in the figure has its 3' end projecting beyond its 5' end. What will occur at this 3' end?

a)

The codon and anticodon complement one another.

b)

The amino acid binds covalently.

c)

The excess nucleotides (ACCA) will be cleaved off at the ribosome.

d)

The small and large subunits of the ribosome will attach to it.

165.

mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC

Genetic Code:

Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following is the series of amino acids encoded by the piece of mRNA shown above?

a)

Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly

b)

Val—Asp—Pro—His

c)

Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe

d)

Pro—Glu—Leu—Val

166.

mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC

Genetic Code:

Refer to the illustration above. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA in the diagram are

a)

GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG.

b)

GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG.

c)

CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU.

d)

CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.

167.

An error in DNA replication could result in

a)

mutations

b)

cancer

c)

genetic variation

d)

All of the above

168.

A DNA segment is changed from-AATTAG- to -AAATAG-. This is a ____.

a)

frameshift mutation

b)

substitution

c)

insertion

d)

deletion

169.

What type of mutation has occured in the image above?

a)

substitution

b)

frameshift

c)

lethal

d)

insertion

170.

What will be the result of the mutation in the image above?

a)

it will have no effect on protein function

b)

only one amino acid will change

c)

nearly every amino acid in the protein will be changed

d)

translation will not occur

171.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

codons are 2 nucleotide sequences found in mRNA and anticodons are the complimentary tRNA sequence.

b)

codons are 2 nucleotide sequences found in tRNA and anticodons are the complimentary mRNA sequence.

c)

codons are 3 nucleotide sequences found in mRNA and anticodons are the complimentary tRNA sequence.

d)

codons are 3 nucelotide sequences found in tRNA and anticodons are the complimentary mRNA sequence.

172.

The shape of DNA is described as

a)

a polysaccharide

b)

a double helix

c)

a hydrocarbon

d)

an alpha helix

173.

The name of the five-carbon sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of DNA is (a)   .

The answer choices are hydrogen, deoxyribose, transcription, translation, and uracil.

174.

Enzymes called helicases are responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix by breaking the (a)   bonds that hold the complementary strands together.

The answer choices are hydrogen, deoxyribose, transcription, translation, and uracil.

175.

The nitrogenous base that is found only in RNA is (a)   .

The answer choices are hydrogen, deoxyribose, transcription, translation, and uracil.

176.

Messenger RNA is produced during the process of (a)   .

The answer choices are hydrogen, deoxyribose, transcription, translation, and uracil.

177.

The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of (a)   .

The answer choices are hydrogen, deoxyribose, transcription, translation, and uracil.