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Chp. 22 Human Psy

Total questions: 167

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A female is born with the full complement of oogonia in place, while the male's
spermatogonia is replaced on a continual basis.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Fraternal twins are a result of polyspermy.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Once oxytocin secretion increases, milk production will be initiated.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Placental hormones induce insulin-resistance.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

If a mother develops gestational diabetes, then both the mother and fetus can suffer from
hyperglycemia.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

During the earliest stages of development, the embryo can derive its nutrients from the
endometrium without any specialized structure.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Once ejaculation occurs during copulation, the sperm can remain viable for only two days.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The corpus luteum degenerates once fertilization occurs

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Both the corpus luteum and placenta secrete estrogens and progesterone.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

During the menstrual phase, all of the endometrium is shed in the menstrual flow.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

A corpus albicans is produced during each meiotic division of an oocyte.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The granulosa cells provide nutrients for the developing oocyte via gap junctions.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What is the process whereby gametes from each parent fuse to produce a new cell?

a)

independent assortment

b)

gametogenesis

c)

fertilization

d)

oogenesis

e)

spermatogenesis

14.

Autosomes are described as ________ because they are formed into matching pairs.

a)

heterologous

b)

homologous

c)

haploid

d)

zygotic

e)

clonal

15.

What describes the process where portions of homologous chromosomes exchange segments with one another?

a)

meiotic overlap

b)

clonal exchange

c)

homologous exchange

d)

crossing over

e)

independent assortment

16.

After the second meiotic division, each cell contains

a)

a random mixture of maternal and paternal alleles on each of two sister chromatids.

b)

a maternal and a paternal sister chromatid.

c)

either two maternal or two paternal sister chromatids.

d)

either a maternal or a paternal sister chromatid.

e)

a random mixture of maternal and paternal alleles on one sister chromatid.

17.

________, the general term for the primary reproductive organs, are responsible for the secretion of ________ in females.

a)

Gonads : androgens (testosterone)

b)

Gonads : estrogens (estradiol) and progesterone

c)

Testes : androgens (testosterone)

d)

Ovaries : estrogens (estradiol) and progesterone

e)

Ovaries : androgens (testosterone)

18.

What are gonadotrophs?

a)

cells of the hypothalamus that secrete GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone)

b)

cells of the anterior pituitary that secrete the gonadotropic hormones FSH and LH

c)

hormones of the gonads

d)

cells of the gonads that secrete sex hormones

e)

growth factors for sexual differentiation

19.

What is the function of the accessory reproductive organs?

a)

secondary sex characteristics only

b)

the secretion of sex hormones only

c)

secretion of fluids into the reproductive tract only

d)

transport of gametes only

e)

both secretion of fluids into the reproductive tract and transport of gametes

20.

Sex determination of a fetus is controlled by the production of ________, which is coded for by the ________ gene.

a)

gonad-determining factor : gdY

b)

testis-determining factor : tdY

c)

testis-determining factor : srY

d)

ovary-determining factor : srY

e)

ovary-determining factor : odY

21.

The absence of ________ in the fetus will further the development of the ________ into the female reproductive tract.

a)

androgens : Wolffian ducts

b)

Müllerian promoting substance : Wolffian ducts

c)

androgens : Müllerian ducts

d)

Wolffian inhibiting substance : Wolffian ducts

e)

Müllerian inhibiting substance : Müllerian ducts

22.

In the female reproductive cycle, ________ is/are normally produced every 28 days.

a)

millions of sperm

b)

several ova

c)

two ova

d)

a single ovum

e)

a single sperm

23.

The loss of reproductive capacity that occurs as females age is caused by

a)

changes in hormone secretory patterns.

b)

inability to release an ovum in the presence of luteinizing hormone (LH) surge.

c)

the release of incompetent ova.

d)

the complete cessation of sex hormone release.

e)

altered length of the menstrual cycle.

24.

In what region of the testes are sperm produced?

a)

vas deferens

b)

seminiferous tubules

c)

epididymis

d)

efferent ductules

e)

rete testes

25.

Which of the following best describes the function of the blood-testis barrier?

a)

It maintains a differential fluid composition of the seminiferous tubule lumen that facilitates development of sperm and protects sperm from the immune system.

b)

It maintains a differential fluid composition of the seminiferous tubule lumen that facilitates the development of sperm and blocks the access of androgens to the lumen.

c)

It maintains a differential fluid composition of the seminiferous tubule lumen that facilitates the entry of inhibin into the lumen, thereby decreasing sperm production.

d)

It maintains a differential fluid composition of the epididymis tubule lumen that facilitates movement of sperm during emission.

e)

It maintains a differential fluid composition of the epididymis tubule lumen that favors maintaining high concentrations of androgens in the lumen to facilitate sperm production.

26.

What is the function of androgen-binding protein?

a)

transport androgens in blood

b)

transport androgens across the blood-testis barrier

c)

maintain steady levels of androgens in the lumen of seminiferous tubules

d)

provide negative feedback for the release of follicle stimulating hormone

e)

provide positive feedback for the release of luteinizing hormone

27.

Which of the following is NOT a function of Sertoli cells?

a)

secrete fluid into the lumen of seminiferous tubules to support sperm development

b)

secrete androgens

c)

provide nutrients for developing sperm

d)

form the blood-testis barrier

e)

secrete paracrines that stimulate spermatogenesis

28.

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone stimulate the growth and development of sperm

a)

directly by binding to sperm.

b)

indirectly by binding to Sertoli cells.

c)

indirectly by binding to Leydig cells.

d)

indirectly by binding to androgen-binding protein.

e)

indirectly by binding to interstitial cells.

29.

What is the function of Leydig cells?

a)

secrete androgens only

b)

secrete Müllerian inhibiting substance only

c)

provide nutrients for developing sperm only

d)

both secrete androgens and provide nutrients for developing sperm

e)

secrete androgens, provide nutrients for developing sperm, and secrete Müllerian inhibiting substance

30.

What cells secrete Müllerian inhibiting substance in fetal life?

a)

follicle cell

b)

theca cell

c)

granulosa cell

d)

Leydig cell

e)

Sertoli cell

31.

The ________ erectile tissue increases during sexual arousal, causing the penis to become erect.

a)

amount of

b)

reduction of blood pressure within the

c)

tightening of the connective tissue within the

d)

contraction of the

e)

volume of blood within the

32.

What is the function of the scrotum?

a)

transports sperm from testes to penis

b)

keeps the temperature of the testes less than body temperature for optimal sperm development

c)

contains vascular spaces that become engorged with blood to induce an erection

d)

provides blood flow to the erectile tissue

e)

secretes chemicals into the male reproductive track during emission

33.

What structure conducts sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct?

a)

scrotum

b)

vas deferens

c)

rete testis

d)

seminal vesicles

e)

urethra

34.

What secretes an alkaline fluid containing fructose, enzymes, and prostaglandins into the ejaculatory duct?

a)

seminal vesicle

b)

prostate gland

c)

bulbourethral gland

d)

epididymis

e)

Sertoli cell

35.

What secretes several enzymes and citrate into the urethra during ejaculation?

a)

seminal vesicle

b)

prostate gland

c)

bulbourethral gland

d)

epididymis

e)

Sertoli cell

36.

What is the purpose of luteinizing hormone (LH) in males?

a)

growth of accessory reproductive organs

b)

promoting spermatogenesis

c)

stimulating ejaculation

d)

secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells

e)

secretion of chemicals from Sertoli cells that stimulate sperm maturation

37.

Inhibin is secreted from the ________ and acts to reduce the secretion of ________ from the anterior pituitary gland.

a)

Leydig cells : follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

b)

hypothalamus : luteinizing hormone (LH)

c)

anterior pituitary : FSH

d)

Leydig cells : LH

e)

Sertoli cells : FSH

38.

Spermatogenesis is directly stimulated by

a)

FSH only.

b)

LH only.

c)

testosterone only.

d)

both FSH and testosterone.

e)

both LH and testosterone.

39.

What hormone is responsible for secondary sex characteristics in males?

a)

LH

b)

FSH

c)

testosterone

d)

inhibin

e)

Wolffian factor

40.

Which of the following is NOT stimulated by the surge of testosterone that occurs at puberty?

a)

release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

b)

secretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary

c)

increased protein synthesis in muscle

d)

secretion of a thick oil by sebaceous glands

e)

spermatogenesis

41.

Enzymes that facilitate entry of sperm into the ova are contained within the ________ of the spermatozoa.

a)

midpiece

b)

tail

c)

acrosome

d)

mitochondria

e)

flagella

42.

Where are spermatogonia located?

a)

anywhere within the seminiferous tubules

b)

attached to Leydig cells

c)

on the luminal surface of the Sertoli cell

d)

at the basement membrane-Sertoli cell interface

e)

in the epididymis

43.

Which of the following is the correct order of sperm development?

a)

spermatid, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatogonia

b)

spermatid, secondary spermatocyte, primary spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

c)

spermatozoa, spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid

d)

spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa

e)

spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid

44.

How do males continue to produce sperm through their adult lives?

a)

Spermatozoa can undergo cell division daily.

b)

When a spermatogonium undergoes mitosis, only one undergoes further differentiation and meiosis to become a mature sperm; the other stays a spermatogonium.

c)

Testosterone levels remain elevated throughout adulthood.

d)

Secondary spermatocytes produce an endless supply of primary spermatocytes.

e)

Sperm cells never die.

45.

During spermatogenesis, only the ________ are haploid cells that require further differentiation in order to become functional spermatozoa.

a)

primary spermatocytes

b)

spermatogonia

c)

spermatids

d)

secondary spermatocytes

e)

tertiary spermatocytes

46.

When do sperm acquire motility?

a)

after they enter the vagina

b)

after they enter the efferent ductule

c)

after they undergo further maturation in the epididymis

d)

after they have been exposed to bulbourethral fluid

e)

after they have been exposed to fluid in the female reproductive tract

47.

Which neurotransmitter is released from parasympathetic nerves to dilate the penile arterioles to increase blood flow to the erectile tissue?

a)

nitric oxide

b)

acetylcholine

c)

norepinephrine

d)

serotonin

e)

histamine

48.

Erectile function requires an increase in ________, whereas ejaculation involves increases in ________.

a)

parasympathetic nervous activity : myogenic constriction of the vas deferens

b)

sympathetic nervous activity : parasympathetic nervous activity

c)

parasympathetic nervous activity : sympathetic nervous activity

d)

myogenic dilation of vessels within erectile tissue : sympathetic nervous activity

e)

myogenic dilation of vessels within erectile tissue : myogenic constriction of the vas deferens

49.

Which of the following structures does NOT contract during ejaculation?

a)

epididymis

b)

vas deferens

c)

ejaculatory duct

d)

erectile tissue

e)

skeletal muscles at the base of the penis

50.

The mixture of sperm with fluid from the seminal vesicles and prostate gland is called

a)

erection.

b)

ejaculation.

c)

insemination.

d)

semen.

e)

micturition.

51.

Within the ovaries, each follicle contains

a)

a single oocyte.

b)

multiple oocytes.

c)

a single fertilized ovum.

d)

a single polar body.

e)

two polar bodies and two ova.

52.

Mature ova develop from a pool of oogonia that

a)

will expand until puberty when the ova begin to mature.

b)

continue to expand after birth with few of those ever developing into mature ova.

c)

are fixed in number at birth with each one developing into a mature ova.

d)

undergo mitosis to maintain the number of oogonia as they mature into ova.

e)

are fixed at about 1-2 million at birth with a fraction of that number developing into mature ova.

53.

Each ova is embedded within a ________ with only a small proportion advancing beyond the ________.

a)

follicle : granulosa stage

b)

follicle : primordial follicle

c)

granulosa : primordial follicle

d)

theca : granulosa stage

e)

follicle : thecal stage

54.

Which of the following is NOT secreted by the granulosa cells?

a)

inhibin

b)

estrogens

c)

a substance that forms the zona pellucida

d)

androgens

e)

paracrines that support follicle development

55.

What is the outer layer of the uterus, made up of the peritoneal serous coat supported by a thin layer of connective tissue, called?

a)

perimetrium

b)

myometrium

c)

endometrium

d)

epimetrium

e)

sarcometrium

56.

Most of the uterine wall thickness is composed of smooth muscle known as the

a)

perimetrium.

b)

myometrium.

c)

endometrium.

d)

epimetrium.

e)

parametrium.

57.

A follicle in its earliest stage of development is called a ________ and contains a(n) ________.

a)

primordial follicle : oogonia

b)

primordial follicle : primary oocyte

c)

Graafian follicle : oogonia

d)

Graafian follicle : primary oocyte

e)

primary follicle : primary oocyte

58.

What structure(s) forms the birth canal?

a)

vagina only

b)

uterus only

c)

cervical canal only

d)

both vagina and cervical canal

e)

vagina, cervical canal, and uterus

59.

Where does fertilization usually occur?

a)

vagina

b)

cervical canal

c)

uterus

d)

uterine (fallopian) tube

e)

ovary

60.

What secretes a lubricating fluid into the vagina that facilitates the entry of the penis during copulation?

a)

vestibular (Bartholin's) gland

b)

cervix

c)

uterus

d)

labia minor

e)

hymen

61.

Each oocyte remains under meiotic arrest until just before

a)

birth.

b)

puberty.

c)

ovulation.

d)

the third month of embryonic life.

e)

fertilization.

62.

When does the second meiotic division in oogenesis occur?

a)

when the female reaches puberty

b)

when the ovum has been fertilized

c)

when the ovum reaches the uterine tube

d)

when the ovum is released from the ovary

e)

when stimulated by the first polar body

63.

What is meiotic arrest?

a)

the pause in spermatogenesis that occurs following an ejaculation

b)

the pause in oogenesis that occurs between birth and ovulation

c)

the termination of oogenesis that occurs after menopause

d)

the pause in oogenesis that occurs after fertilization

e)

the switch from meiosis to mitosis that occurs after fertilization

64.

When is the second polar body produced?

a)

following meiosis I in males

b)

following meiosis I in females

c)

following meiosis II in males

d)

following meiosis II in females

e)

following differentiation of cells in the zygote

65.

The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle corresponds with what phase(s) of the uterine cycle?

a)

menstrual phase only

b)

proliferative phase only

c)

secretory phase only

d)

both menstrual and proliferative phases

e)

both proliferative and secretory phases

66.

During the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, one follicle (the dominant follicle) will continue to develop because its cells

a)

maintain estrogen secretion in the face of falling FSH levels.

b)

have a diminished response to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

c)

are unresponsive to luteinizing hormone (LH).

d)

are no longer able to secrete estrogen.

e)

no longer respond to FSH.

67.

When does the zona pellucida develop?

a)

when follicles are in the primordial phase

b)

when follicles are in the preantral stage

c)

when follicles are in the early antral stage

d)

when follicles are in the late antral stage

e)

after fertilization

68.

What is the cumulus oophorus?

a)

a fluid-filled cavity in the follicle

b)

a thick membrane between the oocyte and granulosa cells

c)

a degenerated follicle after ovulation

d)

granulosa cells that connect the oocyte to the wall of the Graafian follicle

e)

the remnants of a non-dominant follicle after it has undergone atresia

69.

What hormone stimulates follicle growth?

a)

FSH only

b)

progesterone only

c)

estrogens only

d)

both FSH and estrogens

e)

FSH, estrogens, and progesterone

70.

Which of the following is a correct association between an oocyte's development and the follicular structure containing it?

a)

Graafian follicle - oogonia

b)

Graafian follicle - primary oocyte

c)

Graafian follicle - secondary oocyte

d)

primordial follicle - primary oocyte

e)

primordial follicle - ovum

71.

During ovulation, how is an oocyte released by the ovary?

a)

exocytosis

b)

primary active transport

c)

diapedesis

d)

margination

e)

The follicle with the oocyte is pressed tight against the ovary wall and bursts.

72.

What does the surge in plasma luteinizing hormone that occurs at the beginning of the luteal phase trigger?

a)

ovulation only

b)

development of the corpus luteum only

c)

stimulation of the first meiotic division only

d)

both ovulation and development of the corpus luteum

e)

both ovulation and stimulation of the first meiotic division

73.

The migration of sperm into the uterus, on their way to contact the ovum, is facilitated by the secretion of ________ into the ________.

a)

estrogen : uterine tube

b)

progesterone : uterine tube

c)

a thin mucus : cervical canal

d)

an acidic solution : cervical canal

e)

an alkaline solution : uterine tube

74.

Which of the following changes in the uterus does NOT occur during the secretory phase of the uterine cycle?

a)

enhanced secretion of fluids rich in fructose

b)

endometrium enriched with more arterial branches

c)

enlargement of endometrial glands

d)

enhanced secretion of fluids rich in glycogen

e)

increased viscosity of secretions from cervical glands

75.

The changes in the uterus that occur during the secretory phase of the uterine cycle are mediated by

a)

increased estrogen from the adrenal cortex.

b)

increased progesterone from the corpus luteum.

c)

decreased estrogen from the adrenal cortex.

d)

increased estrogen from the ovaries.

e)

increased progesterone from the ovaries.

76.

In the absence of the implantation of a fertilized embryo, the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle is initiated by the degeneration of the

a)

myometrium.

b)

corpus albicans.

c)

endometrium.

d)

corpus luteum.

e)

Graafian follicle.

77.

In the uterine cycle, the proliferative phase is promoted by ________, whereas the secretory phase is promoted by ________.

a)

estrogen : progesterone

b)

progesterone : estrogen

c)

progesterone : progesterone

d)

LH : FSH

e)

FSH : LH

78.

The reduction in progesterone and estrogen that occurs at the beginning of the follicular phase is responsible for stimulating follicular development through

a)

stimulating the release of progesterone.

b)

stimulating the release of luteinizing hormone (LH).

c)

inhibiting the release of LH.

d)

inhibiting the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

e)

stimulating the release of FSH.

79.

The secretory activity of the anterior pituitary begins to change during late follicular phase such that

a)

estrogen reverses its negative feedback control on LH release, changing over to a positive feedback loop which increases the release of luteinizing hormone (LH).

b)

estrogen decreases the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

c)

inhibin stimulates the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

d)

gonadotropin increases the release of luteinizing hormone (LH).

e)

inhibin stimulates the release of luteinizing hormone (LH).

80.

Which of the following is NOT a response of the dominant follicle to stimulation by luteinizing hormone (LH) during the late follicular phase?

a)

the secretion of paracrines by the granulosa cells that stimulates the completion of meiosis I

b)

the decrease in estrogen secretion by granulosa cells

c)

the decrease in expression of LH receptors by granulosa cells

d)

the secretion of enzymes by the granulosa cells that degrades the follicle wall

e)

the onset of differentiation of granulosa cells into the corpus luteum

81.

What hormone(s) is/are secreted by the corpus luteum?

a)

progesterone only

b)

inhibin only

c)

estrogens only

d)

both progesterone and estrogens

e)

progesterone, estrogens, and inhibin

82.

The hormonal trigger for menstruation involves a

a)

drop in plasma luteinizing hormone (LH).

b)

reduction of inhibin secretion.

c)

loss of estrogen secretion from the adrenal cortex.

d)

reduction of plasma follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

e)

loss of progesterone secretion from the corpus luteum.

83.

The elevated plasma concentration of estrogen early in the luteal phase has little effect on the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) because

a)

inhibin strongly inhibits LH release.

b)

progesterone strongly inhibits LH release.

c)

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is reduced.

d)

the corpus luteum degenerates.

e)

secretin release is inhibited.

84.

Which of the following conditions is NOT induced by the reduction in estrogen release that occurs during menopause?

a)

decreased breast size

b)

loss of ovulation

c)

increased risk of heart disease

d)

increased risk for osteoporosis

e)

absence of sexual arousal

85.

Sperm are unable to fertilize the egg upon entry into the vagina and must undergo ________, allowing them to ________, which facilitates fertilization.

a)

resistation : activate the acrosome

b)

resistation : move faster

c)

capacitation : more readily adhere to the ovum

d)

capacitation : activate the acrosome

e)

implantation : move faster

86.

Which of the following best describes the events that take place when the first sperm binds to the oocyte?

a)

The entire sperm is transported into the cytoplasm of the oocyte, where the nucleus of the sperm releases its DNA to combine with the DNA of the oocyte and replication occurs. The oocyte then undergoes the first meiotic division.

b)

The entire sperm is transported into the cytoplasm of the oocyte, where the nucleus of the sperm releases its DNA to combine with the DNA of the oocyte and transcription occurs. The oocyte then undergoes the second meiotic division.

c)

The head of the sperm is transported into the cytoplasm of the oocyte, where the nucleus of the sperm releases its DNA to combine with the DNA of the oocyte and transcription occurs. The oocyte then undergoes the first meiotic division.

d)

The head of the sperm is transported into the cytoplasm of the oocyte which stimulates the completion of its arrested meiosis II and the second polar body is produced. The two parental (haploid) pronuclei then replicate their DNA while migrating towards each other to create their first mitotic division.

e)

The head of the sperm is transported into the cytoplasm of the oocyte, where the nucleus of the sperm releases its DNA to combine with the DNA of the oocyte and transcription occurs. The oocyte then undergoes the second meiotic division.

87.

Which of the following prevents polyspermy?

a)

inactivation of sperm-binding proteins in the zona pellucida and release of toxins to sperm by the fertilized ovum

b)

release of toxins to sperm by the fertilized ovum and hardening of the zona pellucida

c)

inactivation of sperm-binding proteins in the zona pellucida and hardening of the zona pellucida

d)

sealing of the corona radiata and hardening of the zona pellucida

e)

sealing of the corona radiata and release of toxins to sperm by the fertilized ovum

88.

A morula develops by

a)

meiosis I.

b)

meiosis II.

c)

mitosis.

d)

cell cleavage.

e)

cell differentiation.

89.

Implantation of the blastocyst into the endometrium results from

a)

blastocoele secretion of paracrines that initiates cell cleavage.

b)

trophoblast secretion of paracrines that initiates cell cleavage.

c)

blastocoele secretion of paracrines that initiates the decidual response.

d)

trophoblast secretion of endocrine hormones that initiates the decidual response.

e)

trophoblast secretion of enzymes and paracrines that initiates the decidual response.

90.

How do monozygotic twins develop?

a)

splitting of the blastocyst

b)

splitting of the morula while cells are still totipotent

c)

inappropriate implantation of the embryo into the endometrium

d)

fertilization of more than one ova

e)

polyspermy

91.

The placenta forms from

a)

the trophoblast only.

b)

the blastocoele only.

c)

chorionic villi only.

d)

endometrial tissue only.

e)

both the chorionic villi and endometrial tissue of the mother

92.

What is the function of the amniotic fluid?

a)

float the developing embryo

b)

protect the uterus from the embryo

c)

provide the intrauterine pressure that facilitates embryonic development

d)

cushion the developing embryo against physical trauma

e)

provide nutrients for the developing embryo

93.

Once diffusion from the endometrium becomes inadequate for delivery of oxygen, the placenta develops from projections of the ________, which facilitates exchange of nutrients and waste by the ________.

a)

chorionic villi into the embryo : short distance between maternal and fetal blood

b)

chorionic villi into the embryo : mixing of maternal and fetal blood

c)

amniotic villi into the endometrium : short distance between maternal and fetal blood

d)

chorionic villi into the endometrium : mixing of maternal and fetal blood

e)

chorionic villi into the endometrium : short distance between maternal and fetal blood

94.

The secretion of estrogen and progesterone by the corpus luteum during pregnancy is maintained by ________ until the corpus luteum degenerates and the ________ takes over secretion of these hormones.

a)

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) : placenta

b)

luteinizing hormone (LH) : placenta

c)

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) : fetus

d)

luteinizing hormone (LH) : endometrium

e)

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) : endometrium

95.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism whereby estrogen maintains the body during pregnancy, prepares the body for delivery and for lactation?

a)

the development of tissue that carries milk to the nipples

b)

the deposition of fatty tissues in the breast

c)

the secretion of prolactin

d)

the growth of glandular tissue in the breast

e)

the growth of uterine smooth muscle cells

96.

Which of the following is NOT one of the effects that progesterone has on maintaining the body during pregnancy, preparing the body for parturition and for postnatal nourishment?

a)

the maintenance of thickened myometrium

b)

the maintenance of thickened endometrium

c)

the secretion of prolactin

d)

the growth of glandular tissue in the breast

e)

the suppression of contractile activity of uterine smooth muscle cells

97.

The activity of smooth muscle cells of the myometrium is regulated by estrogen, which increases responsiveness of the myometrium to what hormone?

a)

progesterone

b)

prolactin

c)

oxytocin

d)

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

e)

norepinephrine

98.

The ________ in secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) during pregnancy is regulated primarily by ________.

a)

decrease : progesterone

b)

decrease : estrogen

c)

decrease : gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

d)

decrease : human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

e)

increase : oxytocin

99.

The ripening of the cervix in the weeks prior to parturition involves

a)

slow opening of the birth canal.

b)

the enzymatic breakdown of collagen fibers in its connective tissue.

c)

rupture of the amniotic sac.

d)

rotation of the fetus in the uterus.

e)

frequent uterine contractions.

100.

Which of the following is a function of oxytocin?

a)

inhibits uterine contractions

b)

stimulates prolactin release

c)

inhibits contraction of breast myoepithelial cells

d)

stimulates release of estrogens and progesterone

e)

stimulates the uterus directly to cause contractions and indirectly by stimulating the release of prostaglandins from myometrial cells which locally cause uterine contractions as well

101.

What is the function of prostaglandins during parturition?

a)

stimulate mucus secretion to lubricate the cervix and vagina

b)

elevate the body temperature

c)

stimulate uterine contraction and the softening of the cervix so it can dilate

d)

inhibit blood flow through the umbilical cord to prevent excessive bleeding

e)

inhibit the inflammatory response as tissue is abraded during delivery

102.

Fetal release of ________ appears to be partly responsible for stimulating parturition.

a)

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

b)

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

c)

corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

d)

estrogen

e)

progesterone

103.

Abnormally elevated thirst and urination can be signs of what disease that occurs in pregnant women?

a)

gestational diabetes

b)

hyperprolactinemia

c)

placental insufficiency

d)

miscarriage

e)

ectopic pregnancy

104.

Which of the following is NOT one of the nutrients found in breast milk after the first week?

a)

colostrum

b)

fat

c)

lactose

d)

growth factors

e)

antibodies

105.

The ejection of milk that occurs while the infant is suckling is mediated by

a)

prolactin-induced myoepithelial cell contraction.

b)

local reflex-induced myoepithelial cell contraction.

c)

myogenic contraction of myoepithelial cells.

d)

oxytocin-induced myoepithelial cell contraction.

e)

acetylcholine-induced myoepithelial cell contraction.

106.

The production of milk is stimulated by release of ________ from the hypothalamus.

a)

corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

b)

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

c)

oxytocin

d)

prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)

e)

prolactin-releasing hormone (PRH)

107.

Which part of the blastocyst develops into the fetus?

a)

blastocoele

b)

morula

c)

inner cell mass

d)

outer cell mass

e)

trophoblast

108.

Which of the following is TRUE of Sertoli cells, but NOT granulosa cells?

a)

secretes paracrines that support gamete development

b)

provides nutrients for developing gametes

c)

forms a barrier between the fluid surrounding the gamete and blood

d)

secretes inhibin

e)

secretes androgen-binding protein

109.

Chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes are called what?

a)

sex chromosomes

b)

diploid

c)

autosomes

d)

haploid

e)

alleles

110.

What are the X and Y chromosomes known as?

a)

sex chromosomes

b)

diploid

c)

autosomes

d)

alleles

e)

haploid

111.

Having one set of 23 chromosomes is called what?

a)

alleles

b)

sex chromosomes

c)

autosomes

d)

haploid

e)

diploid

112.

Having two sets of 23 chromosomes is called what?

a)

diploid

b)

alleles

c)

autosomes

d)

haploid

e)

sex chromosomes

113.

What are different variations of the same gene called?

a)

haploid

b)

autosomes

c)

sex chromosomes

d)

alleles

e)

diploid

114.

Which of the following contains the srY gene?

a)

alleles

b)

sex chromosomes

c)

autosomes

d)

diploid

e)

haploid

115.

Which of the following represents the chromosome number in gametes?

a)

alleles

b)

autosomes

c)

haploid

d)

sex chromosomes

e)

diploid

116.

Which of the following represents the chromosome number in a zygote?

a)

sex chromosomes

b)

diploid

c)

haploid

d)

alleles

e)

autosomes

117.

What releases androgens in males?

a)

theca cell

b)

Leydig cell

c)

granulosa cell

d)

Sertoli cell

118.

What releases androgens in females?

a)

Sertoli cell

b)

granulosa cell

c)

Leydig cell

d)

theca cell

119.

What secretes paracrines that support spermatogenesis?

a)

Sertoli cell

b)

theca cell

c)

granulosa cell

d)

Leydig cell

120.

What secretes paracrines that support oogenesis?

a)

theca cell

b)

Leydig cell

c)

Sertoli cell

d)

granulosa cell

121.

What provides nutrients to the developing gamete via gap junctions?

a)

granulosa cell

b)

Leydig cell

c)

Sertoli cell

d)

theca cell

122.

Which of the following secretes Müllerian inhibiting substance?

a)

Sertoli cell

b)

Leydig cell

c)

granulosa cell

d)

theca cell

123.

Which of the following secretes an alkaline fluid with fructose into the ejaculatory duct?

a)

seminal vesicles

b)

prostate gland

c)

vestibular glands

d)

bulbourethral glands

124.

What secretes a fluid containing citrates and enzymes into the urethra during ejaculation?

a)

prostate gland

b)

bulbourethral glands

c)

seminal vesicles

d)

vestibular glands

125.

What secretes a viscous mucus just prior to ejaculation?

a)

vestibular glands

b)

prostate gland

c)

seminal vesicles

d)

bulbourethral glands

126.

What secretes a fluid that lubricates the vagina?

a)

seminal vesicles

b)

bulbourethral glands

c)

prostate gland

d)

vestibular (Bartholin's) glands

127.

What stimulates gametogenesis in both males and females?

a)

inhibin

b)

FSH

c)

progesterone

d)

LH

e)

estrogens

128.

What stimulates androgen synthesis in both males and females?

a)

estrogens

b)

LH

c)

progesterone

d)

FSH

e)

inhibin

129.

Which of the following provides negative feedback to FSH secretion, but not LH, in both males and females?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

inhibin

d)

progesterone

e)

estrogens

130.

Which of the following triggers ovulation in females?

a)

LH

b)

estrogens

c)

progesterone

d)

FSH

e)

inhibin

131.

Which of the following inhibits uterine contractions?

a)

FSH

b)

progesterone

c)

inhibin

d)

estrogens

e)

LH

132.

Which of the following is permissive to the actions of progesterone by inducing expression of progesterone receptors in the endometrium?

a)

LH

b)

estrogens

c)

progesterone

d)

inhibin

e)

FSH

133.

What promotes growth of glandular tissue of the breasts?

a)

LH

b)

FSH

c)

inhibin

d)

estrogens

e)

progesterone

134.

Which of the following stimulates prolactin secretion?

a)

progesterone

b)

LH

c)

FSH

d)

inhibin

e)

estrogens

135.

What structure develops into the fetus?

a)

morula

b)

blastocoele

c)

inner cell mass

d)

trophoblast

136.

What forms the fetal component of the placenta?

a)

chorionic villi

b)

inner cell mass

c)

morula

d)

blastocoele

137.

What forms a fluid filled sac around the developing embryo?

a)

inner cell mass

b)

morula

c)

trophoblast

d)

blastocoele

138.

The diploid, fertilized ovum is called a(n)

a)

morula.

b)

fetus.

c)

zygote.

d)

polar body.

e)

blastula.

139.

The gene that determines the sex of a person is the ________ gene, located on the Y chromosome.

a)

androgen receptor

b)

MIS

c)

testosterone receptor

d)

srY

e)

inhibin

140.

During sex differentiation, the presence of what stimulates the development of the Wolffian duct?

a)

testosterone

b)

MIS

c)

progesterone

d)

estrogen

e)

inhibin

141.

What is a function of the blood-testes barrier?

a)

allows easier flow of nutrients

b)

elicits the cremasteric reflex

c)

prevents Rh incompatibilities

d)

isolates the sperm from the body's immune system

e)

creates a cooler environment or optimal growth

142.

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of FSH and LH from what structure?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

anterior pituitary

c)

corpus luteum

d)

sertoli cells

e)

posterior pituitary

143.

What mechanism(s) move sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis?

a)

flagella

b)

flow of luminal fluid and peristalsis

c)

ejaculation

d)

emission

e)

skeletal muscle

144.

The release of the oocyte by ________ typically occurs every 28 days.

a)

parturition

b)

sublimation

c)

ovulation

d)

endocytosis

e)

transcytosis

145.

What macromolecule is initially synthesized by the theca cells and then converted to a second macromolecule by the granulosa cells?

a)

estrogen, testosterone

b)

cholesterol, progesterone

c)

MIS, inhibin

d)

androgens, estrogen

e)

progesterone, estrogen

146.

What moves the oocyte through the uterine tube?

a)

ciliary action and peristalsis

b)

ciliary action only

c)

intrauterine pressure

d)

mass movement

e)

segmentation

147.

As a follicle develops into the Graafian follicle, the ________ continues to increase in size until the fluid's pressure causes the follicle to burst at ovulation.

a)

oogonium

b)

corona radiata

c)

antrum

d)

chorion

e)

oocyte

148.

What layer(s) of the uterus proliferate during the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle?

a)

myometrium only

b)

perimetrium only

c)

endometrium only

d)

endometrium and the myometrium

e)

endometrium and the perimetrium

149.

During the follicular phase, estrogen induces the expression of what receptors on granulosa cells?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

androgen

d)

progesterone

e)

oxytocin

150.

Following implantation, what hormone is released from the chorionic portion of the placenta to maintain corpus luteal secretion of estrogen and progesterone?

a)

insulin-like growth hormone

b)

inhibin

c)

FSH

d)

LH

e)

hCG

151.

With respect to the structure of the breasts, ________ stimulates the growth of the ductal cells whereas ________ stimulates the growth of glandular cells.

a)

A) estrogen : progesterone

b)

B) prolactin : progesterone

c)

C) estrogen : prolactin

d)

D) prolactin : oxytocin

e)

E) LH : prolactin

152.

The X chromosome is necessary for life, meaning that a YY individual with no X chromosome will not survive.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

The srY gene is located on the Y chromosome and determines a person's sex.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

Sex differentiation depends on the presence or absence of the srY gene, whereas sex determination depends on the presence or absence of testes.

a)

True

b)

False

155.

The Müllerian ducts are precursors for the male reproductive tract.

a)

True

b)

False

156.

In the years before puberty, the reproductive organs are immature and incapable of generating sperm or ova.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

Men are capable of producing sperm throughout their entire adult life.

a)

True

b)

False

158.

Each Sertoli cell is joined to its neighbors by tight junctions.

a)

True

b)

False

159.

Spermatogenesis occurs in the epididymis.

a)

True

b)

False

160.

Testosterone acts as a paracrine in the testes to promote spermatogenesis.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

Changes in brain activity stimulate hypothalamic secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which initiates puberty.

a)

True

b)

False

162.

The acrosome is a vesicle in the head of the sperm that contains enzymes for fusion with the oocyte.

a)

True

b)

False

163.

During the follicular phase, 10-25 follicles begin to develop but only one will usually be released at ovulation.

a)

True

b)

False

164.

Ejaculation is controlled by a spinal reflex, which activates the sympathetic nervous system.

a)

True

b)

False

165.

The outer layer of the follicle is populated by theca cells that synthesize androgens.

a)

True

b)

False

166.

The endometrium is a muscular layer of the uterus.

a)

True

b)

False

167.

Fertilization of the ovum usually occurs within the uterus.

a)

True

b)

False

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