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SSC Science Competition Review

Total questions: 162

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All biotic and abiotic (living and nonliving) things in an area is called an ______________.

a)

ecosystem

b)

community

c)

population

d)

biome

2.

Which biome would be best suited for plants and animals that can store water?

a)

rainforest

b)

desert

c)

tundra

d)

ocean

3.

A cactus has spines that help protect it from predators. This would be an example of a _________________ adaptation.

a)

structural

b)

behavioral

4.

Climbers of a tree in the rainforest would be an example of a _________________ adaptation.

a)

structural

b)

behavioral

5.

The ______________ biome has short summers and long winters; it is covered in evergreen trees.

a)

deciduous forest

b)

grasslands

c)

taiga

d)

rainforest

6.
The efficiency of energy transfer from a lower trophic level to the next highest level is roughly
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
1000%
7.
Trophic levels are represented by 
a)
squares
b)
circles
c)
pyramids
d)
lines
8.
Which animal is the apex predator?
a)
hawk
b)
lizard
c)
snake
d)
grass
9.
Which animal is not the apex predator but, a predator to a mouse?
a)
hawk
b)
rabbit
c)
snake
d)
grass
10.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in each level gets lost as heat or used by the organism for survival?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%
11.
Organisms that create their own energy from sunlight or chemicals
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Autotroph
d)
Heterotroph 
12.
What is the water cycle?
a)
the 3 forms of water
b)
the movement of water on, above, or below the surface of the Earth
c)
when water melts
d)
when clouds form
13.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
14.
What is the energy source for the water cycle?
a)
the sun
b)
the earth
c)
water
d)
the moon
15.
What is a layer of rock or sediment that holds water?
a)
glacier
b)
well
c)
aquifer
d)
natural spring
16.

97% of the Earth's water is located in....

a)

ground water

b)

the ocean

c)

lakes, rivers, and streams

d)

glaciers

17.
What percentage of the Earth’s fresh water is available for drinking?
a)
10%
b)
<1%
c)
3%
d)
15%
18.

An island off the coast of Africa contains a larger percentage of specialist species than generalist species. Which of the following describes the most immediate effect if an invasive generalist species is introduced to the island?

a)

As predation increases, the population size of the invasive generalist species will decrease.

b)

As competition for resources increases, the population size of the island’s specialist species will decrease.

c)

As resources are partitioned, the population sizes of both the generalist species and the specialist species will increase.

d)

As niches overlap, the invasive generalist species will be outcompeted by the island’s specialist species.

19.

An island off the coast of Africa contains a larger percentage of specialist species than generalist species. Which of the following describes the most immediate effect if an invasive generalist species is introduced to the island?

a)

As predation increases, the population size of the invasive generalist species will decrease.

b)

As competition for resources increases, the population size of the island’s specialist species will decrease.

c)

As resources are partitioned, the population sizes of both the generalist species and the specialist species will increase.

d)

As niches overlap, the invasive generalist species will be outcompeted by the island’s specialist species.

20.

Biodiversity is measured using two criteria. They are...

a)

Species evenness and habitat area

b)

Species richness and ecological relationships

c)

Species richness and evenness

d)

Species evenness and NPP produced

21.

Which of the following would have the highest species richness?

a)

An ecosystem with 30 species with varying numbers of each population.

b)

An ecosystem with 15 species with 2 populations dominating in size.

c)

An ecosystem with 25 species with roughly the same amount of individuals in each population.

d)

An ecosystem with 5 highly specialized species with equal amount of individuals in each population.

22.

According to the map, which of the following islands would be negatively impacted the most by an invasive species?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

23.

The first species that reappear after a major disruption to an ecosystem are known as...

a)

Primary consumers

b)

Reintroduced species

c)

Endangered Species

d)

Pioneer species

24.

Primary succession would occur in all the following areas except..

a)

bare rock

b)

after a volcanic eruption

c)

sandy dunes

d)

an open field

25.

What area would be considered the climax community?

a)

Annual herb stage

b)

forest

c)

scrub stage

d)

lichen moss stage

26.

Which of the following pairs would be considered a regulating service of biodiversity?

a)

Food and fresh water

b)

Pollination and biological control

c)

Tourism and the arts

d)

Habitats and genetic diversity

27.

Which of the following would be an anthropogenic effect on the cultural services of biodiversity?

a)

Switching to a vegan diet

b)

The dumping of toxic chemicals in our fresh water ways

c)

Increased snorkeling in the Great Barrier Reef

d)

Removal of a forest to build new town homes

28.

Invasive species are successful because

a)

they enter an ecosystem much like the one they come from.

b)

they are the first organisms to appear after a disturbance

c)

they have no predators and reduced competition

d)

they require less energy and can fit in lower trophic levels.

29.

The result of a bottleneck event is...

a)

reduced genetic diversity

b)

increased genetic diversity

c)

speciation

d)

increased gene flow

30.

Which of the following might be a pioneer species after a fire has destroyed a forest?

a)

native grasses

b)

primary consumers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

larger trees

31.

Which one of the following factors is not a major cause of loss of biodiversity?

a)

habitat fragmentation

b)

Agriculture

c)

Invasive species

d)

Pollution

32.

What is one way we can reduce human impact on the release of invasive species?

a)

Increase travel

b)

Increase shipping and purchase of goods from other countries

c)

build more residential and commercial areas

d)

return unwanted pets to proper locations and organizations

33.
Removal of which of the following will result in the greatest change(s) in an ecosystem?
a)
indicator species
b)
keystone species
c)
foundation species
d)
threatened species
34.

Which of these is an aquatic indicator species?

a)

Shrimp

b)

Coral

c)

Plankton

d)

Sea Anemone

35.

This community has

a)

low species richness

b)

high species evenness

c)

an unequal distribution of species

d)

no biodiversity

36.

Which law regulates the trade in endangered species between countries?

a)

CITES

b)

Kyoto Protocol

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Endangered Species Act

37.

The abiotic conditions under which a species can survive and reproduce is called its

a)

range of tolerance

b)

realized niche

c)

environmental distribution

d)

fundamental niche

38.

The best way to preserve biodiversity is to...

a)

stop using all plastics

b)

protect and maintain habitats

c)

reduce our impact on pollution

d)

lower our need for poultry and beef

39.

What is the difference between primary and secondary succcession?

a)

Primary succession already has soil

b)

Lichen and moss come in for secondary succession

c)

Secondary succession already has soil

d)

Climax community is achieved quickly in primary succession

40.

the breaking of habitats into smaller pieces is called...

a)

habitat division

b)

habitat pollution

c)

habitat corruption

d)

habitat fragmentation

41.

Which of the following processes in the nitrogen cycle is the conversion of soil nitrate to the nitrogen gases N2O and N2 by bacteria.

a)

NITROGEN-FIXATION

b)

DECOMPOSITION

c)

NITRIFICATION

d)

DINITRICATION

42.

Known as eutrophication, excess fertilizer runoff in aquatic ecosystems causes -

a)

too much oxygen in the water

b)

algae to die

c)

algal blooms

43.
__________ primary productivity is the total amount of energy that producers convert to chemical energy in organic molecules per unit of time.   
a)
Net
b)
Total
c)
Gross
d)
None of the above
44.
To measure primary productivity, you can measure carbon dioxide consumption, total carbohydrates produced or ________________.
a)
dissolved oxygen
b)
total proteins produced
c)
light energy entering system
45.
__________productivity = the organic materials that remain after photosynthetic organisms in the ecosystem have used some of these compounds for their cellular energy needs (cellular respiration).
a)
Gross
b)
Primary
c)
Net
d)
Secondary
46.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
47.

What is species richness?

a)

Number of different genes in a species

b)

Number of individuals in a species

c)

Number of different species in a given area

d)

Number of ecosystems in a given area

48.

According to the island biogeography theory, which of the following islands is likely to have higher species diversity?

a)

A larger island far from the mainland

b)

A smaller island closer to the mainland

c)

A larger island closer to the mainland

d)

A smaller island far from the mainland

49.

What are ecosystem services?

a)

Benefits that people obtain from ecosystems

b)

Harmful effects of ecosystems on people

c)

Artificially created benefits for ecosystems

d)

Products obtained from ecosystems

50.

What is ecological succession?

a)

The process of maintaining the same species structure in an ecological community over time.

b)

The process of reducing the number of species in an ecological community.

c)

The process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time.

d)

The process of introducing new species to an ecological community.

51.

What term describes the variety of ecosystems within a given region?

a)

climate change

b)

ecosystem diversity

c)

biodiversity

d)

genetic engineering

52.

What is the process of primary succession?

a)

The process of primary succession involves the decline of plant and animal communities over time

b)

The process of primary succession involves the rapid growth of mature trees and plants on barren land

c)

The process of primary succession involves the introduction of non-native species to an ecosystem

d)

The process of primary succession involves the colonization of barren land by pioneer species, followed by the establishment of more complex plant and animal communities over time.

53.

What is the difference between primary and secondary succession?

a)

Primary succession occurs on bare rock, while secondary succession occurs in areas where a community has previously existed.

b)

Primary succession occurs in areas where a community has previously existed, while secondary succession occurs on bare rock.

c)

Primary succession involves the introduction of non-native species, while secondary succession involves the decline of plant and animal communities.

d)

Primary succession involves the decline of plant and animal communities, while secondary succession involves the introduction of non-native species.

54.

What is the impact of invasive species on biodiversity?

a)

Invasive species increase biodiversity by introducing new species to the ecosystem.

b)

Invasive species have no impact on biodiversity.

c)

Invasive species decrease biodiversity by outcompeting native species for resources and altering habitats.

d)

Invasive species increase biodiversity by creating new habitats.

55.

_______ species are more susceptible to being wiped out by the introduction of invasive species.

a)

Indicator

b)

Amphibious

c)

Generalist

d)

Specialist

56.

This graph depicts the ecological tolerance of the Blackstripe topminnow in regard to the flow rate of the river/stream it lives in. Drag the labels to the approximate spots on the curve that they belong to. There are two duplicated options.

57.

Which of the following is an example of a keystone species?

a)

Beavers

b)

Elephants

c)

Kudzu vine

d)

Sea otters

58.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Biodiversity decreases with increased sunlight

b)

Biodiversity decreases as you move away from the equator

c)

Biodiversity decreases as you decrease in altitude

d)

Biodiversity increases as you go further down in the oceans

59.

Species that are clearly critical to the functioning of an ecosystem are known as

a)

biodiversity

b)

keystone species

c)

main species

d)

native species

60.

An endemic species is

a)

exotic and found everywhere

b)

exotic and found only in certain regions

c)

native and found only in a limited area

d)

native and found everywhere

61.

When a community is stable with little to no change, what level of ecological succession is taking place?

a)

Primary succession

b)

Secondary succession

c)

Tertiary succession

d)

Climax community

62.

One species benefits from its relationship with another species for whom the relationship does no harm nor good. This relationship is best described as

a)

commensalism

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

competitive exclusion

63.

Southeast Asian flying foxes are responsible for pollinating durian tree flowers and spreading durian seeds. Durian trees and fruit are critical for the survival of many species and a decline in the flying fox population would be devastating to the local ecology. Flying foxes can be considered

a)

an indicator species

b)

an invasive species

c)

a keystone species

d)

a pioneer species

64.

Which is the best description of the two communities shown?

a)

Community 1 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 2.

b)

Community 1 has a higher evenness and equal richness to Community 2.

c)

Community 2 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 1.

d)

Community 2 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 1.

65.

The aesthetic value of an ecosystem provides

a)

a supporting service.

b)

a regulating service.

c)

an intrinsic value.

d)

a cultural service.

66.

Human waste is often dumped in the ocean. Microbial organisms in marine ecosystems can break down organic waste into less harmful components. This is an example of

a)

a cultural service.

b)

an ecosystem provision.

c)

a regulating service.

d)

an intrinsic value.

67.

The theory of island biogeography suggests that species richness is affected by which of the following factors?


I. island distance from mainland

II. how the island is formed

III. island size

a)

II only

b)

III only

c)

I and III

d)

II and III

68.

The surface of the earth, otherwise known as the ______, is broken into seven major pieces and sits atop a liquid layer called the _______

a)

lithosphere, asthenosphere

b)

astenosphere, mantle

c)

crust, litosphere

d)

asthenosphere, lithosphere

69.
This is the side of the mountain that is often drier and warmer.
a)
Leeward Side
b)
Wet Lapse Rate
c)
Windward Side
d)
Wild Side
70.
What is "upwelling"?
a)
when wind near a shore pushes surface water away, nutrient rich cold water rises from the depths
b)
water rises from springs at the bottom of lakes
c)
it is when cold water sinks in the Norwegian Sea
d)
It is when the Coriolis effect makes currents go around in a circle
71.
During __________ upwelling occurs off the coast of Peru.
a)
Normal Conditions
b)
El Nino
72.
One consequence of El Nino is _______ and increased rainfall in South America..
a)
flooding
b)
stronger Tradewinds
c)
strong winter storms
d)
drought
73.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
74.
The San Andrea's Fault in California is which type of boundary?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Subductive Zone
d)
Transform
75.
The layer of soil which the topsoil is found.
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
76.
Most of the freshwater around the world is used for the following purpose.
a)
industry
b)
residential
c)
agriculture
d)
recreation
77.

Sea surface temperature changes great than 0.5oC for greater than 5 months across the central tropical Pacific Ocean are known as

a)

the arctic effect

b)

the get stream

c)

a typhoon

d)

El Nino-Southern Oscillation

78.
Which of the following contributes to the unequal warming of earth?
I. variation in the angle of sunlight that reaches Earth
II. variation in the amount of surface area over which the Sun's rays are distributed
III. variation in the amount of sunlight reflected from clouds
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
II and III only
d)
III only
79.
The Coriolis effect is responsible for
a)
the convergence of two ascending Hadley cells
b)
the location of atmospheric currents caused by the unequal heating of Earth
c)
the cooling effect of air as it rises and expands
d)
the deflection of atmospheric currents
80.
Which is the correct order of the convection cells starting from the equator?
a)
polar, ferrell, hadley
b)
ferrell, hadley, polar
c)
polar, hadley, ferrell
d)
hadley, ferrell, polar
81.

The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Transform Boundary

d)

Plate Boundary

82.

A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....

a)

Pull apart

b)

Come together

c)

Slide past each other

d)

subducting

83.

Mountains are created when....

a)

Two continental plates collide

b)

Two oceanic plates pull apart

c)

An Oceanic plate subducts under a Continental Plate

d)

Two continental plates pull apart

84.

The process by which the ocean floor sinks beneath a deep-ocean trench and back into the mantle is known as _______

a)

convection.

b)

continental drift.

c)

subduction.

d)

conduction.

85.

What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth’s layers?

a)

crust, outer core, inner core, mantle

b)

mantle, outer core, inner core, crust

c)

crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

d)

outer core, inner core, crust, mantle

86.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
87.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
88.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of soil?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
silt
d)
mud
89.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
mud
d)
dirt
90.
The two main agents of erosion are...
a)
wind and flowing water
b)
gravity and frost wedging
c)
oxygen and water
d)
carbon dioxiede and wind
91.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
92.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
93.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
94.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

95.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
96.
You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil mostly made of?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
97.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
98.

The movement of the tectonic plates is caused by

a)

the rotation of the Earth.

b)

convection currents in the Asthenosphere

c)

the gravity of the iron-nickel core.

d)

the Moho discontinuity.

99.
Surface currents are a result of
a)
Global Wind Patterns
b)
Earth's Rotation
c)
Density
d)
All of the above
100.
Deep Ocean currents are a result of
a)
Global Wind Patterns
b)
Earth's Rotation
c)
Density
d)
All of the above
101.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
102.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)
The North Pole
b)
The South Pole
c)
The Equator
d)
Both A and B
103.
The sun's rays are least direct
a)
near the poles
b)
near the equator
c)
at high altitudes
d)
far from the ocean
104.

In which layer of the atmosphere does ozone help block UV radiation from striking the Earth?

a)

troposphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

thermosphere

105.

In which layer of the atmosphere do all the pressure, wind, and precipitation changes occur?

a)

Outer space

b)

stratosphere

c)

troposphere

d)

mesosphere

106.

Which of the following would be an environmental impact of high density animal farming?

a)

bad smells

b)

livestock can escape

c)

water pollution due to runoff

d)

improvement of feeding efficiency

107.

Because global fisheries have dramatically seen a reduction in fish numbers, this technique has been used recently to supplement that loss.

a)

monocropping

b)

IPM

c)

contour farming

d)

aquaculture

108.

The systematic removal of rock or other substance for financial gain.

a)

smelting

b)

mining

c)

urban farming

d)

forestry

109.

One of the advantages to using genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is

a)

reduce the need for pesticides

b)

they are not regulated by the government

c)

the concern about safety to consume

d)

they can cause food allergies

110.

When irrigation water evaporates, salts are left behind on the soil surface and can cause plant death or lead to

a)

soil salinization

b)

desertification

c)

waterlogging

d)

monocropping

111.

IPM is likely to use all of the following techniques EXCEPT

a)

intercropping.

b)

habitat creation for pest predators.

c)

planting herbicide-resistant crops.

d)

increased use of traditional pesticides.

112.

Overgrazing of grasslands can lead to reduced range quality. Two of the major effects of overgrazing are

a)

erosion and desertification

b)

eutrophication and increased methane production

c)

higher fire potential and increased productivity

d)

higher primary productivity and ammonification

113.

Which of the following is an example of a solution to the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Improving literacy among urban populations

b)

Raising tax rates for large corporations

c)

Inventing stronger antibiotics

d)

Passing a law to set limits for fishermen

114.

Externality

a)

The cost or benefit of a good or service that is not included in the purchase price of that good or service

b)

Land that a community shares

c)

The maximum number of plants that one can harvest

d)

Resources managed by the government or an organization

115.

Emphasis on use of pesticides, herbicides, and monoculture

a)

green revolution

b)

agricultural revolution

c)

industrial revolution

d)

subsistence agriculture

116.

Which of the following type of tree harvesting is the most detrimental to the environment?

a)

Strip Cutting

b)

Selective Cutting

c)

Clear Cutting

d)

Partial Harvest

117.
CAFOs make meat more economical, but may have some negative environmental impacts.  These include all of the following EXCEPT
a)
high concentrations of animal waste.
b)
increase in nutrients in stormwater runoff.
c)
increase in sediments in stormwater runoff.
d)
increased use of land area over other types of animal farming.
118.

One way a local community might regulate a shared and limited resource and reduce the tragedy of the commons is to ....

a)

eliminate ownership of the resources and make them available to all

b)

divide the resources into parcels and assign them to individuals

c)

offer subsides to users of the resources in the form of tax breaks

d)

reduce the cost of access to the resources

119.
Marine fisheries are particularly susceptible to the tragedy of the commons because
a)
fish are r-selected species that experience boom and bust cycles.
b)
fish are highly migratory, so they don't belong to any one nation.
c)
pollution is highest in areas with high fish populations.
d)
international waters are governed by antiquated nautical law.
120.

Which of the following environmental effects would most likely result from the clear-cutting of boreal forests by industrial logging operations?

a)

There will be an increase in atmospheric oxygen concentration, which will improve air quality.

b)

There will be an increase in farming on the cleared areas of land, which will reduce incidences of flooding.

c)

There will be an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration, which will contribute to climate change.

d)

There will be a decrease in the temperature of soil and nearby bodies of water, which will increase biodiversity.

121.

Which of the following describes an unintended consequence that results from large-scale agricultural use of water from an aquifer?

a)

The water table level rises too high, leading to excessive flooding.

b)

Much of the water becomes too salty for human consumption because of saltwater intrusion.

c)

Agricultural areas contribute to increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, leading to global climate change.

d)

The rate of water use likely exceeds the rate of recharge, leading to lowering the water table.

122.

Which of the following best describes the advantages and disadvantages of drip irrigation?

a)

This method most efficiently delivers water directly to plant roots compared with other methods, and wastes less water, but it may be too costly for farmers in developing countries to use.

b)

This method is suitable for a range of topographies and is easy to operate, but it requires a high initial investment in machinery.

c)

This method delivers water to the field by pipes and water flows directly over the soil, but there is a large amount of runoff.

d)

This method applies water directly to trenches dug in soil and is cost effective, but water is often lost to evaporation.

123.

Which of the following methods of meat production would provide the most likely explanation for the information represented in the graph above?

a)

Individual transferable quotas

b)

Concentrated animal feeding operations

c)

Free-range grazing

d)

Organic meat production

124.

An insect population in an agricultural field is affected by monthly applications of a pesticide, as shown in the graph below. A likely cause of the overall increase in the insect population over time is...

a)

a decrease in the moisture content of the soil

b)

an increase in soil salinity

c)

the survival of increasing numbers of resistant insects

d)

an increase in the population of insect predators

125.

Compared with people in developing countries, people in industrialized countries are more likely to eat…

a)

Beef

b)

Corn

c)

Rice

d)

Beans

126.

Ore leftovers after valuable minerals have been removed

a)

tailings

b)

smelting piles

c)

extraction heap

d)

gravel

127.

Surface Mining and Control Reclamation Act

a)

mandates that miners give half of what they find to the government

b)

allows miners to place a stake on public land for $5 per acre

c)

mandates reclamation

d)

is meant to bankrupt mining companies

128.

Why mine tailings can be dangerous

a)

can cause miners to trip

b)

can be full of sharp objects

c)

can cause acid leaching into water bodies

d)

are full of conflict minerals

129.

What are considered "the commons"

a)

Common house hold items like knifes, spoons, and forks.

b)

A resource owned by no one and available for use by anyone at little or no charge

c)

A field where college students can sit outside in between classes

130.

Removes single trees or a relatively small number of trees from the larger forest

a)

Tree specialization

b)

Selective cutting

c)

Forest consumption

d)

Selective trees

131.

Which location would be best for solar energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

132.

What is given off as waste in a hydrogen fueled car?

a)

H2

b)

O2

c)

H2O2

d)

H2O

133.

Fuel cells that use a chemical reaction to generate electricity are using

a)

hydrogen gas

b)

methane gas

c)

water

d)

oil

134.

If a tractor trailer truck is 20% efficient, what happened to the other 80%

a)

energy is destroyed

b)

energy is lost as heat

c)

the 80% is still in the gas tank

d)

energy is converted into matter

135.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Cogeneration power plants can have efficiencies up to 60%

· Efficient for cooking, heating, etc.

· Fewer impurities than coal or oil

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

136.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Energy-dense and abundant—will last up to 200 years

· No refining needed

· Easy, safe to transport

· Economic backbone of many small towns

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

137.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Ideal for mobile combustion engines

· Quick ignition/ turn-off capability

· Cleaner-burning than coal

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

138.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?


· Emits no CO2

· Offers independence from imported oil

· High energy density, ample supply

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

139.

Type of fuel source that causes DEFORESTATION

a)

Solar energy

b)

Nuclear fission

c)

Geothermal

d)

Biomass

140.
Most of the developing countries in the world depend on _______ for their main source of energy.
a)
renewable sources
b)
nuclear
c)
biomass (including wood, manure, etc)
d)
coal
141.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of solar energy?
a)
It can only be used effectively in certain regions and certain times of day
b)
It produces greenhouse gases during use
c)
It is a nonrenewable energy source
d)
It is inexpensive compared to other sources
142.

Based on the diagram, which processes would provide the energy used to generate electricity at the power plant?

a)

absorption of incoming solar radiation

b)

fusion of atomic nuclei to form heavier atomic nuclei

c)

fission in radioactive fuel

d)

combustion of fossil fuels

143.
How does petroleum form
a)
build up of layers of trees and leaves
b)
build up of once-living aquatic organisms underneath pressure and heat. 
c)
Build up of different rocks
d)
It's formed from gasses in the air
144.

Which three sources supply the majority of commercial energy in the world today?

a)

Nuclear, hydropower, and photovoltaics

b)

Wood, dung, and charcoal

c)

Coal, oil, and natural gas

d)

Solar, wind, and biomass

145.

Which of the following is the best example of cogeneration?

a)

Several power plants supply the same city with electrical energy.

b)

A coal-fired power plant captures waste heat and uses it to heat adjacent buildings.

c)

Emissions from power plants are captured and stripped of sulfur for commercial sale.

d)

A trash-to-steam power plant accepts both residential and commercial waste.

146.

What is the cleanest of the three fossil fuels?

a)

Nuclear

b)

Petroleum

c)

Oil

d)

Natural gas

147.

How is energy from fossil fuels produced?

a)

The combustion of fossil fuels heats water to produce steam, which then turns a turbine.

b)

The heat released from burning fossil fuels rises and turns a turbine, which then releases carbon dioxide

c)

The steam released from the combustion of fossil fuels turns a generator, which then powers a turbine.

d)

Steam produced from a turbine ignites the fossil fuels, which then powers the generator.

148.

What is the common fuel for nuclear powerplants?

a)

Hydrocarbons

b)

Uranium

c)

Zinc

d)

Cadmium

149.

This energy source can disrupt migratory birds.

a)

solar energy

b)

hydrogen fuel cell

c)

geothermal energy

d)

wind energy

150.

This energy source requires UV radiation to excite electrons.

a)

solar energy

b)

hydrogen fuel cells

c)

geothermal energy

d)

wind energy

151.

This energy sources are common at divergent boundaries.

a)

solar energy

b)

hydrogen fuel cells

c)

wind energy

d)

geothermal energy

152.

Which of these best describes the use of a photovoltaic cell?

a)

converts photons into electricity

b)

burns biomass for heat

c)

generates passive solar energy

d)

generates electricity from wind power

153.

Cogeneration typically involves which of the following?

a)

Doubling the capacity for a nuclear power plant

b)

Increasing the efficiency of electricity generation in coal fired power plants

c)

Using both renewable and nonrenewable resources to produce electricity

d)

Using a fuel to produce both electricity and heat

154.

Which location would be best for geothermal energy?

a)

Arizona

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Hawaii

d)

Colorado

155.

A home is built with clear glass panels that allow sunlight to pass through. This is an example of

a)

Active solar

b)

Passive solar

c)

Parabolic collector

d)

Photovoltaic Cells

156.

A home is fitted with pumps that pipe water to the roof of the home to be heated by the sun. This is an example of

a)

passive solar

b)

active solar

c)

parabolic collector

d)

photovoltaic cell

157.

What is the half-life of Iodine 131?

a)

32 days

b)

24 days

c)

16 days

d)

8 days

158.

Which of the following energy sources is considered nonrenewable?

a)

petroleum

b)

solar

c)

geothermal

d)

tidal

e)

wind

159.
These types of power plants are primarily responsible for acid deposition (including acid rain)
a)
natural gas
b)
petroleum
c)
coal
d)
nuclear
160.
Put the items below in correct sequence for the generation of electricity using the wind
1 – generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
2 – wind turns the wind turbine blade
3 – the gear box transfers mechanical energy to the generator
4 – electricity is transferred to the grid
a)
1-2-3-4
b)
2-1-3-4
c)
2-3-1-4
d)
2-4-3-1
161.

Calculate the energy used by a coffee maker that has a power rating of 0.900 kW and operated for 17 hours.

a)

15.3 kwh

b)

17.3 kwh

c)

900 kwh

d)

1200 kw

162.

Calculate the cost of operating a heater of 1.75kw for 20 hours at rate of $0.13 per kwh?

a)

$6.75

b)

$4.55

c)

$53.43

d)

$45.53