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Noor Biology Finals

Total questions: 162

Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
2.

What is a gene

a)

A long length of DNA that codes for a chromosome

b)

A short length of DNA that codes for a chromosome

c)

A short length of DNA that codes for a protein.

3.

The number of human chromosomes is

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

64

4.

How many pairs of chromosomes do you have?

a)

2

b)

46

c)

23

d)

8

5.

Which of the following statements about chromosomes is correct?

a)

Chromosomes are long, thread-like structures

b)

Chromosomes are found in the nucleus of all cells in the human body

c)

Chromosomes contain DNA

d)

All of the above

6.

What is a long coiled strand of DNA and proteins?

a)

gene

b)

RNA

c)

chromosome

d)

genome

7.

What is a short segment of a DNA strand that codes for our characteristics?

a)

chromosome

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

gene

8.

From smallest to largest how would genetic information be organized?

a)

genes, cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA

b)

chromosome, cell, gene, DNA, nucleus

c)

DNA/nucleotides, gene, chromosome, nucleus, cell

d)

nucleus, cell, gene, DNA, chromosome

9.
A change in DNA or chromosomes
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
mutation
d)
Osmosis
10.

What are homologous chromosomes?

a)

Two chromosomes that are the same length

b)

Two chromosomes that have the centromere in the same position

c)

Two chromosomes that have genes for particular characteristics at the same location along their length

d)

All of the above

11.

Which of the following base pairings is correct?

a)

T-T, C-A

b)

A-T, C-C

c)

A-T, C-G

d)

C-G, C-C

12.

What is the complimentary sequence of the following sequence:

GATCAG

a)

TGACAT

b)

GACATG

c)

CTAGTC

d)

CGACTA

13.

What do the dotted lines between the nitrogenous bases (A,T,C,G) represent in the image provided?

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Peptide bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

14.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
15.
Which series is arranged in order from largest to smallest in size?
a)

gene, chromosome, nucleus, cell, nucleotide

b)

cell, nucleus, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

c)

nucleotide, chromosome, cell, nucleus

d)

cell, gene, nucleotide, nucleus, chromosome

16.
If there is 37% guanine how much cytosine is there?
a)
77%
b)
47%
c)
37%
d)
57%
17.

Which is a purine?

a)

adenine

b)

cytosine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

18.

According to Chargaff's rule, there are equal numbers of certain nitrogenous bases in DNA due to base pairing. So if we were to inspect a molecule of DNA and 20% of it was composed of Cytosine, what percentage would be composed of Adenine?

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

25%

19.

What's the difference between purine and pyrimidine nitrogen bases?

a)

Pyrimidines are only found in DNA, not RNA

b)

Pyrimidines have two rings, Purines have one

c)

Purines are only found in DNA, not RNA

d)

Purines have two rings, Pyrimidines have one

20.

Which of the following are purines?

a)

adenine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

thymine

e)

uracil

21.

Bases with a double-ring structure

a)

Pyrimidine

b)

Purine

c)

Polymer

d)

Monomer

22.

______ is coiled DNA, while ______ is uncoiled DNA

a)

Chromatid ; Chromatin

b)

Chromosome ; Chromatin

c)

Chromatin ; Chromatid

d)

Sister Chromatid ; Sister Chromosome

23.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
24.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
25.
Okazaki fragments form on the:
a)
lagging strand
b)
leading strand
c)
base-pairs
d)
5' end
26.
Which of the following is required for DNA replication to occur?
a)
DNA helicase
b)
DNA ligase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
all of these
27.

Direction that DNA is replicated

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

28.
What strand is copied faster?
a)
Leading
b)
Lagging
29.

Structure C is

a)

helicase

b)

primase

c)

DNA polymerase III

d)

gyrase

30.

H is the

a)

leading strand

b)

lagging strand

c)

parent strand

d)

none of these

31.

This structure is an Okazaki fragment.

a)

A

b)

D

c)

F

d)

G

32.
order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
33.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides ("The Builder")?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
34.

The picture below shows the steps of DNA replication beginning with step one and ending with step three.


​Because you are reusing the old, or parent, DNA strand DNA replication is said to be

a)

Semi- Conservative

b)

Semi-discontinuous

c)

Continuous

d)

Fully-Conserveative

35.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

36.

Which is the first step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

37.

Which is the second step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

38.

Which is the third step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

39.

Which is the fourth step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

40.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the leading strand in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

41.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the lagging strand in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

42.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the replication fork in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

43.

If a person suffered from a disorder where their DNA fragments were unable to fill in the missing slots in between the fragments of the lagging strand, they would most likely have a disorder that affected which enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

44.

The directionality of DNA is said to be ___________, because it is side by side by goes in opposite directions.

a)

Anti-directional

b)

Parallel

c)

Anti-parallel

d)

Anti-uniform

45.
DNA replication was proved by the experiments of:
a)
Hershey & Chase
b)
Meselson & Stahl
c)
Watson & Crick
d)
Franklin & Gosling
46.

The Meselson-Stahl experiment demonstrated that DNA replication produces two DNA molecules each composed of

a)

Two old strands

b)

Two new strands

c)

One old strand and one new strand

d)

two strands with variable proportions of new and old DNA.

47.

Which model does NOT predict that after one replication both DNA molecules will be a 50/50 mix of original and new DNA?

a)

conservative

b)

semi-conservative

c)

dispersive

48.

This is the correct model for DNA Replication.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

This is the correct model for DNA Replication.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

This is the correct model for DNA Replication.

a)

True

b)

False

51.
What preciptates the DNA?
a)
EDTA
b)
NaCl
c)
Ethanol
d)
Lysis Buffer
52.

G1, S, G2 are all part of what stage of the cell cycle?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Interphase

c)

Mitosis

d)

Telophase

53.

What phase of mitosis is shown in the image?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

54.

Which of the following does NOT occur during mitosis?

a)

Condensation of the chromosomes

b)

Separation of sister chromatids

c)

Replication of the DNA

d)

Spindle formation

55.

What phase of mitosis is shown in the image?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

56.

The chromatids of a double-stranded chromosome are held together at a region known as the

a)

Spindle

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Centriole

d)

Centromere

57.

Which phase of mitosis is shown in the image?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

58.

Which of the following is an accurate definition of cytokinesis?

a)

Division of the centrioles

b)

Division of the cytoplasm

c)

DNA replication

d)

Normal cell growth

59.

The life of a cell is called the cell cycle. Which period of the cell cycle is where cells grow and perform their normal functions?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Cell Division

60.
What is the purpose of mitosis?
a)
To increase the surface area of a cell
b)
To allow cells to divide for growth, repair, and renewal
c)
For increasing genetic variation within a species
d)
To allow for DNA replication and protein synthesis
61.
Mitosis results in the formation of...
a)
Two identical cells with all of the original chromosomes
b)
Two different cells with half of the original chromosomes
c)
Four identical cells with all of the original chromosomes
d)
Four different cells with half of the original chromosomes
62.
Put the following stages of the cell cycle in order: G2, S, G1, M. 
a)
G1, S, G2, M
b)
S, G1, G2, M
c)
G1, M, G2, S
d)
M, G1, S, G2
63.

During the "s" phase of the cell cycle, DNA is duplicated. Why is this important?

a)

Allows for each daughter cell to be genetically DIFFERENT.

b)

Allows for each daughter cell to be genetically IDENTICAL

c)

Allows for each daughter cell to have 2X the amount of DNA as the parent cell.

d)

Allows for each daughter cell to have half the amount of DNA as the parent cell

64.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
65.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
66.

What happens in prophase of mitosis?

a)

The chromosomes become visible; nucleus disappear; spindles form

b)

The chromosomes align in the middle of the cell

c)

The sister chromatids separate

d)

The chromosomes uncoil into chromatin; nucleus reappears; spindles disappear

67.

During anaphase

a)

DNA lines up in the middle of the cell and DNA attaches to spindle fibers

b)

centrioles and spindle fibers appear

c)

Each DNA gets pull to the opposite sides of the cell

d)

DNA gets copied

68.

The structures labeled B are_________, held together by a centromere.

a)

sister chromatid

b)

centriole

c)

centromere

d)

chromophere

69.
Mitosis produces cells with haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
70.
Meiosis produces cells with a haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
71.
Body cells have diploid or haploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
72.
Gametes have haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
73.

Has one set of chromosomes

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

c)

Body cells

d)

None of the above

74.

What is cancer?

a)

Regulated meiosis

b)

Uncontrolled meiosis

c)

Regulated Mitosis

d)

Uncontrolled Mitosis

75.
Cancer is a consequence of the disruption of the cell cycle
a)
True
b)
False
76.

A mass of cells that can be either malignant or benign.

a)

cancer

b)

chromosome

c)

tumor

d)

interphase

77.

Apoptosis is

a)

the process of programmed cell death

b)

the process of programmed cell growth

c)

the process of programmed cell birth

d)

the process of programmed cell regulation

78.
The causes of cancer may include which of the following?
a)
poor diet & activity levels
b)
UV radiation
c)
inheritance
d)
all of these
79.

Cancer promoting substances are called:

a)

Tumors

b)

Carcinogens

c)

Cyclins

d)

Malignant

80.
DNA contains the bases Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine.  Which base is replaced in RNA by another base?
a)
Adenine is replaced by Uracil
b)
Thymine is replaced by Uracil
c)
Guanine is replaced by Uracil
d)
Cytosine is replaced  Uracil
81.
Which of the following is FALSE about RNA?
a)
RNA is a single helix
b)
RNA comprises of a ribose sugar
c)
RNA bases are: thymine, adenine, cytosine, guanine
d)
RNA can be found both inside and outside of the nucleus
82.
What type of sugar is found in RNA?
a)
deoxyribose
b)
ribose
c)
glucose
d)
sucrose
83.
mRNA.....
a)
makes a complimentary copy of a section of DNA to take to the ribosome
b)
makes a complimentary copy of a section of DNA to take to the mitochondria 
c)
makes a complimentary copy of a section of DNA to aid in replication
d)
makes a complimentary copy of a strand of DNA to take to the nucleus
84.
What would be the mRNA strand to compliment the DNA strand with the following sequence:
TAC GAA
a)
AUG CUU
b)
ATG CTT
c)
GCA TCC
d)
GCA UCC
85.

Both DNA and RNA are nucleic acids.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

87.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

88.

During translation, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for delivering amino acids to help make a protein.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

dRNA

89.

There are a total of ____ different amino acids

a)

20

b)

1

c)

4

d)

unlimited

90.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

91.
This is the triplet of bases on the end of a tRNA molecule
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
92.
The process where DNA is transcribed to mRNA happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
93.
The function of ______ is to combine with proteins to form ribosomes.
a)
rRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
mRNA
d)
DNA
94.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
95.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
96.
The process where mRNA is translated into amino acids happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
97.
The principle shown in the image is called what?
a)
Transcription
b)
The Central Dogma
c)
Translation
d)
The Principle of Proteins
98.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
99.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

100.

Why must transcription occur in the nucleus?

a)

because DNA can't leave the nucleus

b)

because ribosomes are in the nucleus

c)

because DNA polymerase is found there

d)

because helicase unzips the DNA

101.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

102.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

103.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

104.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

105.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

106.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

107.

Which mutation will cause translation to stop?

a)

Mutations 1 and 3 only

b)

Mutation 1 only

c)

Mutation 2 only

d)

Muations 1, 2, 3

108.

Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

a)

Deletion

b)

Substitution

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

109.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
110.

As a fertilized egg divides, the cells differentiate because they

a)

have different sets of DNA passed on to the daughter cells

b)

have different sets of genes activated in the daughter cells

c)

have mutations that cause different genes to appear in the daughter cells

d)

randomly assort the chromosomes into different daughter cells

111.

What is the role of stem cells in cell differentiation?

a)

They serve as a precursor for generalized cells

b)

These cells can turn into specialized cells and back into generalized cells when needed

c)

They are generalized cells that can lead to specialized cells

d)

They are specialized cells that can lead to generalized cells

112.

Which of these acts to block transcription and therefore gene expression?

a)

Promoter regions of DNA

b)

RNA Polymerase

c)

Repressor Proteins

d)

mRNA

113.

When gene expression occurs

a)

A gene is mutated with either an insertion or deletion

b)

The gene is removed from the genotype in that cell

c)

The gene is passed on to the daughter cells during mitosis

d)

The gene is activated and used in protein synthesis

114.

One way to regulate the expression of a gene is to control the formation of mRNA. This is called ___ control.

a)

transcriptional

b)

translational

c)

post-transcriptional

d)

post-translational

115.

Genes can be turned on (expressed) when a(n) ____ such as CRP or cAMP receptor protein binds to the CRP binding site.

a)

repressor

b)

corepressor

c)

inducer

d)

activator

116.

Negative control of gene expression is mediated by __ and results in a(n) __ in the frequency of transcription.

a)

activators, increase

b)

activators, decrease

c)

repressors, increase

d)

repressors, decrease

117.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the regulatory region for transcription are called ____________.
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
118.
What does "multipotent" mean?
a)
able to divide and make one kind of cell
b)
able to divide and make all different types of cells
c)
able to divide and make multiple (but not all) types of cells 
d)
cannot divide
119.
What does "pluripotent" mean?
a)
able to divide and make all different types of cells
b)
not able to divide
c)
can only divide and make one cell type 
d)
if it divides, it will make a cancerous tumor
120.

Which of the following is the best definition for MEIOSIS?

a)

the process of two haploid cells uniting

b)

the counting of chromosomes within a diploid cell

c)

a two-step process that reduces the number of chromosomes in half such that there is only one copy of all the chromosomes

d)

the equational division of a cell into two identical copies

121.

In which stage of MEIOSIS does crossing over occur? (The exchange of genetic material between chromosomes in a tetrad.)

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Telophase I

122.

Which of the following are CORRECT observations about the differences between MITOSIS and MEIOSIS? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Mitosis produces cells that identical to the parent cell.

b)

Meiosis produces cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

All cells go through INTERPHASE as part of the cell cycle, whether it goes to mitosis or meiosis next.

d)

In both types of cell division, the chromosomes are only duplicated once.

e)

Only in Mitosis, do you see chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad.

123.

Name this phase of Meiosis

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

124.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Telophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase II

d)

Anaphase II

125.

What is unique to Prophase I- is that the duplicated chromosomes pair up to form _______.

a)

a centrosome

b)

a tetrad

c)

the mitotic spindle

d)

sister chromatids

126.

A HETEROZYGOUS individual would have the genotype:

a)

Hh

b)

hh

c)

HH

d)

Hi

127.

In pea plants, tall (T) plant alleles are dominant to short (t) plant alleles. If two tall plants (each with the genotype Tt) are crossed, what is the probability that the cross would result in a short pea plant?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

128.

If tall eyeballs (T) are dominant to short eyeballs (t), give the genotypes that are possible for tall eyeballs.

(a)  

129.

How many alleles do you inherit from EACH parent for a specific trait?

a)

1

b)

2

130.

A tool used to predict the probability of offspring inheriting certain traits is called a ...

a)

karyotype

b)

Punnett Square

131.

The physical expression of a trait is called the ...

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

132.

Genotype: TT

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous dominant

133.

Which statement below describes DOMINANT alleles?

a)

expressed when at least one is present

b)

only expressed when 2 are present

134.

In the problem shown, what must the genotype of the missing parent be?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

135.

The different forms or versions of a gene are called ...

a)

alleles

b)

gametes

136.

Having freckles is a dominant trait in humans.  A girl has freckles, but her brother does not. What do we know for certain about the parents?

a)

both parents have at least one recessive allele

b)

both parents are heterozygous for freckles

c)

one of the parents does not have freckles

137.

Genotype: rr

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous dominant

138.

Which statement below describes RECESSIVE alleles?

a)

expressed when at least one is present

b)

only expressed when 2 are present

139.

What are alleles?

a)

different versions of a gene

b)

different genes

c)

different chromosomes

d)

different cells

140.

One of Mendel's Laws states that genes for different traits can segregate without affecting each other. This is known as the

a)

Law of Independent Assortment

b)

Law of Probability

c)

Law of Segregation

d)

Law of Crossing Over and Recombination

141.

One of Mendel's Laws states that alleles separate during meiosis. This is known as the

a)

Law of Independent Assortment

b)

Law of Probability

c)

Law of Segregation

d)

Law of Crossing Over and Recombination

142.

If the image were real, it would represent what type of inheritance pattern?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Inheritance

143.

What type of inheritance pattern does the diagram represent?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Inheritance

144.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
145.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
3
b)
4
146.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
147.
How many females are in this pedigree?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
148.
Looking at the karyotype, is this person male or female, and how do you know?
a)
There is no way to tell from a karyotype.
b)
Male - has two X's
c)
female - has two X's
d)
Male - has an X and Y
149.

Assuming a trait is AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT, what genotypes could make a person AFFECTED?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

XAY

e)

XaY

150.

Assuming a trait is AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT, what genotype would make a person UNAFFECTED?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

XAY

e)

XaY

151.

Assuming a trait is AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE, what genotype would make a person AFFECTED?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

XAY

e)

XaY

152.

Assuming a trait is AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE, what genotypes would make a person UNAFFECTED?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

XAY

e)

XaY

153.

Assuming a trait is X-LINKED RECESSIVE, what are the genotypes of an AFFECTED person?

a)

XAY

b)

XaY

c)

XAXA

d)

XAXa

e)

XaXa

154.

Assuming a trait is X-LINKED RECESSIVE, what are the genotypes of an UNAFFECTED person?

a)

XAY

b)

XaY

c)

XAXA

d)

XAXa

e)

XaXa

155.

The genotype XaY represents a ________

a)

dominant male

b)

recessive male

c)

dominant female

d)

recessive female

156.

The genotype XAXa represents a ________

a)

dominant male

b)

recessive male

c)

dominant female

d)

recessive female

157.

Assuming a trait is X-LINKED RECESSIVE, a person with the genotype "XaY" would be ____

a)

affected

b)

unaffected

158.

Assuming a trait is X-LINKED RECESSIVE, a person with the genotype "XAXa" would be ____

a)

affected

b)

unaffected

159.

A population of rabbits grows rapidly from one year to the next. Then one year, a disease strikes approximately one fourth of the adult rabbits. The disease remains with the population in the years that follow.

As explained by Darwin’s theory, which of these conditions allows the rabbit population to evolve by natural selection?

a)

The disease affects adult and juvenile rabbits equally.

b)

The disease reduces the ability of the rabbits to reproduce.

c)

Some rabbits are resistant to the disease, and they pass the resistance to their offspring.

d)

No rabbits are resistant to the disease, and all die when the disease strikes them.

160.

Which of the following is a situation that could cause evolutionary change that is NOT due to natural selection?

a)

A volcano erupts and kills many individuals in a population.

b)

A mutation produces sea stars that are less visible to predators.

c)

An insecticide is sprayed in a community to combat mosquitoes.

d)

Cattle are treated with antibiotics to prevent the spread of infections.

161.

The graphs below show the changes in crab color at one beach.

Which of the following is most likely to have caused the change in the distribution?

a)

A new predator arrived that preferred dark-tan crabs.

b)

A new predator arrived that preferred light-tan crabs.

c)

A change in beach color made medium-tan crabs the least visible to predators.

d)

A change in beach color made medium-tan crabs the most visible to predators.

162.

What is the process where animals live or die based on their adaptations to their environment.

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Natural Selection

c)

The Circle of Life

d)

Mammoth

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