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Worksheets

Human Biology Final Exam Review

Total questions: 157

Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of life?

a)

All living things are made of cells

b)

All living things evolve as a group over time

c)

All living things have a genetic code

d)

All living things must reproduce sexually

2.

Adaptations develop in response to

a)

an immediate stimulus

b)

a long-term stimulus

c)

threatening situations only

d)

helpful situations only

3.

How many characteristics of life must an organism possess to be considered living?

a)

One of them

b)

Half of them

c)

Three fourths of them

d)

All of them

4.

Humans must maintain a constant intern state called

a)

adaptation

b)

homeostasis

c)

stimulus

d)

reproduction

5.

Which level of organization can be considered a living organism?

a)

atom

b)

molecule/compound

c)

organelle

d)

cell

6.

Which is the proper cellular levels of organization from smallest to largest?

a)

cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

b)

tissue, organ, organ system, cell, organism

c)

organ, organ system, tissue, cell, organism

d)

organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cell

7.

A group of different tissues working together is defined as

a)

a cell

b)

an organ

c)

an organ system

d)

an organism

8.

The small, specialized structures within cells are called

a)

organelles

b)

organ systems

c)

organ

d)

tissue

9.

Which cell is responsible for transporting oxygen to body cells?

a)

red blood cells

b)

epithelial cells

c)

neurons

d)

white blood cells

10.

Sex cells are known by all of the following terms EXCEPT

a)

Gametes

b)

Germ cells

c)

Sperm and egg cells

d)

Secretory cells

11.

Which cells are responsible for transducing sound waves into signals received by the brain?

a)

hair cells

b)

epithelial cells

c)

germ cells

d)

white blood cells

12.

Neurons are cells that

a)

send and receive electrical signals

b)

carry oxygen throughout the body

c)

fight foreign invaders

d)

remove dirt and debris from the lungs

13.

Which body system is responsible for the exchange of gases?

a)

respiratory

b)

urinary

c)

digestive

d)

nervous

14.

Which two systems work closely together to allow for support, structure, and movement?

a)

skeletal and muscular

b)

lymphatic and digestive

c)

endocrine and immune

d)

skeletal and respiratory

15.

This system provides a protective barrier around the body as well as lines internal body cavities

a)

integumentary

b)

lymphatic

c)

reproductive

d)

nervous

16.

This system is responsible for the breakdown of food and absorption of nutrients

a)

digestive

b)

urinary

c)

respiratory

d)

muscular

17.

Communicable diseases are caused by

a)

viruses

b)

bacteria

c)

fungi

d)

protozoans

e)

all of the above

18.

The smallest of all the pathogens are

a)

viruses

b)

bacteria

c)

fungi

d)

protozoans

19.

These pathogens are single-celled but larger than bacteria

a)

protozoans

b)

viruses

c)

prions

d)

toxins

20.

All of the following pathogens are considered living organisms EXCEPT

a)

bacteria

b)

viruses

c)

fungi

d)

protozoans

21.

Select the choice that is an example of indirect contact with an infected person.

a)

A sick person sneezing in the direction of another person

b)

Shaking hands with a sick person

c)

A nurse touching an open wound of a patient

d)

Sexual contact between two individuals

22.

If a disease is transmitted from infected animal to human, it is most likely transmitted by

a)

bites

b)

scratches

c)

ingesting tainted meat

d)

blood

23.

True or False: Some pathogens occur naturally in foods, soil, and water while others are transmitted to these sources by sick individuals.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Pathogens found on objects outside of the body

a)

always survive without their host.

b)

cannot be picked up by other humans.

c)

can enter the body through an open wound.

d)

cannot be spread by sources such as doorknobs and needles.

25.

True or False: The common cold can be effectively treated with antibiotics.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which infectious disease is caused by a fungal infection?

a)

Athlete's foot

b)

AIDS

c)

Influenza

d)

Small Pox

27.

This deadly viruses leaves its survivors badly scarred from the disease's blisters.

a)

Strep throat

b)

HIV

c)

Influenza

d)

Small pox

28.

This disease is sexually transmitted and can be effectively treated with antibiotics

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

Strep throat

c)

Small Pox

d)

Rhinovirus

29.

Antibiotics are used to treat

a)

bacterial infections

b)

viral infections

c)

prion infections

30.

One way that antibiotics work is to

a)

Inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall

b)

Disrupt the cell membrane

c)

Inhibit protein synthesis

d)

All of the above

31.

Vaccines could contain all of the following EXCEPT

a)

dead pathogens

b)

live, full-strength viruses

c)

live, weakened viruses

d)

parts of a virus

32.

True or False: Vaccines are known to cause autism.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which method works by using the body's immune system to create antibodies against specific diseases?

a)

vaccines

b)

antibiotics

c)

antimicrobials

d)

chemotherapy

34.

The process by which the brain organizes and interprets sensory information is known as

a)

Sensation

b)

perception

c)

Absolute Threshold

d)

Critical Period

35.

These cells convert physical energy in the environment into electrical impulses that travel through the nervous system

a)

Sense Receptors

b)

Perception Receptors

c)

Epidermal Cells

d)

White Blood Cells

36.

Which of the following is that absolute threshold for hearing?

a)

The tick of a watch from 20 feet in total quiet

b)

1 drop of perfume in a 6-room apartment

c)

The wing of a bee on your cheek, dropped from 1 cm

d)

1 teaspoon of sugar in 2 gallons water

37.

One drop of perfume in a large apartment is the absolute threshold for which sense?

a)

Taste

b)

Smell

c)

Taste

d)

hearing

38.

A sensory response is reduced or disappears after prolonged exposure to a stimulus. This is known as

a)

adaptation

b)

deprivation

c)

threshold

d)

sensation

39.

In the image above, you will see a door from three separate angles. Even though the shape of the door does not appear to be a rectangle from all of the vantage points, you still know that the shape of the door is always a rectangle. This is known as

a)

shape detection

b)

feature shapes

c)

shape constancy

d)

shape definition

40.

In the illusion below, the interior lines appear to be different lengths. In reality, they are exactly the same length. This illusion is known as the

a)

Ponzo Illusion

b)

Ebaugh Illusion

c)

Muller-Lyer Illusion

d)

Hawking Illusion

41.

The distinguishing quality of a sound that relates to its complexity is known as

a)

loudness

b)

intensity

c)

timbre

d)

pitch

42.

TRUE OR FALSE: Adults like stronger tastes than children because adults have more tastebuds.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which of the following is NOT a basic type of taste?

a)

salty

b)

Umami

c)

sour

d)

spicy

44.

When you inhale scent particles,

a)

they bind to receptors in your nasal cavity.

b)

they travel to receptors in your lungs.

c)

the particles themselves travel into your brain.

d)

the particles enter your bloodstream and circulate throughout

45.

Due to various conditions such as phantom limb symdrome, some people feel pain even without the stimulation of sensory nerve signals. The fact that this can occur shows support for

a)

the Neuromatrix Theory of Pain

b)

the Gate-Control Theory of Pain

c)

the Transmission Theory of Pain

d)

the Chemosensory Theory of Pain

46.

Exposure to sensory information in the early years of life is essential to the normal development of the senses and language. This time frame is known as

a)

the critical period

b)

the optimal window

c)

the essential period

d)

the essential period

47.

In the words below, parts of the letters cannot be seen. However, you are still able to interpret the word as "READ." Your brain is able to do this because of

a)

context effects

b)

syllabic recall

c)

extrasensory perception

d)

word replacement

48.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic functions of the nervous system?

a)

Sensory functions

b)

Integrative functions

c)

Motor functions

d)

Excretory functions

49.

Which of the following correctly lists the structures of the Central Nervous System?

a)

Brain and spinal cord

b)

Brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

c)

Spinal cord and peripheral nerves

d)

Brain and peripheral nerves

50.

Neurons that relay sensory information TO the spinal cord and brain are called

a)

Afferent neurons

b)

Efferent neurons

c)

Motor neurons

d)

Stationary neurons

51.

Which neuronal structure carries electrical impulses away from the cell body to communicate with other cells?

a)

Axon

b)

Soma

c)

Dendrites

d)

Myelin

52.

What is the name of the fatty insulation that surrounds the axon?

a)

myelin

b)

Soma

c)

nodes

d)

nissl bodies

53.

Which type of cell forms the myelin sheath in the Central Nervous System?

a)

Oligiodendrocytes

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Microglia

d)

Ependymal cells

54.

Which brain region is that largest and most developed in the human brain?

a)

Cerebrum/Cerebral Cortex

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brain stem

d)

Spinal cord

55.

Which part of the peripheral nervous system is involved in the fight or flight stress response?

a)

somatic nervous system

b)

sympathetic nervous system

c)

parasympathetic nervous system

d)

central nervous system

56.

Which function does the endocrine system regulate?

a)

Growth and development

b)

Salt, sugar, and water levels

c)

Appetite

d)

All of the above

57.

Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?

a)

thymus

b)

pituitary

c)

adrenal

d)

stomach

58.

Most commonly, the messengers of the endocrine system are

a)

Hormones

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

DNA molecules

d)

RNA molecules

59.

Which gland regulates calcium levels and usage in the body?

a)

parathyroids

b)

thyroid

c)

pineal

d)

pancreas

60.

Which is the "master gland" of the endocrine system?

a)

pituitary gland

b)

thyroid

c)

adrenal gland

d)

testes

61.

TRUE or FALSE: Hormones will only act on specific cells that possess receptors for them.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

The regulation of blood sugar by insulin is an example of

a)

negative feedback

b)

positive feedback

63.

Which hormone is released by the adrenal gland during dangerous situations?

a)

adrenaline

b)

thyroxine

c)

testosterone

d)

estrogen

64.

This male sex hormone acts to stimulate sexual development as well as the production of muscles and body hair.

a)

testosterone

b)

estrogen

c)

thyroxine

65.

Which of the following is NOT a structure of the cardiovasacular system?

a)

Heart

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

d)

Larynx

66.

Which of the following about the heart is true?

a)

It is slightly to the right of the body's midline

b)

It is a spherical organ

c)

It is about the size of a loose fist

d)

It lies below the sixth rib

67.

Which of the following is NOT one of the heart wall layers?

a)

Epicardium

b)

Myocardium

c)

Endocardium

d)

Pericardium

68.

How many chambers does the human heart have?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

69.

What are the two sounds that the heart makes?

a)

Lubb and Dubb

b)

Lubb and Nubb

c)

Lol and Dubb

d)

Lubb and Dang

70.

Which structures connect the arterioles to the venules?

a)

Capillaries

b)

Arteries

c)

Veins

d)

Heart

71.

Which blood component should make up the largest percentage of a normal human's blood stream?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

White blood cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

72.

Which of the following is NOT a disease of the cardiovascular system?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Emphysema

73.

Interstitial tissue fluid that enters lymph vessels is known as

a)

lymph

b)

cerebrospinal fluid

c)

blood

d)

plasma

74.

Which is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

a)

Reabsorption of excess fluids

b)

Transport of dietary lipids

c)

Lymphocyte development

d)

Transport of sensory information

75.

The small intestine contains specialized lymphatic capillaries for the transportation of dietary lipids. These capillaries are known as

a)

lacteals

b)

nodes

c)

channels

d)

cavities

76.

Lymphatic capillaries are comprised of a single layer of ______________ cells.

a)

endothelial

b)

lymphocyte

c)

leukocyte

d)

macrophage

77.

Milky colored lymph that carries lipids is called

a)

chyle

b)

bile

c)

blood

d)

thyme

78.

Which duct drains lymph from the majority of the body?

a)

thoracic duct

b)

right lymphatic duct

c)

left lymphatic duct

d)

supralymphatic duct

79.

Which is NOT an organ of the lymphatic system?

a)

Thymus

b)

Red bone marrow

c)

Spleen

d)

Lymph nodes

e)

All choices are organs of the lymphatic system

80.

TRUE or FALSE: All lymph nodes are located just below the surface of the skin.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

81.

This lymphatic organ filters the blood to recycle old cells and detect pathogens.

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Thymus

d)

Red bone marrow

82.

This lymphatic organ is much larger (in relation to body size) in a developing fetus than an adult.

a)

Thymus

b)

Spleen

c)

Lymph node

d)

Bone marrow

83.

This disorder is characterized by an infection and inflammation of the lymph vessels.

a)

lymphangitis

b)

lymphadema

c)

lymphoma

d)

tonsillitis

84.

Cancer of the lymphocytes or lymphatic tissues is known as

a)

lymphoma

b)

lymphadema

c)

filariasis

d)

chyle

85.

The function of the tonsils is to

a)

filter and attack antigens

b)

tonsils do not have a function

c)

make new red blood cells

d)

transport oxygen to tissues

86.

Which is NOT true about lymph nodes?

a)

They can occur in clusters

b)

They can occur individually

c)

They are located along lymph vessels

d)

They are 50-75 millimeters in size

87.

The lymphatic system is a drainage system most associated with

a)

the venous system

b)

the arterial system

c)

the nervous system

d)

the integumentary system

88.

Which is NOT a type of lymphatic cell?

a)

macrophages

b)

dendritic cells

c)

lymphocytes

d)

erythrocytes

89.

The function of the digestive system is to

a)

breakdown large pieces of food into usable monomers

b)

circulate blood throughout the body

c)

collect excess fluid and monitor the body for infections

d)

send electrical impulse to orchestrate movement

90.

Digestion begins in which body structure?

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Large Intestine

d)

Small intestine

91.

Which of the following is an accessory structure to the digestive system?

a)

Stomach

b)

Pancreas

c)

Heart

d)

Spleen

92.

Which is the correct order for the passage of food during digestion?

a)

mouth - pharynx - esophagus - stomach - small intestine - large intestine - rectum - anus

b)

mouth - pharynx - stomach - esophagus - small intestine - large intestine - anus

c)

mouth - pharynx - esophagus - stomach - large intestine - small intestine - rectum - anus

d)

mouth - pharynx - stomach - esophagus - small intestine - large intestine - rectum - anus

93.

Which enzyme starts carbohydrate digestion?

a)

Amylase

b)

Pepsin

c)

Sodium Bicarbonate

d)

Lysozyme

94.

Smooth muscle contractions that move food through the digestive track are called

a)

peristalsis

b)

peritoneum

c)

pericardium

d)

periodic table

95.

What is the term for a chewed clump of food mixed with saliva?

a)

bolus

b)

rompus

c)

chyle

d)

bile

96.

Digestion in this structure utilizes enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

a)

Duodenum

b)

Stomach

c)

Large intestine

d)

Ileum

97.

These small finger-like structures in the jejunum and ileum increase surface area for maximum nutrient absorption.

a)

Villi

b)

Bile

c)

Macrophages

d)

Virions

98.

What does bile do?

a)

It digests carbohydrates

b)

It dissolves fat

c)

It acidifies the stomach

d)

It neutralizes the intestine

99.

Which system maintains homeostasis and eliminates metabolic wastes?

a)

Urinary/Excretory System

b)

Nervous System

c)

Reproductive System

d)

Integumentary System

100.

Which structure is NOT part of the urinary system?

a)

Kidney

b)

Ureter

c)

Bladder

d)

Pancreas

101.

Kidneys are comprised of small functional units called

a)

nephrons

b)

uerons

c)

ultrons

d)

gall bladders

102.

The tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder is called the

a)

ureter

b)

urethra

c)

hepatic portal vein

d)

synaptic vein

103.

This saclike organ stores urine and swells as it fills.

a)

bladder

b)

kidney

c)

stomach

d)

nephron

104.

Dialysis is a treatment for

a)

kidney stones

b)

kidney failure

c)

urinary tract infections

d)

dysuria

105.

Kidneys remove this waste product of protein metabolism from the blood

a)

urea

b)

bile

c)

lyme

d)

chyle

106.

TRUE or FALSE: Salt can be excreted through the skin.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Which of the following is NOT an essential nutrient?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Protein

c)

Alcohol

d)

Fat

108.

Which of the following is a source of simple carbohydrates?

a)

Fruit

b)

Oatmeal

c)

Legumes

d)

Rice

109.

The two types of fiber are

a)

soluble and insoluble

b)

active and inactive

c)

saturated and unsaturated

d)

lean and fatty

110.

What does fiber do for the body?

a)

Aids in digestion

b)

Promotes digestive regularity

c)

Reduces the risk of heart disease and diabetes

d)

All of the these choices

111.

Which of the following does NOT provide the body with energy?

a)

Protein

b)

Fat

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Minerals

112.

There are ____ amino acids, but ______ cannot be made by the body.

a)

20, 9

b)

20, 11

c)

11, 9

d)

9, 11

113.

What term refers to proteins that contain all of the essential amino acids?

a)

Complete protein

b)

Incomplete protein

c)

Essential protein

d)

Saturated protein

114.

Saturated fats are ________ fats, and are _________ at room temperature.

a)

unhealthy, solid

b)

unhealthy, liquid

c)

healthy, solid

d)

healthy, liquid

115.

Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Folic Acid

d)

Vitamin D

116.

This vitamin aids in night vision and skin health.

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

B Complex

d)

Vitamin D

117.

This vitamin is needed for blood to clot properly.

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin E

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin B12

118.

Which of the following is found in high amounts in processed foods such as Stove Top Stuffing and Ramen noodles?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Zinc

d)

Phosphorus

119.

A deficiency in this mineral leads to anemia.

a)

Iron

b)

Lead

c)

Copper

d)

Sodium

120.

Which of the following is considered a "crash" or "fad" diet?

a)

Cabbage soup diet

b)

Kosher diet

c)

Kangatarian diet

d)

DASH diet

121.

All of the following are considered medical diets EXCEPT

a)

DASH

b)

Elimination

c)

Gluten-free

d)

Intermittent fasting

122.

TRUE or FALSE: The purpose of all diets is to lose weight.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

At what age do erections begin in males?

a)

Infancy

b)

Age 11-13

c)

Age 14-16

d)

Age 18

124.

This sterilization method in males involves severing the vas deferens.

a)

vasectomy

b)

tubal ligation

c)

castration

d)

menstruuation

125.

This structure produces sperm and testosterone in males.

a)

testicle

b)

epididyms

c)

scrotum

d)

penis

126.

What are the smallest cells in the human body?

a)

sperm cells

b)

egg cells

c)

skin cells

d)

brain cells

127.

The purpose of this structure is to mature the sperm.

a)

Cowper's Gland

b)

Seminal Vesicle

c)

Testicle

d)

Epididymis

128.

The structure(s) that nourish the sperm and allow them to move is/are

a)

seminal vesicles

b)

Cowper's gland

c)

Prostate gland

d)

Urethra

129.

Which structure secretes an alkaline fluid that helps the neutralize the acidic vaginal pH?

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Testicle

c)

Seminal Vesicles

d)

Bladder

130.

This procedures involves an incision in the perineum to enlarge the vagina during childbirth. It is not longer a routine procedure.

a)

Episiotomy

b)

Tubal ligation

c)

Dilation and curettage

d)

Hysterectomy

131.

The structure that stores the ova in a a female is called the

a)

ovary

b)

fallopian tube

c)

uterus

d)

vagina

132.

This structure must dilate to 10cm during childbirth to allow the baby pass into the birth canal.

a)

cervix

b)

uterus

c)

vagina

d)

urethra

133.

The average menstrual/reproductive cycle is how long?

a)

28 days

b)

14 days

c)

7 days

d)

12 days

134.

When a developing organisms implants into the uterus, it is in the form of

a)

a zygote

b)

a blasotcyst

c)

a fetus

d)

an egg

135.

What does the placenta do for the fetus?

a)

Delivers oxygen and nutrients

b)

Removes waste

c)

Secretes hormones

d)

All of these choices are correct

136.

Which of the following is NOT a change that mothers should typically expect during pregnancy?

a)

Enlargement of the uterus

b)

Heartburn

c)

Increased respiration

d)

Decreased blood volume

137.

During childbirth, uterine contractions put pressure on the cervix, which signals the pituary to release

a)

oxytocin

b)

adrenaline

c)

estrogen

d)

progesterone

138.

During childbirth, when is the placenta delivered?

a)

After the baby is delivered

b)

Before the baby is delivered

c)

As the baby is delivered

d)

Never--it is broken down by the body

139.

Which of the following is a type of genetic disorder?

a)

Autosomal single gene disorders

b)

Autosomal multiple gene disorders

c)

Sex linked disorders

d)

All of these choices are correct

140.

MOST autosomal genetic disorders are caused by

a)

recessive alleles

b)

dominant alleles

c)

codominant alleles

d)

incompletely dominant alleles

141.

The most common genetic disorder among Caucasians is

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Huntington's disease

d)

Hemophilia

142.

Which genetic disorder is caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for an ion protein pump?

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Red-green colorblindness

c)

Sickle Cell Anemia

d)

Down syndrome

143.

Difficulty breathing, persistent respiratory system infections, and malnutrition are symptoms of

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Huntington's disease

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Hemophilia

144.

A mutation on chromosome 11 leads to malformed hemoglobin in this genetic disorder.

a)

Sickle Cell Anemia

b)

Huntington's Disease

c)

Red-green Colorblindness

d)

Down syndrome

145.

Symptoms of sickle cell anemia include

a)

Fatigue, dizziness, and chronic pain

b)

Uncontrollable bruising and bleeding

c)

Intellectual disabilities

d)

Inability to distinguish between certain colors

146.

Which term describes the fact that carriers for diseases such an sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis are better able to survive over non-carriers under certain circumstances?

a)

Heterozygote advantage

b)

Homozygote advantage

c)

Genetic carrying advantage

d)

Luck-of-the-draw advantage

147.

Which genetic disorder is caused by a dominant allele?

a)

Huntington's disease

b)

Colorblindness

c)

Hemophilia

d)

Sickle Cell Disease

148.

Symptoms for Huntington's disease typically appear by age ____, and death usually occurs within ____ years after the onset of symptoms.

a)

40; 20

b)

60; 15

c)

20; 40

d)

30; 15

149.

Which disease is believed to be influenced by many, rather than one, gene?

a)

Heart disease

b)

Hemophilia

c)

Colorblindness

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia

150.

Sex-linked disorders are almost always caused be genes on the

a)

X-chromosome

b)

Y-chromosome

c)

Autosomes

151.

This disorder is caused by a mutation in clotting factor VII and is characterized by uncontrollable bleeding.

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Huntington's Disease

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

152.

TRUE/FALSE: Individuals that are colorblind usually only see in black and white.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

The error in which chromosomes fail to separate evenly during meiosis is called

a)

nondisjunction

b)

gene mutation

c)

deletion

d)

insertion

154.

Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) can be caused by nondisjunction or

a)

translocation

b)

gene mutation

c)

deletion

d)

inversion

155.

What is the earliest date that chorionic villus sampling can be carried out during pregnancy?

a)

Week 6

b)

Week 9

c)

Week 12

d)

Week 16

156.

This procedure involves removing amniotic fluid to test fetal cells for potential abnormalities.

a)

Chorionic villus sampling

b)

Amniocentesis

c)

Karyotype

d)

Preimplantation genetic diagnosis

157.

This procedure uses high frequency sound waves to create a computer-generated image of a developing fetus.

a)

Ultrasonography

b)

Karyotyping

c)

Spectroscopy

d)

Chorionic villus sampling