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AP Biology Exam Review

Total questions: 158

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of DNA

a)

and phospholipids

b)

only

c)

and proteins

d)

and RNA

2.

A flask containing photosynthetic green algae and a control flask containing water with no algae are both placed under a bank of lights, which are set to cycle between 12 hours of light and 12 hours of dark. The dissolved oxygen concentrations in both flasks are monitored. Predict what the relative dissolved oxygen concentrations will be in the flask with algae compared to the control flask.

a)

the dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will always be higher

b)

the dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will always be lower

c)

the dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will be higher in the light, but the same in the dark

d)

the dissolved oxygen in the flask with algae will be higher in the light, but lower in the dark

3.

in photosynthetic cells, synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during...

a)

photosynthesis only

b)

respiration only

c)

both photosynthesis and respiration

d)

neither photosynthesis nor respiration

4.

Which of the following represents the difference between the free-energy content of the reactants and the free-energy content of the products in Figure 6.4?

a)

b

b)

d

c)

c

d)

e

e)

a

5.

Which of the following represents the activation energy required for a noncatalyzed reaction in Figure 6.4?

a)

c

b)

e

c)

a

d)

b

e)

d

6.

Which of the following terms best describes the forward reaction in Figure 6.4?

a)

chemical equilibrium, G=0

b)

exergonic, G<0

c)

exergonic, G>0

d)

endergonic, G<0

e)

endergonic, G>0

7.

Which of the following represents the activation energy required for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction in Figure 6.4?

a)

d

b)

e

c)

a

d)

c

e)

b

8.

Which of the following represents the ΔG of the reaction in Figure 6.4?

a)

d

b)

e

c)

c

d)

b

e)

a

9.

A beaker contains 100 mL of NaOH solution at pH = 13. A technician carefully pours into the beaker 10 mL of HCl at pH = 1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the results of this mixing?

a)

the concentration of Cl- ion will be 0.1 M

b)

the pH of the beaker's contents will be neutral

c)

the concentration of Na+ ion will rise

d)

the pH of the beaker's contents will decrease

10.

What compound provides the reducing power for the Calvin cycle reactions?

a)

ATP

b)

NAD+

c)

NADH

d)

NADPH

11.

In the thylakoid membranes, what is the main role of the pigment molecules in a light-harvesting complex?

a)

split water and release oxygen to the reaction-center chlorophyll

b)

transfer light energy to the reaction-center chlorophyll

c)

synthesize ATP from ADP and Pi

d)

transfer electrons to ferredoxin and then NADPH

12.

What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?

a)

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of protons between atoms

b)

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms

c)

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms

d)

Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms

13.

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

a)

C3O6H3

b)

C18H36O18

c)

C6H10O5

d)

C18H32O16

14.

Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by..

a)

both donating H+ to a solution when bases are added and accepting H+ when acids are added

b)

releasing H+ to a solution when acids are added

c)

releasing OH- to a solution when bases are added

d)

donating H+ to a solution when bases are added

15.

The tertiary structure of a protein is the...

a)

bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds

b)

order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain

c)

unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide

d)

organization of a polypeptide chain into an α helix or β pleated sheet

16.

G1 is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?

a)

I or V

b)

V only

c)

III only

d)

IV only

17.

MPF reaches its threshold concentration at the end of this stage.

a)

V

b)

IV

c)

I

d)

III

18.

Which number represents DNA synthesis?

a)

IV

b)

II

c)

I

d)

V

19.

Which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are replicated?

a)

IV

b)

V

c)

II

d)

III

20.

In Figure 9.3, mitosis is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?

a)

IV

b)

V

c)

II

d)

III

21.

At which of the numbered regions would you expect to find cells at metaphase?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

22.

Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15 M NaCl. Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45 M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater?

a)

NaCl will be exported from the red blood cells by facilitated diffusion

b)

The blood cells will take up water, swell, and eventually burst

c)

Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse

d)

NaCl will passively diffuse into the red blood cells

23.

CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they..

a)

fix CO2 into organic acids during the night

b)

fix CO2 into sugars in the bundle-sheath cells

c)

fix CO2 into pyruvate in the mesophyll cells

d)

use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes rubisco for CO2

24.

If you examine side A after three days, you should find...

a)

a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level

b)

a decrease in the concentration of NaCl, an increase in water level, and no change in the concentration of glucose

c)

no net change in the system

d)

a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and a decrease in the water level

25.

At the beginning of the experiment, side A...

a)

is hypertonic to side B

b)

is hypotonic to side B

c)

is isotonic to side B

d)

is hypertonic to side B with respect to glucose

26.

Which of the following triggers the cell's passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis?

a)

protein kinase

b)

cyclin

c)

cdk

d)

MPF

27.

Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle?

a)

CO2 and glucose

b)

H2O and O2

c)

ADP, Pi, and NADP+

d)

ATP and NADPH

28.

Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation?

a)

the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

b)

the citric acid cycle

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

d)

glycolysis

29.

When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of...

a)

reducing NADP+

b)

splitting water molecules

c)

chemisosmosis

d)

the electron transfer system of photosystem I

30.

If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

d)

80

31.

In alcohol fermentation, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH by...

a)

reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (ethyl alcohol)

b)

oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

c)

reduction of pyruvate to form lactate

d)

oxidation of ethanol to acetyl CoA

32.

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 35S, which of these molecules will be labeled?

a)

phospholipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

both proteins and nucleic acids

33.

Which of the following is true for anabolic pathways?

a)

They do not depend on enzymes

b)

They are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions

c)

They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers

d)

They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers

34.

The movement of water across biological membranes can best be predicted by...

a)

prevailing weather conditions

b)

level of active transport

c)

water potentials

d)

aquaporins

35.

The element present in all organic molecules is...

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon

d)

nitrogen

36.

Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature?

a)

water's change in density when it condenses

b)

the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds

c)

water's ability to dissolve molecules in the air

d)

the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds

37.

The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation is the...

a)

oxidation of glucose and other organic compounds

b)

flow of electrons down the electron transport chain

c)

affinity of oxygen for electrons

d)

H+ movement down its concentration gradient

38.

Based on the figure given below, which of these experimental treatments would increase the rate of sucrose transport into the cell?

a)

decreasing extracellular sucrose concentration

b)

decreasing extracellular pH

c)

decreasing cytoplasmic pH

d)

adding an inhibitor that blocks regeneration of ATP

39.

In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in...

a)

cells with more than one nucleus

b)

cells that are unusually small

c)

cells lacking nuclei

d)

destruction of chromosomes

40.

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

a)

condensation of the chromosomes

b)

replication of the DNA

c)

separation of sister chromatids

d)

spindle formation

41.

When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of mitochondria, which of the following changes occurs?

a)

the pH of the matrix increases

b)

ATP synthase pumps protons by active transport

c)

the electrons gain free energy

d)

the cytochromes phosphorylate ADP to form ATP

42.

Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?

a)

chloroplast

b)

ribosome

c)

mitochondrion

d)

nuclear envelope

43.

The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is...

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

NAD+

d)

pyruvate

44.

Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment?

a)

the control group is kept in an unchanging environment

b)

the control is left alone by the experimenters

c)

only the experimental group is tested or measured

d)

the control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several

45.

According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis, which of the following is correct?

a)

the binding of the substrate depends on the shape of the active site

b)

The active site creates a microenvironment ideal for the reaction

c)

Some enzymes change their structure when activators bind to the enzyme

d)

The binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzyme's active site

46.

A carbon atom is most likely to form which of the following bonds with other atoms?

a)

ionic bond

b)

hydrogen bond

c)

covalent bond

d)

covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds

47.

Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?

a)

catabolism

b)

catalysis

c)

metabolism

d)

dehydration

48.

A chemical reaction that has a positive ΔG is best described as...

a)

spontaneous

b)

entropic

c)

exergonic

d)

endergonic

49.

Which of the following normally occurs regardless of whether or not oxygen (O2) is present?

a)

glycolysis

b)

fermentation

c)

oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA

d)

citric acid cycle

50.

Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?

a)

M

b)

S

c)

G1

d)

G2

51.

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?

a)

both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds

b)

both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds

c)

polar covalent bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

52.

The direct energy source that drives ATP synthesis during respiratory oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotic cells is...

a)

oxidation of glucose to CO2 and water

b)

the thermodynamically favorable flow of electrons from NADH to the mitochondrial electron transport carriers

c)

the final transfer of electrons to oxygen

d)

the proton-motive force across the inner mitochondrial membrane

53.

Which line in the graph represents the bag that contained a solution isotonic to the 0.6 M solution at the beginning of the experiment?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

54.

Which line or lines in the graph represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at 50 minutes?

a)

A and B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

B

55.

Which line in the graph represents the bag with the highest initial concentration of sucrose?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

56.

Which component is the peripheral protein?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

57.

Which component is cholesterol?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

58.

Which component is the fiber of the extracellular matrix?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

59.

Which component is a microfilament of the cytoskeleton?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

60.

Which component is a glycolipid?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

61.

An open beaker of pure water has a water potential (Ψ) of...

a)

+0.07 MPa

b)

-0.23 MPa

c)

0.0 (zero)

d)

+0.23 MPa

62.

The reactions that produce molecular oxygen (O2) take place in...

a)

the light reactions alone

b)

the Calvin cycle alone

c)

both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle

d)

neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle

63.

Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following?

a)

As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to produce control factors

b)

As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the adjoining cells and they stop dividing

c)

As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with each other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those produced by its neighbor

d)

As cells become more numerous, more and more of them enter the S phase of the cell cycle

64.

Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group?

a)

amino

b)

carboxyl

c)

carbonyl

d)

hyrdoxyl

65.

At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?

a)

telophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

prophase

66.

After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed?

a)

the water level is higher in side A than side B

b)

the water level is higher in side B than side A

c)

the water level is unchanged

d)

the molarity of sucrose is higher than that of glucose on side A

67.

Initially, in terms of tonicity, the solution in side A with respect to that in side B is...

a)

hypotonic

b)

plasmolyzed

c)

isotonic

d)

hypertonic

68.

Which of the following are directly associated with photosystem I?

a)

harvesting of light energy by ATP

b)

receiving electrons from the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain

c)

generation of molecular oxygen

d)

extraction of hydrogen ions from the splitting of water

69.

Two atoms appear to have the same mass number. These atoms...

a)

must have the same atomic number, the same number of protons + neutrons, the same number of electrons, and the same chemical properties

b)

must have the same number of protons + neutrons

c)

must have the same atomic number

d)

must have the same chemical properties

70.

The MPF protein complex turns itself off by...

a)

activating an enzyme that stimulates cyclin

b)

activating the anaphase-promoting complex

c)

exiting the cell

d)

activating a process that destroys cyclin components

71.

Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved?

a)

It produces much less ATP than does oxidative phosphorylation

b)

It does not involve organelles or specialized structures, does not require oxygen, and is present in most organisms

c)

It is found in prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells

d)

It relies on chemiosmosis, which is a metabolic mechanism present only in the first cells' prokaryotic cells

72.

Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids?

a)

they are the principal molecules in lard and butter

b)

they are usually produced by plants

c)

they are usually liquid at room temperature

d)

they have double bonds between the carbon atoms of the fatty acids

73.

Which temperature and pH profile curves on the graphs were most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach, where conditions are strongly acid?

a)

curves 1 and 4

b)

curves 3 and 4

c)

curves 2 and 4

d)

curves 1 and 5

74.

Which curve(s) on the graphs may represent the temperature and pH profiles of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in a mildly alkaline hot springs at temperatures of 70°C or higher?

a)

curves 3 and 4

b)

curves 1 and 5

c)

curves 3 and 5

d)

curves 2 and 5

75.

Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following?

a)

competitive inhibition

b)

denaturation of the enzyme

c)

saturation of the enzyme activity

d)

allosteric inihibition

76.

What is a cleavage furrow?

a)

a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei

b)

the separation of divided prokaryotes

c)

the metaphase plate where chromosomes attach to the spindle

d)

the space that is created between two chromatids during anaphase

77.

Suppose the interior of the thylakoids of isolated chloroplasts were made acidic and then transferred in the dark to a pH 8 solution. What would be likely to happen?

a)

The isolated chloroplasts will make ATP

b)

The Calvin cycle will be activated

c)

Cyclic photophosphorylation will occur

d)

The isolated chloroplasts will generate oxygen gas

78.

What is the correct chromosomal condition for one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

79.

Where is ATP synthase located in the mitochondrion?

a)

cytosol

b)

electron transport chain

c)

outer membrane

d)

inner membrane

80.

Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?

a)

the muscle contractions of a person mowing grass

b)

water rushing over Niagara falls

c)

light flashes emitted by a firefly

d)

a molecule of glucose

81.

When a cell is in late anaphase of mitosis, which of the following will we see?

a)

a clear area in the middle of the cell

b)

chromosomes clustered at the poles

c)

individual chromatids beginning to separate from one another

d)

chromosomes clustered tightly at the center

82.

The value for Ψ in root tissue was found to be -0.15 MPa. If you take the root tissue and place it in a 0.1 M solution of sucrose (Ψ = -0.23 MPa), the net water flow would...

a)

be in both directions and the concentrations would remain equal

b)

occur only as ATP was hyrdolyzed in the tissue

c)

be impossible to determine from the values given here

d)

be from the tissue into the sucrose solution

83.

A gardener is concerned that her greenhouse is getting too hot from too much light, and seeks to shade her plants with colored translucent plastic sheets, the color of which allows passage of only that wavelength. What color should she use to reduce overall light energy, but still maximize plant growth?

a)

green

b)

blue

c)

yellow

d)

orange

84.

What wavelengths of light should be used to maximize plant growth with a minimum of energy expenditure?

a)

full-spectrum white light

b)

green light

c)

a mixture of blue and red light

d)

yellow light

85.

Halobacterium has a photosynthetic membrane that appears purple. Its photosynthetic action spectrum is the inverse of the action spectrum for green plants. (That is, the Halobacterium action spectrum has a peak where the green plant action spectrum has a trough.) What wavelengths of light do the Halobacterium photosynthetic pigments absorb?

a)

red and yellow

b)

blue, green, and red

c)

green and yellow

d)

red and green

86.

What wavelength of light in Figure 8.1 is most effective in driving photosynthesis?

a)

420 mm

b)

475 mm

c)

575 mm

d)

625 mm

87.

Figure 8.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different?

a)

green and yellow wavelengths inhibit the absorption of red and blue wavelengths

b)

bright sunlight destroys photosynthetic pigments

c)

oxygen given off during photosynthesi interferes with the absorption of light

d)

other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a

88.

How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction?

a)

by decreasing the activation energy of the reaction

b)

by acting as a coenzyme for the reaction

c)

by changing the shape of the enzyme's active site

d)

by binding at the active site of the enzyme

89.

All of the following contain amino acids except...

a)

antibodies

b)

insulin

c)

cholesterol

d)

enzymes

90.

What did Engelmann conclude about the congregation of bacteria in the red and blue areas?

a)

Bacteria released excess carbon dioxide in these areas

b)

Bacteria congregated in these areas due to an increase in the temperature of the red and blue light

c)

Bacteria congregated in these areas because these areas had the most oxygen being released

d)

Bacteria are attracted to red and blue light and thus these wavelengths are more reactive than other wavelengths

91.

If you ran the same experiment without passing light through a prism, what would you predict?

a)

There would be no difference in results

b)

The bacteria would be relatively evenly distributed along the algal filaments

c)

The number of bacteria present would decrease due to an increase in the carbon dioxide concentration

d)

The number of bacteria present would increase due to an increase in the carbon dioxide concentration

92.

An outcome of this experiment was to help determine the relationship between...

a)

heterotrophic and autotrophic organisms

b)

wavelengths of light and the rate of aerobic respiration

c)

wavelengths of light and the amount of heat released

d)

wavelengths of light and the rate of photosynthesis

93.

Even though plants carry on photosynthesis, plant cells still use their mitochondria for oxidation of pyruvate. When and where will this occur?

a)

in photosynthetic cells in the light, while photosynthesis occurs concurrently

b)

in nonphotosynthesizing cells only

c)

in cells that are storing glucose only

d)

in all cells all the time

94.

Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?

a)

energy cannot be created or destroyed

b)

the entropy of the universe is decreasing

c)

the entropy of the universe is constant

d)

kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter

95.

During glycolysis, when each molecule of glucose is catabolized to two molecules of pyruvate, most of the potential energy contained in glucose is...

a)

transferred to ADP, forming ATP

b)

transferred directly to ATP

c)

retained in the two pyruvates

d)

stored in the NADH produced

96.

Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?

a)

Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that, when hydrolyzed, releases free energy

b)

Its terminal phosphate bond has higher energy than the other two

c)

It is one of the four building blocks for DNA synthesis

d)

It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions

97.

In Figure 6.2, why does the reaction rate plateau at higher reactant concentrations?

a)

Feedback inhibition by product occurs at high reactant concentrations

b)

Most enzyme molecules are occupied by substrate at high reactant concentrations

c)

The reaction nears equilibrium at high reactant concentrations

d)

The activation energy for the reaction increases with reactant concentration

98.

For the enzyme-catalyzed reaction shown in Figure 6.2, which of these treatments will cause the greatest increase in the rate of the reaction, if the initial reactant concentration is 1.0 micromolar?

a)

doubling the activation energy needed

b)

cooling the reaction by 10°C

c)

doubling the concentration of the reactants to 2.0 micromolar

d)

doubling the enzyme concentration

99.

A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are being absorbed by this pigment?

a)

red and yellow

b)

blue and violet

c)

green and yellow

d)

blue, green, and red

100.

Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?

a)

The products have more total energy than the reactants

b)

the reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy

c)

The reaction goes only in a forward direction: all reactants will be converted to products, but no products will be converted to reactants.

d)

A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed

101.

In cellular respiration, the energy for most ATP synthesis is supplied by...

a)

high-energy phosphate bonds in organic molecules

b)

a proton gradient across a membrane

c)

converting oxygen to ATP

d)

transferring electrons from organic molecules to pyruvate

102.

Cells from advanced malignant tumors often have very abnormal chromosomes as well as an abnormal number of chromosomes. What might explain the association between malignant tumors and chromosomal abnormalities?

a)

transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells

b)

cell cycle checkpoints are not in place to stop cells with chromosomal abnormalities

c)

cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent

d)

cancer cells are no longer density dependent

103.

What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?

a)

use ATP to release carbon dioxide

b)

use NADPH to release carbon dioxide

c)

split water and release oxygen

d)

synthesize simple sugars from carbon dioxide

104.

Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?

a)

The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, i, and NADP+ to the light reactions

b)

The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle, and the cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions

c)

The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO2 to produce sugars, and the Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP

d)

The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for electron flow, and the Calvin cycle provides the light reactions with water to split

105.

Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. In animal cells, which of the following organelles contains these hydrolytic enzymes?

a)

central vacuole

b)

peroxisome

c)

chloroplast

d)

lysosome

106.

Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor?

a)

enhanced anchorage dependence

b)

changes in the order of cell cycle stages

c)

lack of appropriate cell death

d)

inability to form spindles

107.

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing?

a)

monosaccharide/polysaccharide

b)

amino acid/protein

c)

triglyceride/phospholipid bilayer

d)

deoxyribonucleotide/DNA

108.

All cell cycle checkpoints are similar in which way?

a)

they respond to the same cyclins

b)

they utilize the same cdks

c)

they give the go-ahead signal to progress to the next checkpoint

d)

they each have only one cyclin/cdk complex

109.

How might an amino acid change at a site distant from the active site of the enzyme alter the enzyme's substrate specificity?

a)

by changing the enzyme's stability

b)

an amino acid change away from the active site cannot alter the enzyme's substrate specificity

c)

by changing the enzyme's pH optimum

d)

by changing the shape of the protein

110.

How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

8

111.

How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 11 monomers long?

a)

12

b)

11

c)

10

d)

9

e)

8

112.

The NADPH required for the Calvin cycle comes from...

a)

reactions initiated in photosystem 1

b)

reactions initiated in photosystem 2

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

glycolysis

113.

Where are the molecules of the electron transport chain found in plant cells?

a)

thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts

b)

stroma of chloroplasts

c)

outer membrane of mitochondria

d)

matrix of mitochondria

114.

Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?

a)

They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture

b)

When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle

c)

They are not subject to cell cycle controls

d)

When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle; they are not subject to cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.

115.

Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true?

a)

Enzymes make the rate of a reaction independent of substrate concentrations

b)

Enzymes change the equilibrium point of the reactions they catalyze

c)

Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by lowering the activation energy barrier

d)

Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by reducing the rate of reverse reactions

116.

Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent?

a)

electron transport

b)

glycolysis

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

oxidative phosphorylation

117.

A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from..

a)

nearly any eukaryotic organism

b)

an animal, but not a plant

c)

bacterium

d)

any multicellular organism, such as a plant or an animal

118.

In any ecosystem, terrestrial or aquatic, which of the following are always necessary?

a)

autotrophs and heterotrophs

b)

producers and primary consumers

c)

photosynthesizers

d)

autotrophs

119.

What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules?

a)

anabolic pathways

b)

catabolic pathways

c)

fermentation pathways

d)

thermodynamic pathways

120.

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called...

a)

ATPases

b)

kinetochores

c)

kinases

d)

cyclins

121.

What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

a)

disulfide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes

b)

twisting of the molecule to form an α helix

c)

three-component structure of the nucleotides

d)

complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases

122.

During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill in which sequence?

a)

food--->citric acid cycle--->ATP--->NAD+

b)

food--->NADH--->electron transport chain--->oxygen

c)

glucose--->pyruvate--->ATP--->oxygen

d)

glucose--->ATP--->electron transport chain--->NADH

123.

In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?

a)

thylakoid membrane only

b)

plasma membrane only

c)

inner mitochondrial membrane only

d)

thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane

124.

The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in what process or event?

a)

glycolysis

b)

accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA

125.

A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a...

a)

nucleic acid

b)

carbohydrate

c)

protein

d)

fatty acid

126.

If ΨP = 0.3 MPa and ΨS = -0.45 MPa, the resulting Ψ is...

a)

-0.15 MPa

b)

+0.15 MPa

c)

-0.75 MPa

d)

+0.75 MPa

127.

According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following is a true statement about membrane phospholipids?

a)

they have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane

b)

they are free to depart from the membrane and dissolve in the surrounding solution

c)

they can move laterally along the plane of the membrane

d)

thye occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane

128.

Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires cyclin to become catalytically active?

a)

PDGF

b)

Cdk

c)

protein kinase

d)

cyclin

129.

What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?

a)

disulfide bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond

c)

hydrophobic interactions

d)

hydrogen bonds between the R groups

130.

Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?

a)

as a pentose

b)

as a hexose

c)

as a disaccharide

d)

as a polysaccharide

131.

All of the following are polysaccharides except...

a)

lactose

b)

glycogen

c)

chitlin

d)

cellulose

132.

Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's...

a)

free-energy content

b)

entropy

c)

equilibrium point

d)

activation energy

133.

Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?

a)

ketone and methyl

b)

hydroxyl and carboxyl

c)

carboxyl and amino

d)

amino and sulfhydryl

134.

Which of the following is not a polymer?

a)

glucose

b)

starch

c)

cellulose

d)

DNA

135.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

a)

stroma of the chloroplast

b)

thylakoid membrane

c)

cytoplasm surrounding the chloroplast

d)

interior of the thylakoid (thylakoid space)

136.

Where does glycolysis take place in eukaryotic cells?

a)

mitochondrial matrix

b)

mitochondrial inner membrane

c)

mitochondrial outer membrane

d)

cytosol

137.

The active site of an enzyme is the region that...

a)

is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme

b)

binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme

c)

binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme

d)

is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor

138.

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G2?

a)

8;8

b)

8;16

c)

16;8

d)

16;16

139.

In order for a protein to be an integral membrane protein it would have to be...

a)

amphipathic, with at least one hydrophobic region

b)

hydrophobic

c)

completely covered with phospholipids

d)

hydrophilic

140.

Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

141.

If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

d)

80

142.

What is produced if a cell divides by mitosis but does not undergo cytokinesis?

a)

two cells, one cell containing two nuclei and a second cell without a nucleus

b)

two cells, each cell with half of the genetic material of the parent cell

c)

one cell with one nucleus containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell

d)

one cell with two nuclei, each identical to the nucleus of the parent cell

143.

Humans produce skin cells by mitosis and gametes by meiosis. The nuclei of skin cells produced by mitosis will have...

a)

half as much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis

b)

the same amount of DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis

c)

twice as much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis

d)

four times as much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis

144.

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents...

a)

nuclear envelope breakdown

b)

cell wall formation

c)

elongation of microtubules

d)

shortening of microtubules

145.

During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?

a)

telophase

b)

anaphase

c)

prophase

d)

metaphase

146.

A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation of the spindle. Which of the following would result if colchicine is added to a sample of cells in G2?

a)

the cells would immediately die

b)

the cells would be unable to begin M and stay in G2

c)

the chromosomes would coil and shorten but have no spindle to which to attach

d)

the chromosomes would segregate but ina disorderly pattern

147.

Which is the first checkpoint in the cell cycle where a cell will be caused to exit the cycle if this point is not passed?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

148.

Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex?

a)

PDGF

b)

MPF

c)

protein kinase

d)

cyclin

149.

The cyclin component of MPF is destroyed toward the end of which phase?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

M

150.

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called...

a)

ATPases

b)

kinetochores

c)

kinases

d)

cyclins

151.

Which of the following describes cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?

a)

Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin

b)

Cdk is present thoughout the cell cycle

c)

Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins

d)

Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle and is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins

152.

All cell cycle checkpoints are similar in which way?

a)

they respond to the same cyclins

b)

they give the go-ahead signal to progress to the next checkpoint

c)

they each have only one cyclin/Cdk complex

d)

they activate or inactivate other proteins

153.

You have a series of cells, all of which were derived from tumors, and you first need to find out which ones are malignant. What could you do?

a)

see which ones are not overproliferating

b)

find out which ones have a higher rate of apoptosis

c)

karyotype samples to look for unusual size and number of chromosomes

d)

time their cell cycles

154.

Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely...

a)

an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis

b)

a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis

c)

an animal cell in the S phase of the cell cycle

d)

a plant cell in metaphase

155.

Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells?

a)

proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections

b)

proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division

c)

proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk"

d)

cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age

156.

Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes?

a)

their normal function is to suppress tumor growth

b)

they are introduced to a cell initially by retroviruses

c)

they are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances

d)

they can code for proteins associated with cell growth

157.

Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene?

a)

it is an activator for other genes

b)

it speeds up the cell cycle

c)

it causes cell death via apoptosis

d)

it allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage

158.

Tumor-suppressor genes...

a)

are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells

b)

are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses

c)

can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion

d)

often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle

e)

do all of the above