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Anatomy & Physiology Semester 1 Final Exam Study Guide

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 4hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Anatomy refers to the physical _______________ of the body.
a)
appearance
b)
size
c)
abilities
d)
structures
2.
Which division of anatomy is concerned with those structures in the body large enough to be seen with the naked eye?
a)
Microscopic
b)
Surface
c)
Gross
d)
Systemic
3.
Which of the following is the highest level of structural organization?
a)
Organism
b)
Organ System
c)
Organ
d)
Tissue
4.
Which level of structural organization includes atoms and molecules?
a)
Organ
b)
Tissue
c)
Cellular
d)
Chemical
5.
A group of organs that cooperate to perform a common function form a/an
a)
Organism
b)
Organ System
c)
Tissue
d)
Organelle
6.
The process of breaking down food into simple molecules.
a)
Growth
b)
Digestion
c)
Metabolism
d)
Movement
7.
The ability to sense changes in the environment and react to them.
a)
Sensitivity
b)
Maintaining Boundaries
c)
Metabolism
d)
Growth
8.
The body’s tendency to maintain a stable internal environment.
a)
Normalcy
b)
Homeostasis
c)
Stimulus
d)
Response
9.
Which two body systems are chiefly responsible for maintaining homeostasis?
a)
Nervous and Endocrine
b)
Nervous and Lymphatic
c)
Cardiovascular and Nervous
d)
Endocrine and Cardiovascular
10.
Childbirth is an example of negative feedback.
a)
True
b)
False
11.
The directional term for “toward the front”
a)
Supine
b)
Frontal
c)
Inferior
d)
Anterior
12.
Which body cavity contains the liver, stomach, and intestines?
a)
Thoracic
b)
Abdominal
c)
Pleural
d)
Digestive
13.
The region between the legs and the genitals
a)
Pelvic
b)
Coxal
c)
Pubic
d)
Inguinal
14.
Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of living organisms?
a)
Reproduction
b)
Movement
c)
Sensibility
d)
Growth
15.
An imaginary plane that divides the back and front halves of the body is the
a)
Frontal
b)
Oblique
c)
Transverse
d)
Saggital
16.
A side of beef is one half of a cow that has been cut down the middle, leaving equal left and right halves. What type of cut is used to cut the cow in half?
a)
Transverse
b)
Frontal
c)
Midsaggital
d)
Oblique
17.
Which of the following is found in the dorsal body cavity?
a)
Brain and spinal cord
b)
Heart and lungs
c)
Liver, stomach, and intestines
d)
Ovaries and uterus
18.
Which of the following is most distal to the heart?
a)
Fingers
b)
Lungs
c)
Neck
d)
Elbow
19.
A patient complains of plantar pain. Which of the following could be the cause of the pain?
a)
A hat that is too tight
b)
A cracked tooth
c)
A cough that has lasted for a week
d)
Shoes that don't fit properly
20.

The model is lying in the ________ Position.

a)

Anatomical

b)

Supine

c)

Prone

d)

Fetal

21.

Which region of the body is facing upward?

a)

Gluteal

b)

Dorsal

c)

Ventral

d)

Lumbar

22.

The image shows three different views of the

a)

Anatomical Position.

b)

Supine Position.

c)

Fetal Position.

d)

Prone Position.

23.

Which of the following regions is not visible in the center picture above?

a)

Gluteal

b)

Dorsal

c)

Acromial

d)

Mental

24.

Which of the following regions is most superior in image above?

a)

carpal

b)

tarsal

c)

frontal

d)

inguinal

25.
Which of the following is not one of the seven characteristics of living organisms?
a)
Movement
b)
Respiration
c)
Adaptation
d)
Reproduction
26.
Small molecules can pass through an animal cell's phospholipid membrane, yet larger ones are not able to pass through. Since the membrane selects some molecules to pass through and restricts others, it is referred to as __________.
a)
non-permeable
b)
bilayered
c)
impervious
d)
selectively permeable
27.
There is a practical limit to the size cells can grow. This limitation is a direct function of the cell's __________, which affects how many nutrients can enter the cell.
a)
location within the organismsurface area
b)
surface area
c)
function within the organism
d)
structure itself
28.
The process in which substances enter the cell without expending energy is called __________.
a)
passive transport
b)
active transport
c)
exocytosis
d)
endocytosis
29.
The sites where the cell makes proteins based on genetic instructions are called __________.
a)
vacuoles
b)
centrioles
c)
ribosomes
d)
lysosomes
30.
A cell's __________ acts as a selective barrier that regulates the chemical composition of a cell.
a)
vacuole
b)
nucleus
c)
mitochondria
d)
plasma membrane
31.
In isotonic environments, water flows
a)
from inside the cell to the environment.
b)
from the environment into the cell.
c)
inside and outside the cell at equal rates.
d)
from the cytoplasm to the cell membrane.
32.
Which component of the cell membrane functions to actively transport molecules into the cell?
a)
phospholipid
b)
carbohydrate
c)
cytoplasm
d)
protein
33.

The image above shows salamander skin cells as viewed under a microscope. The activity occurring inside the rectangle BEST supports which scientific theory?

a)

cell theory

b)

gene theory

c)

germ theory

d)

endosymbiotic theory

34.

Which phase of mitosis is represented in the diagram?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

35.
This organelle contains DNA which it uses to direct all functions within the cell.
a)
lysosome
b)
mitochondrion
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
36.
Which of the following is directly involved in the transportation of materials within the cell?
a)
endoplasmic reticulum
b)
mitochondrion
c)
ribosome
d)
nucleus
37.
This organelle modifies, packages, and "ships" proteins.
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
golgi apparatus
38.
When a phagocyte forms a vesicle around a pathogenic bacterium, this organelle secretes digestive enzymes that break the bacterium down into its base molecules.
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
golgi apparatus
d)
nucleolus
39.
Which of the following is not an example of genetic material found in the nucleus?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
DNA
c)
RNA
d)
chromatin
40.

Which phase of the cell cycle is shown in A?

a)

interphase

b)

anaphase

c)

telophase

d)

cytokinesis

41.

Which phase of the cell cycle is shown in F?

a)

metaphase

b)

telophase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

G1

42.
During this phase of mitosis, the nuclear envelope disappears and chromosomes condense.
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
43.

What is A?

a)

mitochondria

b)

centriole

c)

ribosome

d)

golgi apparatus

44.

What is B?

a)

plasma membrane

b)

nuclear membrane

c)

microtubule

d)

golgi apparatus

45.

What is C?

a)

plasma membrane

b)

nuclear membrane

c)

microtubule

d)

golgi apparatus

46.

What is D?

a)

plasma membrane

b)

nuclear membrane

c)

centriole

d)

golgi apparatus

47.

What is E?

a)

plasma membrane

b)

nuclear membrane

c)

microfilament

d)

microtubule

48.

What is F?

a)

lysosome

b)

vacuole

c)

vesicle

d)

nucleolus

49.

What is G?

a)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

cytoplasm

50.

What is H?

a)

nucleus

b)

plasma membrane

c)

cytoplasm

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

51.

What is I?

a)

lysosome

b)

vacuole

c)

vesicle

d)

nucleolus

52.

What is J?

a)

golgi apparatus

b)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

cytoplasm

53.

What is K?

a)

nucleus

b)

nucleolus

c)

DNA

d)

cytoplasm

54.

What is L?

a)

nucleus

b)

nucleolus

c)

DNA

d)

cytoplasm

55.

What is M?

a)

nucleus

b)

nucleolus

c)

DNA

d)

cytoplasm

56.

What is N?

a)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

cytoplasm

57.

What is O?

a)

ribosomes

b)

lysosomes

c)

vacuoles

d)

vesicles

58.

What is P?

a)

ribosome

b)

lysosome

c)

vacuole

d)

vesicle

59.

The diagrams above are in order from the simplest unit to the most complex unit. Which diagram represents a tissue?

a)

#1

b)

#2

c)

#3

d)

#4

60.
Which of the following best describes a tissue?
a)
A tissue is a collection of different kinds of organs that together perform a specialized job.
b)
A tissue is a collection of different kinds of cells that together perform a specialized job.
c)
A tissue is a collection of different kinds of muscles that together perform a specialized job.
d)
A tissue is a collection of different kinds of systems that together perform a specialized job.
61.
Which of the following makes up nervous tissue?
a)
organs
b)
organisms
c)
cells
d)
systems
62.
What are the three types of muscle tissue?
a)
squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
b)
dense, loose, and striated
c)
skeletal, smooth, and connective
d)
skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
63.
Which of the following tissue types covers surfaces and lines the insides of hollow organs?
a)
nervous
b)
muscle
c)
epithelial
d)
connective
64.
This muscle type is anchored by tendons and allows for movement of joints and limbs.
a)
cardiac
b)
skeletal
c)
connective
d)
smooth
65.
Which connective tissue gives structure to the ears and nose?
a)
hyaline cartilage
b)
skeletal cartilage
c)
elastic cartilage
d)
fibrocartilage
66.
The brain and spinal cord are made up of this tissue which transmits electrical impulses throughout the body.
a)
nervous
b)
connective
c)
neurologic
d)
transmission
67.
Which of these is not a connective tissue?
a)
cartilage
b)
skin
c)
bone
d)
blood
68.
Bones are connected to other bones by _______________.
a)
tendons
b)
cartilage
c)
ligaments
d)
adipose tissue
69.
Which type of the following epithelial tissues contains only one layer of cells?
a)
stratified columnar epithelium
b)
simple cuboidal epithelium
c)
pseudostratified cuboidal epithelium
d)
sumosquamous stratithelium
e)
70.
While viewing a section of mammalian uterus under the microscope, a student finds cells that are long, thin, and ciliated on one end. The student identifies them as which type of cell?
a)
columnar epithelial
b)
skeletal muscle
c)
neuron
d)
adipose
71.

The image above shows which type of tissue?

a)

loose connective

b)

stratified squamous epithelium

c)

smooth muscle

d)

adipose

72.

Which tissue type is shown in the image above?

a)

epithelial

b)

nervous

c)

muscle

d)

connective

73.
Which muscle tissue can be controlled voluntarily.
a)
skeletal and smooth
b)
smooth and cardiac
c)
skeletal only
d)
smooth only
74.

The tissue pictured above would be found in which of the following organ systems?

a)

muscular

b)

digestive

c)

cardiovascular

d)

skeletal

75.
Which of the following does not describe cardiac muscle tissue?
a)
contains intercalated discs
b)
made up of branching muscle cells
c)
attached to bones by tendons
d)
movements cannot be controlled voluntarily
76.

Identify this tissue.

a)

columnar epithelium

b)

loose connective

c)

skeletal muscle

d)

cartilage

77.
Which type of tissue covers the ends of bone in the joints?
a)
fibrocartilage
b)
dense cartilage
c)
elastic cartilage
d)
hyaline cartilage
78.
Neuroglia and neurons are cells that make up which of the following tissue types?
a)
cartilage
b)
dense connective tissue
c)
nervous tissue
d)
epithelial tissue
79.
Areolar tissue is what type of tissue
a)
loose connective tissue
b)
fibrous cartilage
c)
dense connective tissue
d)
blood
80.
Which tissue insulates, stores energy, and is found in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
a)
adipose
b)
blood
c)
nervous
d)
simple squamous
81.
The largest organ in the body is the
a)
small intestine
b)
brain
c)
liver
d)
skin
82.
The outermost layer of skin is the
a)
surface.
b)
epidermis.
c)
dermis.
d)
hypodermis.
83.
Some people experience ashy skin. What causes ashy skin?
a)
an excess of sebum
b)
melanocytes
c)
dead skin cells
d)
high humidity
e)
84.
What is the name of the tiny grains of pigment that give skin and hair their color?
a)
keratin
b)
melanin
c)
protein
d)
collagen
85.
People living in tropical latitudes where UV radiation is most intense tend to have ____________ skin.
a)
light
b)
dark
c)
thick
d)
thin
86.
Which of the following is a function of hair?
a)
protection from UV radiation
b)
sensation
c)
insulation
d)
all of these are functions of hair
87.
Hairs grow from follicles found in the _____________ of the skin.
a)
epidermis
b)
dermis
c)
hypodermis
d)
basement layer
88.
Arrector pili are
a)
hairs found on the body.
b)
glands that secrete skin oils.
c)
specialized cells that fight against infection.
d)
smooth muscles attached to hair follicles that contract to raise hairs when it’s cold.
89.

What structure is shown in A?

a)

canaliculi

b)

Volkmann's canal

c)

Haversian canal

d)

lamellae

90.

Structure B is a ___________.

a)

canaliculi

b)

Volkmann's canal

c)

Haversian canal

d)

lamellae

91.
__________ are mature bone cells enclosed in tiny chambers called ____________.
a)
Osteocytes, lacunae
b)
Osteocytes, lamellae
c)
Osteoblasts, canaliculi
d)
Lacunae, spongy bone
92.
Volkmann’s and Haversian canals provide passageways for all of the following except
a)
veins
b)
arteries
c)
nerves
d)
sensory receptors
93.
Which of the following protects the brain?
a)
cranium
b)
clavicle
c)
scapula
d)
spine
94.
Which of the following protects the heart?
a)
cranium
b)
rib cage
c)
pelvis
d)
femur
95.
How does the circulatory system depend on the skeletal system?
a)
The skeletal system produces blood cells for the circulatory system.
b)
The skeletal system delivers oxygen to the circulatory system.
c)
The skeletal system allows blood to move through the circulatory system.
d)
The skeletal system removes wastes from the circulatory system.
96.

The bone pictured is a(n)

a)

flat bone

b)

short bone

c)

long bone

d)

irregular bone

97.

A is the

a)

proximal epiphysis.

b)

distal epiphysis.

c)

periosteum.

d)

medullary cavity.

98.

E is the

a)

proximal epiphysis.

b)

distal epiphysis.

c)

periosteum.

d)

medullary cavity.

99.

F adds strength to the bone.

a)

epiphysis

b)

spongy bone

c)

compact bone

d)

periosteum

100.

Assuming that the bone pictured is a femur, A articulates with which of the following bones?

a)

scapula

b)

coxal

c)

coccyx

d)

sternum

101.

The rib cage is part of the

a)

spinal column.

b)

thoracic spine.

c)

appendicular skeleton.

d)

axial skeleton.

102.
The appendicular skeleton includes the
a)
brain and spinal column.
b)
rib cage, arms, and legs.
c)
arms, legs, and pelvic girdle.
d)
spine and rib cage.
103.
There are 300 bone in an infant skeleton, but only ______ in an adult skeleton.
a)
202
b)
204
c)
206
d)
208
104.

D is much larger than it appears in this view.

a)

sphenoid

b)

zygomatic

c)

temporal

d)

parietal

105.

G represents one of a pair of bones that form part of the cranium, which protects the brain.

a)

temporal

b)

frontal

c)

occipital

d)

parietal

106.

Without F, you would find eating very difficult.

a)

stapes

b)

mandible

c)

maxilla

d)

nasal

107.

Slamming B against the wall is a very bad way to relieve stress.

a)

parietal

b)

temporal

c)

frontal

d)

occipital

108.

The size of L can be used to determine the sex of a skeleton.

a)

mastoid process

b)

zygomatic arch

c)

vomer

d)

lambdoid suture

109.
Where would you find the coronal suture?
a)
between the temporal and occipital
b)
between the frontal and occipital
c)
between the occipital and parietal
d)
between the frontal and parietal
110.
The _________ are the bones of the wrist, the ___________ are the bones of the ankle.
a)
tarsals, metacarpals
b)
carpals, tarsals
c)
metacarpals, metatarsals
d)
tarsals, carpals
e)
A. B. C. D.
111.
True or false: The bones of the fingers and toes have the same name, despite being in different locations
a)
True
b)
False
112.
The ______________ is the heel bone.
a)
talus
b)
navicular
c)
calcaneus
d)
fibula
113.
It only takes 5-7 pounds of force to break this bone, also known as the collar bone.
a)
clavicle
b)
scapula
c)
sternum
d)
hyoid
114.
The proper name for the shoulder blade is the __________.
a)
spatula
b)
scapula
c)
skapula
d)
schapula
115.
This type of fracture is characterized by bone protruding through the skin.
a)
greenstick
b)
multiple
c)
comminuted
d)
open
116.
This condition is cause by increased activity of osteoclasts, causing bones to break down and become fragile.
a)
osteoporosis
b)
Rickets
c)
scoliosis
d)
arthritis
117.
Scoliosis refers to
a)
ossification of soft tissue.
b)
abnormal curvature of the spine.
c)
fusing of vertebrae due to severe arthritis.
d)
soft bones due to Vitamin D deficiency.
e)
A. B. C. D.
118.
The ___________ leads to the thumb, while the ___________ leads to the pinky.
a)
radius, fibula
b)
tibia, ulna
c)
radius, ulna
d)
ulna, radius
e)
A. B. C. D.
119.

What chemical helps to regenerate ATP?

a)

creatine phosphat

b)

acetylcholine

c)

cholinesterase

d)

troponin

120.

Skeletal muscles are responsible for moving _____________.

a)

blood

b)

food in the digestive tract

c)

bones

d)

hair follicles

121.

Muscle fibers are made of individual fibers (not filaments) called _________________.

a)

sarcomeres

b)

I bands

c)

endomysium

d)

myofibrils

122.

This connective tissue surrounds the fascicles.

a)

epimysium

b)

perimysium

c)

endomysium

d)

sarcomysium

123.

Poisons such as botulism that prevent the release of acetylcholine cause muscles to

a)

contract non-stop.

b)

disintegrate.

c)

spasm uncontrollably.

d)

lose the ability to contract.

124.

___________ muscle can be controlled voluntarily.

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Smooth

d)

Reticulated

125.

This muscle type is found in the organs of the digestive system.

a)

skeletal

b)

smooth

c)

cardiac

d)

digestive

126.

Which of the following is the neurotransimitter associated with muscle contractions?

a)

glycine

b)

acetylcholine

c)

epinephrine

d)

adenosine

127.

What organelle provides the ATP needed for muscle activity?

a)

mitochondria

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

nucleus

128.

The gap between the nerve and the muscle is called the _____________.

a)

relapse

b)

sarcolemma

c)

cholinesterase

d)

synapse

129.

What is hypertrophy?

a)

enlarging or building up of muscles

b)

shrinking or weakening of muscles due to disuse

c)

a muscle's inability to contract after prolonged exercise or strain

d)

a sustained, involuntary contraction

130.

A person who has a disease that inhibits the production of cholinesterase would have what kind of symptoms?

a)

super strength

b)

extremely relaxed muscles

c)

muscles that contract without relaxing

d)

extreme muscle fatigue

131.

What is atrophy?

a)

enlarging or building up of muscles

b)

shrinking or weakening of muscles due to disuse

c)

a muscle's inability to contract after prolonged exercise or strain

d)

a sustained, involuntary contraction

132.

Cholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down ____________.

a)

troponin

b)

actin

c)

sarcolemma

d)

acetylcholine

133.

During a muscle contraction, cross-bridges form between what two structures?

a)

actin and myosin

b)

troponin and tropomyosin

c)

sarcomere and sarcolemma

d)

acetylcholine and cholinesterase

134.

In the sarcomere, the I band is made of ___________ and the A band is made of ____________.

a)

myosin, actin

b)

actin, myosin

c)

myosin, troponin

d)

actin, tropomyosin

135.

The dark and light bands give muscles a ___________ appearance.

a)

smooth

b)

striated

c)

rough

d)

paisley

136.

The muscle source for energy contraction is ___________.

a)

ATP

b)

protein

c)

glucose

d)

calcium

137.

Vesicles in the motor neuron store what substance?

a)

cholinesterase

b)

calcium

c)

ATP

d)

acetylcholine

138.

A sustained contraction of individual muscle fibers, even when the muscle is at rest, is known as ____________.

a)

atrophy

b)

muscle cramp

c)

muscle fatigue

d)

muscular distrophy

139.

When recruitment occurs, the number of motor units being activated

a)

increases.

b)

decreases.

c)

stays the same.

d)

is irrelevant.

140.

The immovable end of the muscle is the ___________.

a)

origin

b)

insertion

141.

The movable end of the muscle is the __________.

a)

origin

b)

insertion

142.

muscle fatigue is likely due to a buildup of ___________.

a)

tetanus

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

lactic acid

d)

cholinesterase

143.

The sarcomere is defined as the region between two ___________.

a)

A bands

b)

I bands

c)

H zones

d)

Z lines

144.

The condition where a body becomes stiff after death is called __________.

a)

rigor mortis

b)

tetanus

c)

atrophy

d)

myotonia

145.

When ATP has been used it becomes ___________.

a)

just plain old A

b)

NAD+

c)

ADP

d)

a nuisance

146.

What is a motor unit?

a)

a muscle fiber and a motor neuron

b)

a bundle of muscle fibers

c)

actin and myosin

d)

troponin and tropomyosin

147.

Myofibrils are composed of ___________.

a)

actin and troponin

b)

myosin and tropomyosin

c)

muscle fiber and motor neuron

d)

actin and myosin

148.

What type of tissue surrounds the entire muscle?

a)

fascia

b)

epimysin

c)

perimysin

d)

endomysin

149.

Tendons connect ______________ to _____________.

a)

ligaments, muscles

b)

muscles, bones

c)

muscles, organs

d)

bones, bones

150.

Bundles of muscle fibers are called ____________.

a)

myofilaments

b)

myofibrils

c)

sarcomeres

d)

fascicles

151.

The minimum amount of stimulus required for a muscle contraction to occur is the ___________.

a)

neuromuscular junction

b)

threshold stimulus

c)

recruitment

d)

all-or-nothing response

152.

What model explains how muscles contract?

a)

Rowboat Model

b)

Waterslide Model

c)

Sliding Filament Model

d)

Swinging Muscle Model

153.

The A bands are ___________, whereas the I bands are _________.

a)

heavy, light

b)

dark, light

c)

thin, thick

d)

thick, dark

154.

The muscle fiber membrane is called the ____________.

a)

sarcomere

b)

fascicle

c)

endomysin

d)

sarcolemma

155.

The transport network of the muscle is called the ___________.

a)

sarcolemmic reticulum

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

neuromuscular junction

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