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Biology Sem 2 Review 2023

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A ______________ is a large molecule.

a)

Micromolecule

b)

Polymer

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Macromolecule

2.

Which macromolecule is used as our main source of energy?

a)

Lipids/Fats

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

3.

Which of the following are examples of carbohydrates? (Select all that apply).

a)

Bread

b)

Pasta

c)

Olive Oil

d)

Cheese

4.

Which macromolecule stores energy?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids/Fats

d)

Nucleic Acids

5.

Nucleic acids make up which of the two molecules listed below?

a)

FDA

b)

RNA

c)

DNA

d)

FDR

6.

This is one job proteins do not have in the body.

a)

structure for tissues and organs

b)

transport things through cell membranes

c)

speed up chemical reactions

d)

insulation

7.

Salmon is an example of what 2 macromolecules?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids/Fats

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acids

8.

Match the following

a)
1.

carbohydrate

b)
2.

lipid

c)
3.

protein

9.

An enzyme is a ______________.

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

10.
What are the building blocks of proteins?
a)
amino acid
b)
fatty acid
c)
nucleotide
d)
lipid
11.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
12.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
13.
Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this called?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
14.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
15.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
16.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
17.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
18.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
19.
An enzyme speeds up a reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy.
b)
raising the activation energy.
c)
releasing energy.
d)
absorbing energy.
20.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

The enzymes die.

b)

The shape of the enzyme are changed and it denatures

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

The enzymes remain the same

21.

What organism(s) perform photosynthesis?

a)

primary consumers

b)

producers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

tertiary consumers

22.

What are the TWO inputs of photosynthesis?

a)

ATP

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose

d)

oxygen gas

e)

water

23.

What are the TWO outputs of photosynthesis?

a)

ATP

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose

d)

oxygen gas

e)

water

24.

What happens to the solar energy (sunlight) absorbed by the chloroplasts?

a)

It is converted into sunlight energy.

b)

It is transferred to glucose.

c)

It is stored in glucose.

d)

It is stored in the bonds of ATP.

25.

What organism(s) perform cellular respiration? Select ALL that apply.

a)

primary consumers

b)

producers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

tertiary consumers

26.

What are the TWO inputs of cellular respiration?

a)

ATP

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose

d)

oxygen gas

e)

water

27.

What are the THREE outputs of cellular respiration?

a)

ATP

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose

d)

oxygen gas

e)

water

28.

What happens to the energy stored in glucose?

a)

It is converted to solar energy.

b)

It is transferred to ATP.

c)

It turns into ATP.

d)

Nothing - It remains in glucose.

29.

Which option below is NOT a source of energy?

a)

water

b)

sunlight

c)

ATP

d)

glucose

30.

What happens to matter between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Matter is lost as heat to the environment.

b)

Matter is used by cells to perform daily processes.

c)

Matter is cycled between these processes.

d)

None of these are correct.

31.

Where do plants get the energy they need to perform photosynthesis?

a)

The soil

b)

The sun

c)

The rain

d)

Bees

32.

In which cell organelle does PHOTOSYNTHESIS take place?

a)

The chloroplast

b)

The mitochondria

c)

The cytoplasm

d)

The golgi apparatus

33.

In what organelle does the 2nd stage of cellular respiration take place in?

a)

chlorophyll

b)

chloroplast

c)

cytoplasm

d)

mitochondria

34.
What does it mean for something to be anaerobic?
a)
It requires CO2
b)
It does not require CO2
c)
It requires oxygen
d)
It does not require oxygen
35.
How can photosynthesis be related to cellular respiration?
a)
What's produced (made) by one is needed (the reactants) for the other
b)
They both produce the same products
c)
They both have the same reactants (need the same things)
d)
These 2 processes have nothing in common
36.

Which organelle is in this picture?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Ribosome

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Nucleus

37.

Which organelle is in this picture?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

38.
What is the function of ATP in living things?
a)
provides energy for cells
b)
stores genetic information
c)
provides structure in the nucleus
39.
What does the "TP" in ATP stand for?
a)
2 phosphates
b)
tri (3) phosphates
c)
Two proteins
d)
tri (3) proteins
40.
Where is the energy stored in ATP molecules
a)
In the Ribose Sugar
b)
In the Adenine group
c)
In the Phosphate bonds
d)
In the Bank
41.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
42.
Cytokinesis is a phase of mitosis. 
a)
True
b)
False 
43.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
44.

Cells of organisms must go through cell division for?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells.

d)

All of these

45.

DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.

a)

Gap 1

b)

Synthesis (S phase)

c)

Gap 2

d)

Gap 0

46.
What occurs during G1?
a)
Checkpoint after S phase
b)
Chromosomes line up at the equator.
c)
The cell grows and develops.
d)
Spindle fibers separate chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell. 
47.

In prophase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

48.

In metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

49.

In anaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

50.

In telophase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

51.

This process is the programmed death of a cell

a)

stem cell

b)

regulation

c)

apoptosis

d)

cytocide

52.

These undifferentiated cells can become specialized cells after receiving a chemical signal.

a)

stem cells

b)

generic cells

c)

blank cells

d)

empty cells

53.

When cells go through mitosis repeatedly without entering interphase, this results

a)

arthritis

b)

cancer

c)

mutation

d)

diabetes

54.

Which diagram, A or B, represents mitosis?

a)

A

b)

B

55.
Question Image

Label the parts of the cell cycle

a)

Gap 1

1.

B

b)

DNA Synthesis

2.

C

c)

Gap 2

3.

D

d)

Prophase

4.

E

e)

Metaphase

5.

F

56.

Stages of Mitosis

a)
1.

Metaphase

b)

All cell must have these instructions to work together

2.

Why must each new cell have a copy of the DNA that is identical to the original cell?

c)

DNA Synthesis

3.

During what stage of the cell cycle is this copy made?

57.

(A) the time in-between divisions (90% of the cell cycle)

a)

interphase

b)

mitotic phase

c)

mitosis

d)

cytokinesis

58.

(E) the time when the cell is going through cell division is known as:

a)

G1

b)

Interphase

c)

Mitotic Phase

d)

S

59.

(B) when the cell is growing and performing its metabolism (aka its job)

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

G3

d)

S

60.

Adenine pairs with

a)

Thymine

b)

Thyme

c)

Guanine

d)

Glutamine

61.

The backbone of DNA is made of

a)

base pairs

b)

sugars and phosphates

c)

only sugars

d)

only phosphates

62.

The two strands of DNA are held together with

a)

covalent bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

nothing

63.

If a DNA molecule has 30% Guanine bases, how many Cytosine bases will it have?

a)

30%

b)

25%

c)

20%

d)

10%

64.

One function of DNA is to

a)

code for proteins

b)

code for lipids

c)

code for carbohydrates

65.

The first step in DNA replication is

a)

to unwind and unzip the two strands

b)

to break the backbone in half so the sequence can be copies

c)

to attach new nucleotides

d)

to proof read the sequence

66.

Which is this picture showing?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

DNA replication

c)

Gene editing

67.

The DNA sequence is TTA CCG What is the complementary sequence?

a)

TTA CCG

b)

AAT GGC

c)

GGC AAT

68.

The backbone is held with covalent bonds so the

a)

sequence doesn't get out of order

b)

base pairs don't separate

69.

When DNA replicates what is separated?

a)

the backbone

b)

the base pairs

c)

the sequence of bases

d)

the sugar- phosphate bond

70.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
71.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains uracil
72.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
73.
Which of the following is a base that is NOT contained in DNA?
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Uracil
d)
Guanine
74.

The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in

a)

none of these

b)

Two DNA molecules.  One original molecule and one with two new strands

c)

two exact copies with new strands

d)

two DNA molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new.

75.

Why does DNA replicate?

a)

To create a duplicate copy in case the original gets damaged

b)

New cells will have a copy of the DNA

c)

To create a new copy to replace the damaged original

76.

Why is DNA important?

a)

it is very small and very complicated

b)

it's in everything

c)

it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things

d)

because we eat it every day for energy

77.

What is needed for DNA replication to unzip at the hydrogen bonds?

a)

phosphates

b)

enzymes

c)

deoxyribose (sugar)

d)

hydrogen

78.

What is a mutation?

a)

Adenine

b)

a change/mistake in DNA

c)

a copy of the original DNA

d)

Guanine

79.

What causes mutations?

a)

the environment

b)

random assortment

c)

chemicals

d)

independent assortment

80.

This is an example of -

THE DOG HID THE TOY (ORIGINAL)

THE DOH IDT HET OY? (NEW)

a)

addition

b)

substitution

c)

deletion

81.

This is an example of -

THE DOG HID THE TOY (ORIGINAL)

THE DOG SHI DTH ETO Y??

a)

addition

b)

deletion

c)

substitution

82.

This is an example of -

THE DOG HID THE TOY (ORIGINAL)

THE DOG HIM THE TOY (NEW)

a)

addition

b)

deletion

c)

substitution

83.

Frameshift mutations result from -

a)

additions

b)

substitutions

c)

deletions

d)

all of these

84.

Point mutations result from -

a)

none of these

b)

substitutions

c)

additions

d)

deletions

85.

Key players in DNA Replication are...

a)

enzymes

b)

sugars

c)

fats

d)

amino acids

86.

Match the following

a)

Helicase

1.

The unzipper

b)

Primase

2.

Tells where to start

c)

DNA Polymerase

3.

Builds the new strand

d)

Ligase

4.

Glues fragments together

87.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

88.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

89.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

90.

There are 3 types of RNA. What are they? (Select all that apply)

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

xRNA

91.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
92.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
93.
What is the product of translation?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
94.

The Process of creating RNA from DNA

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

95.

What is the order for Protein Synthesis?

a)

Transcription -> Translation -> Protein

b)

Translation - > Transcription -> Protein

c)

Protein -> Transcription -> Translation

d)

Translation -> Protein -> Transcription

96.
What is the product of transcription?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
97.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

98.

What type of mutation involves adding or deleting bases from the DNA, which results in new codons (a shift in the reading of the codons)?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

99.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC GAC TCG AAT

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation

d)

No mutation occurred

100.

What are considered "positive" mutations?

a)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and harms the organism

b)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and benefits the organism

c)

mutations in the DNA sequence that produces the same protein

d)

all mutations are considered bad and harm the organisms

101.

What are considered neutral mutations?

a)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and harms the organism

b)

mutations in the DNA sequence that changes the resulting protein and benefits the organism

c)

mutations in the DNA sequence that produces the same protein

d)

all mutations are considered bad and harm the organisms

102.

What phase of Meiosis is in this picture?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

103.

In which phase of Meiosis does crossing-over happen?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

104.

Which phase of meiosis is shown in the picture?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

105.

Which phase of meiosis does the picture on the left happen?

a)

prophase I

b)

prophase II

c)

metaphase I

d)

telophase II

106.

After meiosis II, which of the following is true about the cells that are produced?

a)

Four cells are produced. They are identical to each other and each contains half the number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

b)

Four cells are produced. Each is unique and contains half the number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

c)

Four cells are produced. Each is unique and contains the same number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

d)

Two cells are produced. Each is unique and contains the same number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

107.

What effect does crossing over has in terms of traits of offspring?

a)

Results in identical traits of offsprings.

b)

Causes variation in the traits of offsprings.

c)

It really does nothing to the traits of offspring.

108.

The four cells that are produced after Meiosis are _______.

a)

haploid because they contain just half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

b)

diploid because they contain as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

diploid because they contain twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

109.

What is the scientific term that refers to sex cells?

a)

autosome

b)

gamete

c)

karyotype

d)

chromosome

110.

This term refers to half the normal chromosome number

a)

haploid

b)

2N

c)

diploid

d)

3N

111.

The term that refers to a cell that has its full or complete number of chromosomes is

a)

diploid

b)

N

c)

gamete

d)

haplpoid

112.

By looking at the chromosomes is this individual biologically male or female? How do you know?

a)

Female, because they have two X chromosomes

b)

Male, because they have one X and one Y chromosome

113.

What is the mutation in this persons chromosomes?

a)

There is only one X

b)

7 is shaped like a hockey stick

c)

There's an extra 21

d)

1 is too curved

114.
The term for the different forms of a trait. 
a)
DNA
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Genes
d)
Alleles
115.
The trait that always shows. 
a)
Dominant 
b)
Recessive
c)
Hidden
d)
Overt
116.
The hidden trait.  You need two of these alleles for the trait to show.
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
c)
Hidden
d)
Overt
117.
The genetic makeup of a trait.  (The letters represent this)
a)
Genes
b)
Phenotype
c)
Genotype
d)
Characteristics
118.
If a trait is homozygous the letters are the 
a)
Same
b)
Different
119.
If you are homozygous recessive, the genotype would be 
a)
AA
b)
aa
c)
Aa
120.
If you are homozygous dominant, the genotype would be 
a)
AA
b)
aa
c)
Aa
121.
A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
122.

In snapdragons, flower color is an incompletely dominant trait. Which genotype will lead to a third blended phenotype?

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Homozygous recessive

123.

Red is incompletely dominant to white in snapdragons. Which cross would result in 100% pink flowers?

a)

RR x rr

b)

rr x rr

c)

Rr x Rr

d)

RR x RR

124.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
125.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together? 
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
126.

When one allele is not dominant over the other, resulting in both traits expressed in a heterozygous individual.....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

127.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross a red flower with a speckled flower. What is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

2 red, 2 speckled

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

2 blue, 2 speckled

128.

In cattle red coats are represented as RR, and white coats are represented as WW.


What is the genotype for Roan color?

a)

RR

b)

RW

c)

WW

129.
this image is an example of
a)
codominance
b)
dominance
c)
incomplete dominance
130.
Incomplete dominance or co-dominance?
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. 
a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Co-dominance

c)

Complete dominance

d)

Mendelian dominance

131.

A man with type O blood is accused of being the father of a type B baby. The mother is type A. Could this man be the father?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

132.

How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

The proteins expressed in each cell are different

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

d)

The genome of the different cells changes

133.
The process by which a cell becomes specialized for a specific structure or function.
a)
cell multiplication
b)
cell division
c)
mitosis
d)
cell differentiation
134.
Activation or deactivation of genes by environmental experiences throughout development
a)
turn on genes
b)
gene expression
c)
environmental factors
d)
gene markers
135.
The difference between DNA code and the epigenome is that the DNA code is
a)
flexible, while the epigenome is fixed for life
b)
fixed for life, while the epigenome is flexible
c)
determined by the environment, while the epigenome is not
d)
determined by one's stress level, while the epigenome is not
136.
At which stage in the lives of identical twins is the DNA code expected to be most similar?
a)
Age 6 months
b)
Age 21
c)
Age 55
d)
Trick question; the DNA code doesn't generally change
137.
At what stage in the life of identical twins is the epigenome expected to be most similar?
a)
Age 6 months
b)
Age 21
c)
Age 55
d)
Trick quesiton; the epigenome never changes
138.
Which factor can affect the epigenome?
a)
nutrition
b)
exercise
c)
stress 
d)
all of these factors can affect the epigenome
139.

Epigenetics refers to changes in:

a)

DNA sequence

b)

Gene structure

c)

Gene expression

d)

DNA frequency

140.

Every cell has a copy of every gene

a)

True

b)

False

141.

All genes are expressed in every cell

a)

True

b)

False

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7th Grade Final 2017

quiz

Worksheet

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7th - 12th Grade

PBS Midterm review

143 questions

PBS Midterm review

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 10th Grade

medical terminology

143 questions

medical terminology

quiz

Worksheet

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10th Grade

quizz de culture générale 3

146 questions

quizz de culture générale 3

quiz

Worksheet

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1st Grade - University

Metrics and Scientific Method Review Game (Biology - long version)

138 questions

Metrics and Scientific Method Review Game (Biology - long version)

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 12th Grade