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Worksheets

Thou Shall Not Forget

Total questions: 210

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When an electron is in a higher energy level, it is farther away from the nucleus and has less Coulombic attraction to the nucleus and is therefore easier to remove

a)

True

b)

False

2.

When reading a PES graph, the higher the peak, the less electrons there are in that sublevel, and a larger binding energy means that the electrons are closer to the nucleus.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons, but different numbers of electrons.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Cations (+) are smaller than their atoms since you are removing valence electrons that are farther from the nucleus and anions (−) are larger than their atoms since adding extra electrons increases electron-electron repulsions.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The greater the electronegativity difference between 2 atoms, the more polar the bond becomes.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

% error= (experimental - theoretical)/experimental

a)

True

b)

False

7.

T and V are indirectly related...If you heat a balloon, it will expand.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

One mole of an ideal gas = 22.4 Liters at any temperature or pressure

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Molar Mass = dRT/P

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Real gases behave most like an ideal gas at high temperature and at low pressure. The more polar a gas is and the larger a gas is, the more it will deviate from ideal behavior. Consequently, small, nonpolar gases are the _______ ideal.

a)

Most

b)

Least

11.

(−) ΔH; feels hot; heat is a product; temperature goes up

a)

Exothermic

b)

Endothermic

12.

Breaking bonds is endothermic. Forming bonds is exothermic.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

When calculating ΔH from chemical equations with known enthalpies, if you double reaction coefficients, what happens to the overall ΔH value?

a)

it doubles

b)

it is squared

c)

the sign changes

d)

nothing

14.

When calculating ΔH from chemical equations with known enthalpies, if you reverse the reaction, what happens to the overall ΔH value?

a)

the sign for ΔH changes

b)

it doubles

c)

it is squared

d)

nothing

15.

A single bond is composed of

a)

1 sigma bond

b)

1 pi bond

c)

1 sigma and 1 pi bond

d)

no sigma or pi bonds

16.

A triple bond is composed of

a)

1 sigma bond

b)

1 pi bond

c)

2 pi bonds

d)

1 sigma and 2 pi bonds

17.

Lattice energy is the energy to break an ionic bond in a compound. Lattice energy increases as the ion’s charge increases. Lattice energy decreases as the radii of the ions increase.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which is the strongest IMF?

a)

LDF

b)

Dipole dipole

c)

Hydrogen bonding

d)

Ion-dipole

19.

Which would have the strongest IMFs?

a)

CH4

b)

C2H2

c)

C4H8

d)

C8H14

20.

Vapor pressure and volatility decrease as IMF’s increase.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

SiO2 (quartz) and diamonds are ____________________, and they have very high boiling/melting points.

a)

covalent network solids

b)

ionic solids

c)

molecular solids

d)

interstitial alloys

22.

______________ alloys are made when a smaller atom fits into the gaps between larger atoms of a metallic crystal.

a)

Interstitial

b)

Substituitonal

23.

Which is not needed for a reaction to occur?

a)

particles must collide at the correct orientation

b)

particles must collide with a minimum energy

c)

particles must be large enough to break bonds

24.

A first order reaction graph is

a)

ln[A] v time

b)

1/[A] v time

c)

[A] v time

25.

Which of these is false in terms of speeding up reactions?

a)

Adding a catalyst lowers the activation energy

b)

increasing reactant concentration increases collisions

c)

increasing surface area decreases collisions

d)

increasing temperature increases collisions

26.

The taller the “hill” (or activation energy) the slower the reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The fast step (rate-determining step) will dictate the speed of the reaction, and this step will determine the rate law.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Catalysts are produced in one step and used up in a later step

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Only (aq), (l), and (g) appear in an equilibrium expression.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

A larger K means there are ______ products at equilibrium

a)

more

b)

less

31.

What happens to K if a reaction is reversed?

a)

1/K

b)

K2

c)

2K

d)

-K

32.

What happens to K is a reaction is doubled?

a)

K2

b)

2K

c)

1/2K

d)

-K

33.

If K<Q, then the reaction shifts to the _________

a)

left

b)

right

34.

If the pressure of a system is increased, which direction will equilibrium shift?

a)

toward the side with less moles of gas

b)

toward the side with more moles of gas

c)

it will not shift

35.

Catalysts and inert gases do not shift an equilibrium.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What type of alloy is made when the radii of the atoms are similar in size?

a)

interstitial

b)

substitutional

37.

Which atom has the negative dipole in this molecule?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Fluorine

c)

Neither

38.

In this molecule, Carbon has a formal charge of ____ and Nitrogen has a formal charge of _____.

a)

0, 0

b)

1, 0

c)

0, -1

d)

-1, 0

39.

Combustion reactions produce what two substances?

a)

Water Vapor and Carbon Dioxide

b)

Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen

c)

Oxygen and Water Vapor

40.

As the electronegativity difference between 2 atoms increases, the polarity of the bond ____________________

a)

increases

b)

decreases

41.

What type of bond forms between hydrogen and chlorine?

a)

polar covalent

b)

non-polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

hydrogen bond

42.

What type of alloy is this?

a)

Interstitial

b)

Substitutional

43.

What is the total # of covalent bonds carbon can form when drawing a Lewis structure?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

4

d)

8

44.

What is the bond angle in BF3?

a)

90

b)

120

c)

109.5

d)

180

45.

What is the bond angle in H2O?

a)

120

b)

90

c)

180

d)

104.5

46.

Are asymmetrical molecules polar or nonpolar?

a)

Polar

b)

non-polar

c)

neither

47.

What is the bond angle in NH3

a)

120

b)

107.3

c)

180

d)

90

48.

What is the hybridization of carbon in CH4?

a)

sp3

b)

sp

c)

sp2

49.

What is the hybridization for carbon in CO2

a)

sp3

b)

sp

c)

sp2

50.

Count the number of sigma and pi bonds in this molecule:

a)

13 sigma, 1 pi

b)

14 sigma, 2 pi

c)

1 sigma, 14 pi

d)

2 sigma, 13 pi

51.

Why are asymmetrical molecules polar?

a)

Their dipoles do not cancel

b)

Their dipoles cancel

52.

What is the hybridization for an oxygen in CO2

a)

sp3

b)

sp

c)

sp2

53.

When a molecular solid melts or boils, which breaks?

a)

Intermolecular forces

b)

Intramolecular bonds

54.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
55.

What is the total # of covalent bonds carbon has to make when drawing a Lewis structure?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

4

d)

8

56.

What order is this graph?

a)

Zero

b)

First

c)

Second

d)

Third

57.

What order is this graph?

a)

Zero

b)

First

c)

Second

d)

Third

58.

If you quadruple the concentration and the rate quadruples, what order is this reaction?

a)

zero

b)

first

c)

second

59.

The particles under the purple curve (middle) have an average Kinetic Energy that is proportional to of 500K

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Which step of a reaction mechanism determines the rate?

a)

the slow step

b)

the fast step

c)

the first step

d)

the second step

61.

What order is the half life of Carbon14?

a)

Zero

b)

First

c)

Second

62.

What is the unit for the rate constant (k) for 2nd order reactions?

a)

s-1

b)

M/s

c)

M-1s-1

63.

How does a catalyst speed up a reaction?

a)

Adding more reactant

b)

Providing a pathway that has a lower activation energy

c)

Increasing the activation energy

d)

Increasing binding energy

64.

___________ are produced in one step and used up in a later step and __________________ are present and unchanged in the reactants and the products

a)

intermediates, catalysts

b)

catalysts, intermediates

65.

If a “reaction profile” has a taller ‘hill’ (or activation energy) then the reaction is ____________________?

a)

Faster

b)

Slower

66.

What are the 2 characteristics that an effective collision must have? SELECT TWO

a)

Enough energy to overcome Ea

b)

Molecules in the correct orientations

c)

High enough temperature

d)

Apporpriate intermediates present

67.

What is the rate law for the reaction with this slow elementary step? A + A --> B + B

a)

rate = k[A]2

b)

rate = k[B]2

c)

rate = k[A][B]

d)

rate = k[A]

68.

What is the rate law for the reaction with this slow elementary step? A --> B + C

a)

rate = k[A]2

b)

rate = k[B]2

c)

rate = k[A][B]

d)

rate = k[A]

69.

What is the rate law for the reaction with this slow elementary step? A + 2B --> D + C

a)

rate = k[A]2

b)

rate = k[A][B]2

c)

rate = k[A][B]

d)

rate = k[A]

70.

What is NOT a way to speed up a reaction

a)

Add a catalyst

b)

Decrease the volume

c)

Increase the concentration of reactants

d)

Increase surface area of the solid

e)

Decrease the pressure

71.

Which curve represents the most particles in this Maxwell-Boltzmann curve (# of particles vs. speed)?

a)

Black (peak on the left)

b)

Red (peak in the middle)

c)

Blue (peak on the right)

d)

They all have the same number of particles

72.

Which curve in this Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution represents the highest proportion of particles moving the fastest (# of particles vs. speed)?

a)

Black (peak on the left)

b)

Red (peak in the middle)

c)

Blue (peak on the right)

d)

All particles are moving at the same speed

73.

What order of reaction has a half-life that does not change regardless of the initial concentration?

a)

Zero

b)

First

c)

Second

d)

Third

74.

At equilibrium, rates of the forward and reverse reaction are...

a)

The same

b)

Not the same

75.

A system at equilibrium

a)

Must have reactants and products

b)

Must have products only

c)

Must have reactants only

76.

At equilibrium, concentrations of reactants and products are

a)

equal

b)

constant

77.

At what time does the system first reach equilibrium?

a)

24s

b)

40s

c)

60s

d)

80s

78.

The equilibrium constant expression, Kc, given aA + bB ⇄ cC + dD, is...

a)

Kc = [C]c[D]d[A]a[B]bK_c\ =\ \frac{\left[C\right]^c\left[D\right]^d}{\left[A\right]^a\left[B\right]^b}  

b)

Kc = [A]a[B]b[C]c[D]dK_c\ =\ \frac{\left[A\right]^a\left[B\right]^b}{\left[C\right]^c\left[D\right]^d}  

79.

Which substance(s) would not be included in a equilibrium constant expression?

a)

NaCl(s)

b)

NaCl(aq)

c)

NaCl(l)

d)

NaCl(g)

80.

If a K value is greater than 1,

a)

more products are present at equilibrium

b)

more reactants are present at equilibrium

81.

If a K value is VERY large,

a)

the reaction has essentially gone to completion

b)

there are more reactants present at equilibrium

82.

If K < Q, the reaction will proceed in the...

a)

reverse direction to reach equilibrium

b)

forward direction to reach equilibrium

83.

When a reaction at equilibrium is reversed,

a)

the K value's sign is flipped

b)

the K value is divided by 2

c)

the K value is inverted

84.

To calculate the K of an overall reaction from individual reaction K values, the individual K values are

a)

added

b)

subtracted

c)

multiplied

d)

divided

85.

When the coefficient of a reaction is multiplied by a factor x,

a)

the K value is multipled by x

b)

the K value is divided by x

c)

the K value is raised to the power x

86.

Given the following equilibrium equation,

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g) ΔH > 0, which of the following changes will increase the amount of AB2 in the vessel?

a)

Decreasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the concentration of A

c)

Removing a small amount of B

d)

Decreasing the pressure

87.

Given the following equilibrium equation,

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g) ΔH < 0, which of the following changes will decrease the amount of AB2 in the vessel?

a)

Increasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the concentration of A

c)

Increasing the pressure

d)

Adding a catalyst

88.

The following system at equilibrium is exothermic. If the temperature is increased...

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g)

a)

[A] will increase the most

b)

[B] will increase the most

c)

[AB2] will increase the most

89.

For an exothermic system at equilibrium, if the temperature is increased, the equilibrium will shift towards the...

a)

reactants

b)

products

90.

For an endothermic system at equilibrium, if the temperature is decreased, the equilibrium will shift towards the...

a)

reactants

b)

products

91.

In a Ksp expression, we always assume that the reactant is made up of

a)

the solid precipitate

b)

the aqueous ions

92.

If Ksp >1, we say the salt is...

a)

soluble

b)

insoluble

93.

If a common ion is present, the solubility of a salt

a)

is increased

b)

is decreased

c)

will remain the same

94.

In an exothermic reaction, the sign of ΔH is ____ and the reaction feels ______

a)

(-), hot

b)

(+), hot

c)

(-), cold

d)

(+), cold

95.

Freezing is an _________________________ process

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

96.

Vaporizing is an _________________________ process

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

97.

Breaking bonds is _________________. Forming bonds is ______________________

a)

endothermic, exothermic

b)

exothermic, endothermic

98.

ΔHrxn = ΔH_________________ − ΔH_________________

a)

products, reactants

b)

reactants, products

99.

If a reaction is exothermic, then the bonds formed in the products are ___________________ than the reactant bonds.

a)

stronger/more stable

b)

weaker/less stable

100.

If a reaction is endothermic, then the bonds formed in the products are ___________________ than the reactant bonds.

a)

stronger/more stable

b)

weaker/less stable

101.

According to Hess' Law, if you double the coefficients of a reaction, ΔH will ________________________

a)

Stay the same

b)

Double

c)

Quadruple

d)

Halve

102.

According to Hess' Law, if you reverse a reaction, ΔH will ________________________

a)

Change signs

b)

Double

c)

Be inversed

d)

Halve

103.

_____ Hydrogen-Hydrogen single bond/s are broken and _____ Carbon-Hydrogen single bond/s formed

a)

6; 8

b)

2; 8

c)

2; 10

d)

6; 10

104.

_____ Carbon-Carbon single bond/s are formed

a)

6

b)

2

c)

3

d)

10

105.

Bond enthalpy is the amount of energy is takes to break __________ of a bond.

a)

one mole

b)

one gram

c)

the activation energy

d)

the binding energy

106.

What are the units of ΔHrxn?

a)

kJ

b)

J

c)

kJ/mol

d)

J/mol

107.

Endothermic

a)

absorb energy

b)

release energy

108.

Exothermic

a)

absorb energy

b)

release energy

109.

In the dissolution process, the increase in separation between ions in the solute is

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

110.

In a system, the energy lost by the reacting species must be ________________ the energy gained by the surrouding

a)

greater than

b)

less than

c)

equal to

111.

On a potential energy diagram for an endothermic reaction,

a)

the potential energy of the reactants is greater than the potential energy of the products

b)

the potential energy of the reactants is less than the potential energy of the products

c)

the potential energy of the reactants is equal to the potential energy of the products

112.

A temperature is placed in a calorimeter. A solid is dissolved in water in the calorimeter and the temperature of the thermometer increases. The dissolution reaction must be

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

113.

Using bond energies to solve for enthalpy, 

a)

ΔH\Delta H  =  Bond broken - bonds formed

b)

undefined =  Bond formed- bonds broken

c)

undefined =  products - reactants

d)

undefined =  reactants- products

114.

The enthalpy of formation for a lone element is

a)

a number

b)

zero

115.

At equilibrium, rates of the forward and reverse reaction are...

a)

The same

b)

Not the same

116.

A system at equilibrium

a)

Must have reactants and products

b)

Must have products only

c)

Must have reactants only

117.

At equilibrium, concentrations of reactants and products are

a)

equal

b)

constant

118.

At what time does the system first reach equilibrium?

a)

24s

b)

40s

c)

60s

d)

80s

119.

The equilibrium constant expression, Kc, given aA + bB ⇄ cC + dD, is...

a)

Kc = [C]c[D]d[A]a[B]bK_c\ =\ \frac{\left[C\right]^c\left[D\right]^d}{\left[A\right]^a\left[B\right]^b}  

b)

Kc = [A]a[B]b[C]c[D]dK_c\ =\ \frac{\left[A\right]^a\left[B\right]^b}{\left[C\right]^c\left[D\right]^d}  

120.

Which substance(s) would not be included in a equilibrium constant expression?

a)

NaCl(s)

b)

NaCl(aq)

c)

NaCl(l)

d)

NaCl(g)

121.

If a K value is greater than 1,

a)

more products are present at equilibrium

b)

more reactants are present at equilibrium

122.

If a K value is VERY large,

a)

the reaction has essentially gone to completion

b)

there are more reactants present at equilibrium

123.

If K < Q, the reaction will proceed in the...

a)

reverse direction to reach equilibrium

b)

forward direction to reach equilibrium

124.

When a reaction at equilibrium is reversed,

a)

the K value's sign is flipped

b)

the K value is divided by 2

c)

the K value is inverted

125.

To calculate the K of an overall reaction from individual reaction K values, the individual K values are

a)

added

b)

subtracted

c)

multiplied

d)

divided

126.

When the coefficient of a reaction is multiplied by a factor x,

a)

the K value is multipled by x

b)

the K value is divided by x

c)

the K value is raised to the power x

127.

Given the following equilibrium equation,

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g) ΔH > 0, which of the following changes will increase the amount of AB2 in the vessel?

a)

Decreasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the concentration of A

c)

Removing a small amount of B

d)

Decreasing the pressure

128.

Given the following equilibrium equation,

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g) ΔH < 0, which of the following changes will decrease the amount of AB2 in the vessel?

a)

Increasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the concentration of A

c)

Increasing the pressure

d)

Adding a catalyst

129.

The following system at equilibrium is exothermic. If the temperature is increased...

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g)

a)

[A] will increase the most

b)

[B] will increase the most

c)

[AB2] will increase the most

130.

For an exothermic system at equilibrium, if the temperature is increased, the equilibrium will shift towards the...

a)

reactants

b)

products

131.

For an endothermic system at equilibrium, if the temperature is decreased, the equilibrium will shift towards the...

a)

reactants

b)

products

132.

In a Ksp expression, we always assume that the reactant is made up of

a)

the solid precipitate

b)

the aqueous ions

133.

If Ksp >1, we say the salt is...

a)

soluble

b)

insoluble

134.

If a common ion is present, the solubility of a salt

a)

is increased

b)

is decreased

c)

will remain the same

135.

Why are all gas mixtures considered to be homogenous?

a)

The gas particles mix uniformly without distinct areas of concentration

b)

The gas particles mix in distinct areas of concentration

c)

The gas particles cannot be separated from each other

d)

The gas particles are in constant random motion

136.

Why are gases compressible?

a)

Gas particles are very small but take up large volumes of space

b)

Gas particles are very small and take up small volumes of space

c)

Gas particles are strong attracted to one another.

137.

How are P and V related?

a)

When Pressure increases Volume increases

b)

When Pressure increases Volume decreases

c)

When Pressure decreases Volume decreases

138.

What causes gas pressure?

a)

The constant collisions of gas particle on the walls of a container

b)

The decrease in temperature when gas particles move slower

c)

The collision of gas particles with each other

139.

How are T and V related?

a)

When Temperature increases Volume increases

b)

When Temperature increases Volume decreases

c)

When Temperature decreases Volume increases

140.

How are T and P related?

a)

When Temperature decreases Pressure increases

b)

When Temperature increases Pressure decreases

c)

When Temperature increases Pressure increases

141.

In the equation PV = nRT what are the units for T, V and P?

a)

Celcius, L, atm

b)

Kelvin, ml, torr

c)

Kelvin, L atm

142.

At STP what is the volume of one mole of an ideal gas?

a)

14.4 L

b)

22.4 L

c)

11.2 L

143.

How are gas pressure and number of moles related?

a)

When # moles decreases P increases

b)

When # moles decreases P decreases

c)

When # moles increases P increases

d)

When # of moles increases P decreases

144.

Which of the following gases will move the fastest if they are at the same temperature?

He Ar

a)

He will move slower because it is smaller than Ar

b)

He will move faster because it is smaller than Ar

c)

He will move faster because it is larger than Ar

145.

When carbon dioxide gas is collected over water, what accounts for the total pressure in the container?

a)

carbon dioxide gas only

b)

water vapor only

c)

carbon dioxide gas and water vapor

146.

In what conditions do real gases behave most like ideal gases?

a)

low T and high P

b)

low P and high T

c)

high T and high P

147.

What gases deviate the most form ideal gas behavior?

a)

polar and large gas particles

b)

nonpolar and large gas particles

c)

polar and small gas particles

148.

When a molecular solid melts or boils, which bonds break?

a)

Intermolecular

b)

Intramolecular

149.

Name a property that increases as Intermolecular Forces increase.

a)

Vapor pressure

b)

Conductivity

c)

Melting point

d)

Solubility

150.
What is the the shape of this molecule according to VSPER theory?
a)
Linear
b)
Tetrahedral
c)
Trigonal Planar
d)
Trigonal pyramidal
151.

What compound could this be?

a)

CO2

b)

NH3

c)

H2S

d)

CH4

152.

Draw the Lewis Dot structure for PCl5 and determine the predicted molecular geometry

a)

octahedral

b)

trigonal pyramidal

c)

seesaw

d)

trigonal bipyramidal

153.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
154.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
155.
How many sigma and pi bonds does this have?
a)
1 sigma and 1 pi
b)
2 sigma and 1 pi
c)
1 sigma and 2 pi
d)
2 sigma and 2 pi
156.
How many sigma and pi bonds does this have? 
a)
3 sigma and 2 pi
b)
5 sigma and 5 pi
c)
5 sigma and 0 pi
d)
0 sigma and 5 pi
157.
Carbon atom undergo
a)
sp hybridization
b)
sp2 hybridization
c)
sp3 hybridization
d)
dsp3 hybridization
158.

Filtering separates mixtures based on differences in what property?

a)

Chemical

b)

Solubility

c)

Particle size

d)

Density

159.

What is the equation for calculating the density of a substance?

a)

D=m/v

b)

m=D/v

c)

D=v*m

d)

D=v/m

160.

When an electron is in a lower energy level, it is ________________ away from the nucleus

a)

Closer

b)

Farther

161.

When reading a PES (Photoelectric Spectroscopy) graph, what does the height of a peak represent?

a)

The number of electrons

b)

The number of protons

c)

The mass or the isotope

d)

The amount of energy the electron has

162.

Isotopes of an element have the same number of __________, but different number of __________.

a)

protons, neutrons

b)

neutrons, protons

c)

protons, electrons

d)

electrons, protons

163.

When reading a PES (Photoelectron Spectroscopy) graph, a larger binding energy means that the electrons are _________________ the nucleus?

a)

Closer to

b)

Farther from

164.

Distillation separates mixtures based on differences in what property?

a)

Solubility

b)

Boiling Point

c)

Particle Size

d)

State of Matter

165.

What type of change conserves mass?

a)

none

b)

chemical

c)

physical

d)

chemical and physical

166.

When an electron is in a higher energy level, it has ___________ Coulombic attraction to the nucleus

a)

More

b)

Less

167.

What is the measurement of the burette? (in mL)

a)

6.6mL

b)

6.64mL

c)

7.36mL

d)

7.3mL

168.

Which orbital comes after 4s?

a)

3d

b)

5s

c)

4p

d)

4d

169.

Are cations larger or smaller than their neutral atoms?

a)

Larger

b)

Smaller

c)

Same size

170.

Which piece of glassware is the most precise

a)

beaker

b)

graduated cylinder

c)

burette

d)

test tube

171.

Moving across a row (L to R) on the periodic table, Zeff _________________

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

172.

What type of change separates a compound into elements?

a)

physical

b)

chemical

c)

chemical and physical

173.

Why do atoms get smaller moving across a period (L to R) on the periodic table?

a)

More protons (q) to attract the electrons

b)

Fewer protons (q) to attract the electrons

c)

More energy shells (r) so it can't attract the electrons

d)

Fewer energy shells (r) so it attracts the electrons closer

174.

Why are anions larger than their neutral atoms?

a)

More shielding that repels the other electrons

b)

Fewer protons to attract electrons

c)

More electrons to attract protons

d)

More Zeff to attract electrons

175.

Which piece of glassware is the least precise?

a)

graduated cylinder

b)

beaker

c)

burette

176.

When an electron is in a lower energy level, it has a ________________ 1st ionization energy

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Same

177.

What is the total # of covalent bonds carbon has to make when drawing a Lewis structure?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

4

d)

8

178.

Which electrons are removed first when making a cation?

a)

s

b)

p

c)

d

d)

f

179.

What do mass spectroscopy graphs measure?

a)

Mass of isotopes

b)

Mass of protons

c)

Energy of electrons

d)

Number of electrons

180.

What is the bond angle in BF3?

a)

90

b)

120

c)

109.5

d)

180

181.

When reading a PES graph, a larger binding energy means that the electrons are ____________ from the nucleus?

a)

closer

b)

farther

c)

the same distance

182.

Which orbital comes after 4p?

a)

5s

b)

4s

c)

3d

d)

4p

183.

What is the bond angle in H2O?

a)

120

b)

90

c)

180

d)

109.5

184.

Fill in the blanks germanium is a ________________, hydrogen is a _________________ and uranium is a ________________

a)

metal, non-metal, metalloid

b)

metalloid, non-metal, metal

c)

non-metal, metal, metalloid

185.

Are asymmetrical molecules polar or nonpolar?

a)

Polar

b)

non-polar

c)

neither

186.

What is the bond angle in NH3

a)

120

b)

109.5

c)

180

d)

90

187.

List the 3 Intermolecular forces from weakest to strongest

a)

hydrogen bonding, london dispersion, dipole dipole

b)

london dispersion, hydrogen bonding, dipole dipole

c)

london dispersion, dipole dipole, hydrogen bonding

d)

dipole dipole, hydrogen bonding, london dispersion

188.

List ALL the Intermolecular forces that exist in PCl3

a)

hydrogen bonding, london dispersion

b)

london dispersion, hydrogen bonding, dipole dipole

c)

london dispersion, dipole dipole

d)

london dispersion

189.

Are anions larger or smaller than their neutral atoms?

a)

Larger

b)

Smaller

c)

Same size

190.

“More polarizable” refers to which Intermolecular Force?

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

london dispersion

c)

dipole dipole

191.

What is an example of a covalent network solid?

a)

Salt

b)

Diamond

c)

Sugar

d)

Water

192.

Name a property that decreases as Intermolecular Forces increase.

a)

Vapor pressure

b)

Conductivity

c)

Melting point

d)

Solubility

193.

P and V are ___________________ related?

a)

inversely

b)

directly

194.

The more molar mass a gas has, the_________________ it moves

a)

faster

b)

slower

195.

Average Kinetic Energy is another term for _____________.

a)

Heat

b)

Temperature

c)

Pressure

d)

Activation energy

196.

Real gases behave most like an ideal gas at what conditions of temperature and pressure?

a)

High T, Low P

b)

High P, Low T

c)

High V, Low T

197.

When an electron is in a lower energy level, it has a ___________ 1st ionization energy

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

198.

What is the hybrid orbital used in CH4?

a)

sp3

b)

sp

c)

sp2

199.

What is the hybrid orbital used in CO2

a)

sp3

b)

sp

c)

sp2

200.

Count the number of sigma and pi bonds in this molecule:

a)

13 sigma, 1 pi

b)

14 sigma, 2 pi

c)

1 sigma, 14 pi

d)

2 sigma, 13 pi

201.

Why are asymmetrical molecules polar?

a)

Their dipoles do not cancel

b)

Their dipoles cancel

202.

What is the bond angle in SO2

a)

120

b)

90

c)

180

d)

109.5

203.

 

Reactions with what sign for  ΔH\Delta H  and  ΔS\Delta S are ALWAYS thermodynamically favorable?

a)

+, +

b)

-,-

c)

-, +

d)

+, -

204.

Thermodynamically favorable reactions have what sign for  ΔG\Delta G ?

a)

negative

b)

positive

205.

If the entropy term is unfavorable and the enthalpy term is favorable, at what temperatures will  ΔG\Delta G be negative?

a)

low 

b)

high

c)

all

d)

none

206.

At equilibrium, what is the value of  ΔG\Delta G  ?

a)

zero

b)

one

c)

need more information

207.

If a reaction increases the number of moles of gas, then the sign for entropy is what?

a)

positive

b)

negative

208.

If  ΔG\Delta G is negative, the Keq is greater than or less than 1?

a)

greater

b)

less

209.

When  ΔG=0, K = 1\Delta G=0,\ K\ =\ 1 . 

a)

true

b)

false

210.

Given their standard reduction potentials, which of the species is going to be oxidized?

Cu2+(aq)+2e− → Cu(s)   Eo=0.34 VCu^{2+}\left(aq\right)+2e^-\ \rightarrow\ Cu\left(s\right)\ \ \ E^o=0.34\ V  

Zn2+(aq)+2e− → Zn(s)     Eo=−0.76 VZn^{2+}\left(aq\right)+2e^-\ \rightarrow\ Zn\left(s\right)\ \ \ \ \ E^o=-0.76\ V  

a)

Cu

b)

Zn

c)

CuSO4

d)

ZnSO4

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