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Worksheets

CSMA Review

Total questions: 174

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes repetition?

a)

Repeated trials in your own experiment

b)

Using your five senses to gather information

c)

When an experiment is copied by another person

d)

Explaining an observation you have made

2.

A hypothesis is:

a)

An estimate

b)

A question

c)

An explanation that can be tested

d)

A variable

3.

Read the hypothesis below:

    If you run barefoot, then your speed will increase.

    Which of the following is the independent variable?

a)

Your speed

b)

Running barefoot

c)

The surface you run on

d)

Running

4.

Matt is conducting an experiment on dish soap and has just finished analyzing his data. What will his next step be?

 

 

a)

Share his results

b)

Write a conclusion

c)

Write a hypothesis

d)

Form a question

5.

Which of the following is an example of an inference?

 

a)

The table is wet and cold.

b)

My cat is meowing.

c)

My friend is wearing a blue shirt.

d)

The milk tastes sour, so it must be expired.

6.

Cathy is designing an experiment to investigate how the material a cup is made of will affect how long it will keep her drink cold. Which step will increase the accuracy of her results?

a)

Putting some of the cups in the fridge while placing the other cups outside in the sun.

b)

Using a different drink in each cup.

c)

Conducting multiple trials and having other scientists replicate her experiment.

  Using a different drink in each cup.

d)

Putting ice in some cups but not in the other cups.

7.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between observation and inference?

a)

An inference explains an observation that you have made.

b)

  There is no relationship between observation and inference – they do not work together.

c)

An observation explains an inference that you have made.

d)

Observation and inference are the same thing.

8.

I am conducting an experiment to see how changing the amount of light someone has while studying affects their test scores. In this experiment, which of the following would be the outcome variable?

a)

The students

b)

Test scores

c)

The amount of light

d)

Studying

9.

Which of the following is an explanation for how a natural phenomenon works?

a)

Fact

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Law

d)

Theory

10.

Which of the following is an example of repetition? 

a)

Copying an outfit I saw in a magazine

b)

Copying my friend’s homework.

c)

Conducting my own experiment and repeating step number 3 multiple times.

d)

Seeing a cool experiment my sister conducted and performing the same experiment.

11.

Read the hypothesis below.

     If you drink soda before bed, then it will take you longer to fall asleep.

     Which of the following would be the control group in this experiment?

a)

None of these

b)

The group of participants that do not drink soda before bed.

c)

Both red & green

d)

The group of participants that drink soda before bed.

12.

A hypothesis is only useful if:

a)

It is correct

b)

It can be tested

c)

The result is already know

d)

It is incorrect

13.

Information collected using my 5 senses is known as:

a)

A hypothesis

b)

An observation

c)

An inference

d)

An independent variable

14.

Use the independent and dependent variable listed below to form a correctly written hypothesis.

     Independent Variable: driving speed

     Dependent Variable: amount of speeding tickets

     Which of the following is the correctly written hypothesis?

 

a)

If you have a lot of speeding tickets, then you will drive fast.

b)

If you drive fast will you get more speeding tickets?

c)

If you drive fast, then you will receive more speeding tickets.

d)

Driving fast may cause you to get a lot of speeding tickets.

15.

Which of the following correctly describes an independent variable?

a)

All of these

b)

The variable you are testing

c)

The only difference between the experimental group and control group

d)

  The test variable

16.

An experiment must be:

a)

Replicable

b)

Repeatable

c)

Both replicable & repeatable

d)

  Non-Replicable

17.

I am conducting an experiment to see how eating carrots affects people’s vision. What would be a possible constant variable between the experimental group and control group?

a)

  Their vision results after completing the experiment

b)

The age of the participants

c)

  The type of carrots they eat

d)

The amount of carrots they eat

18.

Read the following question.

How does the use of fertilizer affect the speed of plant growth?

Which of the following would be a correctly written hypothesis for this question?

a)

If fertilizer is used on a plant, then it will grow faster.

b)

If a plant grows faster, then you will use fertilizer on it.

c)

Fertilizer might make a plant grow faster.

d)

Some plants use fertilizer to grow.

19.

Which of the following is the variable that you are measuring?

a)

  Test Variable

b)

Outcome variable

c)

Independent variable

d)

Constant variable

20.

You should only share your experimental results if your hypothesis is correct.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

There can be multiple experimental groups in an experiment.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

The first step of the scientific method is forming a hypothesis.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The dependent variable is the variable that you are measuring.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Replication is when you repeat trials within your own experiment.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

There should be multiple constant variables in an experiment, not just one.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What is the result of a cell undergoing meiosis in humans?

a)

Two sex cells, each with 46 chromosomes

b)

  Four sex cells, each with 46 chromosomes

c)

Two sex cells, each with 23 chromosomes

d)

Four sex cells, each with 23 chromosomes

27.

How is meiosis related to sexual reproduction in humans?

a)

Meiosis produces the sex cells that are used for sexual reproduction

b)

Meiosis allows the offspring produced during sexual reproduction to grow from one cell

c)

Meiosis joins the sex cells together during sexual reproduction 

d)

Meiosis produces the somatic cells that join together during sexual reproduction

28.

Allen is observing a DNA strand. He notices a section of the DNA strand that contains instructions for the production of a specific protein. Allen then notices that the DNA strand seems to contain many different sections like this, each with different sets of instructions. What is Allen most likely looking at?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Genes

d)

Chromosomes

29.

Which of the following steps occurs in the process of meiosis but does NOT occur in mitosis?

a)

Both yellow & green

b)

Crossing over

c)

Two rounds of cell division

d)

The replication of DNA in the parent cell

30.

Which of the following describes the outcome of mitosis?

 

 

a)

Daughter cells with 46 chromosomes each

b)

Identical daughter cells

c)

Somatic cells

d)

All of the above

31.

Which label should be used at point A?

a)

Chromatin

b)

Chromosome

c)

DNA strand

d)

Gene

32.

Why do multicellular organisms use the process of mitosis?

a)

A. To form somatic cells

b)

B. For growth and repair

c)

C. To form sex cells

d)

Both A & C

33.

Which of the following describes what is happening during stage 1?

a)

  The cell is dividing

b)

Crossing over

c)

DNA is being copied

d)

The chromosomes are separating

34.

The picture below shows a model of cell division.

How many chromosomes can we assume each daughter cell has?

a)

92 because the DNA is copied

b)

  23 because there are two cell divisions

c)

  23 because there is only one cell division

d)

46 because there is only one cell division

35.

Tina and George are best friends. Which statement BEST describes how Tina's DNA and genes compare to George's DNA and genes?

a)

They each have a unique DNA sequence and share all of the exact same genes

b)

They each have a unique DNA sequence and share some of the same genes

c)

They each have the exact same DNA sequence and the exact same genes

d)

They each have the exact same DNA sequence but have different genes

36.

Which of the following statements best describes crossing over?

a)

  The division of the nucleus during cell division

b)

The duplication of chromosomes

c)

  A process that occurs during mitosis in which pieces of chromosomes are exchanged

d)

A process that occurs during meiosis in which pieces of chromosomes are exchanged

37.

Susan is looking at a cell through a microscope and is trying to find where the DNA is located. Where should Susan look to find the cell's DNA?

a)

The nucleus

b)

The Golgi apparatus

c)

The cell wall

d)

The cell membrane

38.

Before a cell enters the mitosis phase, it goes through three other phases in the cell cycle. What happens during the cell cycle before the cell reaches mitosis?

a)

Cell division

b)

DNA division

c)

Growth & DNA replication

d)

Meiosis

39.

Which of the following describes how asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction are different?

a)

Asexual reproduction only requires one parent while sexual reproduction requires two parents

b)

The only way to produce offspring is through asexual reproduction

c)

Asexual reproduction requires two parents while sexual reproduction only requires one parent

d)

The only way to produce offspring is through sexual reproduction

40.

Which of these choices best describes a pedigree?

a)

An illustration that shows the genetic diversity among different species

b)

A diagram of family relationships that includes several generations

c)

A hypothesis that explains why genes are recessive or dominant

d)

A diagram that lists alleles of two parents and shows the possible allele combinations of their offspring

41.

The diagram below shows the results of crossing a pea plant with smooth seeds and a pea plant with wrinkled seeds.

What can be determined from the results of the experiment?

a)

  Smooth shape and wrinkled shape are both dominant traits

b)

Smooth shape and wrinkled shape are both recessive traits

c)

Smooth shape is a dominant trait, and wrinkled shape is a recessive trait

d)

Smooth shape is a recessive trait, and wrinkled shape is a dominant trait

42.

Alisha and Rob would like to have children. A genetic counselor tells them that they are both carriers of a certain genetic disease. What does this mean?

 

a)

There is a very high probability that one or both of them will develop the disease at some point in the future.

b)

They both have the disease, but there is a very low probability that they will pass it on to their children.

c)

They are both immune to the disease, and it is very likely that their children will also be immune to it.

d)

They both have an allele for the disease and could pass this allele on to their children, even though neither of them has the disease.

43.

Which of the following is an example of a homozygous recessive genotype?

a)

Ff

b)

SS

c)

gg

d)

Brown hair

44.

A species of rabbit can have brown fur or white fur. One rabbit with two alleles for brown fur (BB) has brown fur. A second rabbit with two alleles for white fur (bb) has white fur. Which statement is true about the alleles B and b?

a)

  They are on two different genes.

b)

They are two different versions of the same gene.

c)

They result in the same phenotype.

d)

They provide identical instructions for a characteristic.

45.

In pea plants, the allele which produces yellow peas, Y, is dominant to the allele which produces green peas, y. Two pea plants with yellow peas are crossed and produce some offspring with green peas. Which best explains why?

a)

The parents were homozygous for both alleles.

b)

The parents were homozygous for the y allele.

c)

The parent plants were heterozygous for the Y allele.

d)

The parent plants were homozygous for the Y allele.

46.

In fruit flies, red eyes are dominant (R) while white eyes are recessive (r). Complete the Punnett square below to represent a cross between a heterozygous fly and a homozygous dominant fly. What is the correct answer for box number 2? (Put the heterozygous parent on the top of the square)

a)

RR

b)

rr

c)

rR

d)

Rr

47.

In fruit flies, red eyes are dominant (R) while white eyes are recessive (r). Complete the Punnett square below to represent a cross between a heterozygous fly and a homozygous dominant fly. What would be the probability (% chance) these two fruit flies will have a child with white eyes?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

48.

In fruit flies, red eyes are dominant (R) while white eyes are recessive (r). Complete the Punnett square below to represent a cross between a heterozygous fly and a homozygous dominant fly. What would be the probability (% chance) these two fruit flies will have a child with Rr?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

49.

In bears, black fur is dominant to brown fur. The Punnett square below represents the cross between two black furred bears.

Which phenotype is their offspring most likely to have?

a)

aa

b)

Aa

c)

Black fur

d)

Brown fur

50.

The Punnett square below shows the possible outcomes for a cross between two parents.

The genotype of one parent is shown. What is the genotype of the other parent?

a)

SS

b)

ss

c)

S

d)

Ss

51.

Which of the following could be an example of a person’s phenotype for the eye color trait?

a)

BB

b)

Homozygous recessive

c)

Blue eyes

d)

Genotype

52.

The pedigree chart below shows individuals with attached earlobes. Attached earlobes are recessive, occurring in individuals with the genotype ee. Note that this pedigree chart does not show carriers.

 

How many individuals in this pedigree chart have unattached earlobes? How many have attached earlobes?

 

 

a)

6 unattached, 8 attached

b)

8 unattached, 6 attached

c)

14 unattached, 8 attached

d)

8 unattached, 14 attached

53.

The pedigree chart below shows individuals with attached earlobes. Attached earlobes are recessive, occurring in individuals with the genotype ee. Note that this pedigree chart does not show carriers.

 

Which of the following individuals has the genotype ee?

a)

Generation 2, person 4

b)

  Generation 1, person 1

c)

Generation 2, person 5

d)

  Generation 3, person 1

54.

The pedigree chart below shows individuals with attached earlobes. Attached earlobes are recessive, occurring in individuals with the genotype ee. Note that this pedigree chart does not show carriers.

 

 

What is the most likely genotype for individual 1 in generation 1?

a)

Ee

b)

EE

c)

ee

d)

EeE

55.

One flower is red (Rr) and is crossed with a white (rr) plant. What % will be a white flower?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

56.

Which of the following is a homozygous recessive genotype?

a)

Tv

b)

rr

c)

PP

d)

Ss

57.

What percent shows the recessive trait?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

58.

Which term means how the organism looks?

a)

genotype

b)

recessive

c)

phenotype

d)

allele

59.

What does a half shaded circle represent?

a)

a female who has the trait

b)

a male who does not have the trait

c)

  a male carrier

d)

a female carrier

60.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Cell Theory developed by Schwann and Virchow?

 

a)

All cells contain a nucleus

b)

All cells come from existing cells

c)

The cell is the basic unit of all organisms

d)

All organisms are made of one or more cells

61.

All unicellular organisms:

a)

Have a nucleus

b)

Are made of only one cell

c)

Are made of multiple cells

d)

Do not have a nucleus

62.

Part of the cell theory states that all living things are made of one or more cells, but scientists had to find ways to test this theory. Which investigation should scientists use to test this part of the cell theory?

a)

Heat plant or animal tissues on a hot plate

b)

Measure the mass of plant or animal tissue

c)

Test plant or animal tissue with a pH meter

d)

Examine plant or animal tissues with a microscope

63.

Which of the following structures do BOTH plant and animal cells have?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Cell wall

c)

Nucleus

d)

Large central vacuole

64.

The following diagram shows a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell.

Which statement correctly identifies the eukaryotic cell and explains how to identify the eukaryotic cell?

a)

Cell B is eukaryotic because there is DNA in the cytoplasm

b)

Cell A is eukaryotic because it has cytoplasm

c)

Cell A is eukaryotic because it has a cell membrane

d)

Cell A is eukaryotic because it has a nucleus

65.

Which organelle is the site of cellular respiration, the process that uses food to create energy?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleus

66.

Which of the following statements best describes the function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

The Golgi apparatus is like the brain of the cell – it stores DNA and controls activities.

b)

The Golgi apparatus is like the waste management of the cell – it digests materials and wastes.

c)

The Golgi apparatus is like the city limits of the cell – it controls what enters and exits the cell.

d)

The Golgi apparatus is like the post office of the cell – it packages materials to be shipped off.

67.

Adam is studying a new type of organism he has found. He observes that the cells of the organism have mitochondria, a cell membrane, and a nucleus. He also observes that the cells do NOT have a cell wall. What type of organism has Adam most likely found?

a)

An animal

b)

A plant

c)

A bacteria

d)

A prokaryote

68.

Which of the following statements about the function of a cell’s nucleus is true?

a)

It stores DNA

b)

It is the site of photosynthesis

c)

Both blue and red

d)

It is the "command center" of the cell - meaning it controls the cell's activities

69.

It took many years and many scientists to create our modern cell theory. Over time, these scientists observed lots of different cells and noted the similarities and differences between them. This led to a lot of improvements in the cell theory, which could not have happened without advancements in technology. Which of the following types of technology played the biggest role in the creation and advancement of the cell theory?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Microscope

c)

Scale

d)

Telescope

70.

__________ are the structures inside of a cell that perform specific jobs to keep the cell alive.

a)

Organisms

b)

Tissues

c)

Organelles

d)

Organs

71.

Which of the following correctly pairs a cellular structure with its function?

a)

Nucleus - protects the cell

b)

Large central vacuole - stores water

c)

Cytoplasm - controls what enters and exits the cell

d)

Mitochondria - stores DNA

72.

Which of the following statements about prokaryotes and eukaryotes is true?

a)

Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus, but eukaryotic cells do have a nucleus.

b)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus, but eukaryotic cells do not have a nucleus.

c)

All prokaryotes are multicellular, but all eukaryotes are unicellular.

d)

All prokaryotes are unicellular, but all eukaryotes are multicellular.

73.

Which of the following structures is found in plant cells but NOT animal cells?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell wall

d)

Cytoplasm

74.

Alex looks through a microscope and concludes that the cells he is observing are eukaryotic cells. Which of the following structures did Alex most likely observe to come to this conclusion?

a)

DNA

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Cell membrane

75.

Which structure plays the most important role in protecting an animal cell?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Cell wall

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

76.

Sarah is a scientist that is trying to identify a mystery organism. She knows that the organism makes its own food using a process called photosynthesis, and it gets energy from that food after completing the process of cellular respiration. Based on the given information, which type of organism is Sarah most likely looking at?

a)

A bird

b)

A dog

c)

A human

d)

A sunflower

77.

Prokaryotic cells do not have DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Humans are eukaryotes.

 

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for performing cellular respiration to make energy.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Sometimes cells need to bring particles into the cell that are too large to fit through the channels embedded in the cell membrane. The only way to bring them in is to use energy. Which of the following types of transportation would the cell use to get the particle in?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

  Cellular respiration

c)

Active transport

d)

Passive transport

81.

Where does cellular respiration take place?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Chloroplasts

82.

Complete the following formula for cellular respiration:

_______ + glucose --> water + ________ + carbon dioxide

a)

Sunlight, oxygen

b)

Sunlight, energy

c)

Energy, oxygen

d)

Oxygen, energy

83.

___________ is the maintenance of a stable internal state in a changing environment.

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Cell theory

c)

  Photosynthesis

d)

Active transport

84.

John is looking at cells through a microscope for an assignment. For the assignment, he must identify which cell structure is the most important in maintaining cellular homeostasis. Which of the following would be the correct answer for John’s assignment?

 

a)

Cell membrane

b)

  Cytoplasm

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Chloroplasts

85.

The process of photosynthesis occurs in the ______.

a)

Large central vacuole

b)

  Chloroplasts

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Nucleus

86.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

Carbon dioxide, water, and energy

b)

Oxygen, water, and energy

c)

Sugar and carbon dioxide

d)

Sugar and oxygen

87.

While Haley is on a family vacation in Alaska, she decides to go out for a walk. While she is out, she becomes extremely cold, and her body begins to shiver. Shivering then raises her body temperature back up to normal. This is an example of:

a)

Passive transport

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Photosynthesis

88.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

  All living things perform photosynthesis

b)

Both plants and animals perform cellular respiration

c)

Plants do not perform cellular respiration.

d)

Photosynthesis is the process in which cells make energy.

89.

Which of the following statements about cellular transport is true?

a)

Active transport moves materials from high to low concentration.

b)

Passive transport moves materials from high to low concentration.

c)

Active transport does not require energy while passive transport does require energy.

d)

Active transport and passive transport are the same thing.

90.

Only animals perform cellular respiration.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Humans do not perform photosynthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Cellular respiration is the process used by plants to make food.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

The reactants of photosynthesis are sugar and oxygen.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

The cell membrane controls what enters and leaves a cell.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

The main function of the respiratory system is to

 

a)

Pump blood to the body

b)

Transport blood around the body

c)

Provide support and movement

d)

Take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide

96.

What are the main structures of the respiratory system?

a)

Lymph vessels and blood vessels

b)

Lungs, alveoli, and diaphragm

c)

Arteries, veins, and capillaries

d)

Heart and blood vessels

97.

Which of the following BEST describes the functions of arteries and veins?

a)

Arteries and veins both carry blood away from the heart

b)

Arteries and veins both carry blood to the heart

c)

Veins carry blood away from the heart while arteries carry blood to the heart

d)

Arteries carry blood away from the heart while veins carry blood to the heart

98.

What type of blood vessel is the green arrow pointing to?

a)

Vein

b)

Capillary

c)

Artery

d)

Alveoli

99.

In the lungs, there are structures responsible for exchanging gases with your blood. These structures are sometimes referred to as “air sacs,” but are actually named _________.

a)

Veins

b)

Alveoli

c)

Arteries

d)

Diaphragm

100.

________ is the fluid that carries gases, nutrients, and wastes through the body.

a)

Lymph

b)

Oxygen

c)

Blood

d)

Carbon Dioxide

101.

What type of blood vessel does blood travel in when it flows from the body to the heart?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

d)

Alveoli

102.

Which of the following correctly describes what happens when blood flows into the lungs?

a)

The diaphragm removes carbon dioxide from the blood and supplies it with oxygen

b)

The alveoli remove oxygen from the blood and supply it with carbon dioxide

c)

The alveoli remove carbon dioxide from the blood and supply it with oxygen

d)

  The veins remove oxygen from the blood and supply it with carbon dioxide

103.

Julia goes to the doctor and finds out that she has been infected with a virus. Which part of Julia's blood is responsible for fighting against the invading virus?

a)

Plasma

b)

White blood cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Red blood cells

104.

Once blood is oxygenated, ________ carry the oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the rest of the body.

a)

Capillaries

b)

Veins

c)

Arteries

d)

Air sacs

105.

Which of the following is found in your blood and is responsible for transporting oxygen to your cells?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

White blood cells

c)

Lymph

d)

Carbon Dioxide

106.

Camila notices that every time she gets a very small cut in her skin, she bleeds more than normal. Which part of Sarah’s blood has the responsibility of clotting blood to prevent over-bleeding?

 

a)

Platelets

b)

Plasma

c)

Red blood cells

d)

White blood cells

107.

Where does the exchange of gases between the blood and the body cells occur?

a)

Arteries

b)

Lymph Vessels

c)

Veins

d)

Capillaries

108.

Freddy contracts a disease that causes inflammation of the tube that leads to his bronchi. This structure is sometimes referred to as the windpipe. What is another name for this structure?

a)

  Esophagus

b)

Trachea

c)

Alveoli

d)

Bronchioles

109.

Which of the following best describes the movement of the diaphragm during breathing?

a)

When you inhale, the diaphragm moves upwards

b)

The diaphragm does not move when you breathe

c)

When you inhale, the diaphragm moves downwards

d)

When you exhale, the diaphragm moves downwards

110.

Your blood is always red.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Which of the following components accounts for the largest amount of your blood and carries nutrients and wastes?

a)

  Platelets

b)

  White blood cells

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Plasma

112.

What part of the heart stores oxygen poor blood?

a)

Right side

b)

  Left side

c)

Oxygen poor blood and oxygen rich blood are not kept separate in the heart

d)

The heart does not store oxygen poor blood

113.

When blood travels from the heart to the lungs, it is travelling through the ______ circuit.

a)

Pulmonary

b)

Systemic

c)

  Vein

d)

Digestive

114.

When blood flows from the heart to the body, it is...

a)

Filled with carbon dioxide

b)

Oxygen poor

c)

  In a vein

d)

Oxygen rich

115.

Which of the following best describes the function of the digestive system?

a)

  Break down food into nutrients for cells

b)

Eliminate wastes from the body through the skin, lungs, and kidneys

c)

Remove wastes from the blood

d)

Move blood throughout the body

116.

Which of the following steps in the digestive process is an example of chemical digestion?

a)

Stomach muscles mashing food into a pulpy mixture

b)

Teeth grinding food

c)

Saliva breaking down nutrients in food

d)

Peristalsis moving food through the esophagus

117.

Alice feels some pain in her chest after eating a big meal. Her doctor explains that the pain is caused by stomach acid being pushed upwards into the tube that connects her mouth to her stomach. Which digestive system structure is Alice’s doctor referring to?

a)

Liver

b)

Large Intestine

c)

Small Intestine

d)

Esophagus

118.

Which of the following structures is considered an excretory system structure?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Kidney

c)

Stomach

d)

Gallbladder

119.

The esophagus and intestines use waves of muscular contractions to push food in the direction it needs to go. What is the name of these muscular contractions?

a)

  Excretion

b)

Enzymes

c)

Chemical digestion

d)

Peristalsis

120.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the liver and the gallbladder?

a)

The liver creates chyme, which is then stored in the gallbladder

b)

The gallbladder creates chyme, which is then stored in the liver

c)

The liver creates bile, which is then stored in the gallbladder

d)

The gallbladder creates bile, which is then stored in the liver

121.

Where does digested food travel to after it has been broken down by enzymes and acids in the stomach?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Small intestine

c)

Kidney

d)

Large intestine

122.

One of the methods your body uses to excrete wastes is through the lungs. What type of waste product is released from your body by your lungs?

a)

Salt

b)

Urine

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide

123.

Which of the following statements about mechanical and chemical digestion is TRUE?

a)

Both mechanical and chemical digestion occur in the esophagus.

b)

Mechanical digestion involves the use of enzymes to break down large molecules while chemical digestion is the crushing and mashing of food.

c)

Chemical digestion involves the use of enzymes while mechanical digestion does not.

d)

An example of chemical digestion is chewing food with your teeth while an example of mechanical digestion is the break down of food by stomach acid.

124.

Which of the following best describes the pathway of urine in the urinary system?

a)

Urine is produced in the ureters, then travels through the urethra to the bladder where it is stored.

b)

Urine is produced in the kidneys, then travels through the ureters to the bladder where it is stored.

c)

Urine is produced in the kidneys, then travels through the urethra to the ureters where it is stored.

d)

  Urine is produced in the bladder, then travels through the ureters to the kidneys where it is stored.

125.

Some diseases cause the kidneys to not function properly. What could you assume would happen if a person’s kidneys did not work correctly?

a)

The nutrients in food could no longer be broken down

b)

Less bile would be produced

c)

Less waste would be filtered from the blood

d)

Carbon dioxide would not be excreted from the body

126.

What type of digestion occurs in the mouth?

a)

Only mechanical digestion

b)

Both mechanical and chemical digestion

c)

Neither mechanical nor chemical digestion

d)

Only chemical digestion

127.

Where does food travel once it exits the esophagus?

a)

Stomach

b)

Liver Intestine

c)

Liver

d)

  Pancreas

128.

Which of the following BEST describes, in order, the pathway of food through the digestive system?

a)

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

b)

Mouth, small intestine, esophagus, stomach, large intestine

c)

Esophagus, mouth, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

d)

Mouth, esophagus, large intestine, stomach, small intestine

129.

The group of organs that eliminates waste from the body is known as

a)

The digestive system

b)

  The skeletal system

c)

The excretory system

d)

  The muscular system

130.

Which organ serves as the LAST place chemical digestion occurs in the body?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Stomach

d)

Small Intestine

131.

Which tube takes urine from the bladder to the outside of the body?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Ureter

c)

Urethra

d)

Small intestine

132.

Which organ helps the digestive system by producing digestive fluids to send to the small intestine?

a)

Lungs

b)

Pancreas

c)

Large intestine

d)

Gallbladder

133.

True or false: the bladder makes urine.

a)

True

b)

False

134.

True or false: sweating eliminates carbon dioxide from the body.

a)

True

b)

false

135.

During an experiment, India examines prepared slides that her teacher has given her. One of the slides shows a single-celled organism that lives in soil. It has a nucleus and several internal structures. To which domain does the organism likely belong?

a)

  Archaea

b)

Bacteria

c)

Eukarya

d)

  Protist

136.

Which of the following identifies the levels of classification in the correct order?

a)

Domain, kingdom, genus, species, phylum, class, order, family

b)

Genus, species, phylum, class, order, family, domain, kingdom

c)

Genus, species, domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family

d)

Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

137.

Which of the following claims correctly describes a kingdom of Domain Eukarya?

a)

Kingdom Protista includes single-celled organisms that lack a nucleus

b)

Kingdom Plantae includes multicellular organisms that can move freely

c)

Kingdom Fungi includes organisms that get energy by decomposing materials in their environment

d)

Kingdom Animalia includes multicellular organisms that make their own food

138.

What reasoning describes how members of Domain Eukarya are different from members of Domain Archaea and Domain Bacteria?

a)

Members of Domain Eukarya have cells with membrane-bound organelles, and members of Domain Archaea and Domain Bacteria lack a nucleus

b)

  Members of Domain Archaea and Domain Bacteria are multicellular, and members of Domain Eukarya are usually single-celled organisms

c)

  Members of Domain Bacteria and Domain Archaea have structures for making their own food, and members of Domain Eukarya lack these structures

d)

  Members of Domain Eukarya are less complex than members of Domain Archaea and Domain Bacteria

139.

What are the two parts of a scientific name?

a)

  Phylum and class

b)

Domain and genus

c)

Domain and kingdom

d)

Genus and species

140.

Scientists discover an organism that has many cells that all contain a nucleus and makes its own food. Which kingdom does this organism most likely belong to?

a)

Kingdom Plantae

b)

Kingdom Archaea

c)

Kingdom Animalia

d)

Kingdom Bacteria

141.

Jelal subscribes to a nature magazine. An article about the classification of mammals includes the following table.

Based on evidence in the table, which of the following is a claim that Jelal can make?

a)

  The organisms do not have a common ancestor

b)

The organisms belong in the same genus.

c)

The organisms are members of the Domain Archaea.

d)

The organisms lack any shared DNA

142.

Kaitlynn wants to identify the characteristics that four organisms have in common. She uses the following table. 

Which organism should she identify as having the least in common with the other organisms?

a)

Organism 3

b)

Organism 1

c)

Organism 4

d)

Organism 2

143.

Which level contains the most specific, smallest, and most closely related groups of organisms?

a)

Genus

b)

Phylum

c)

Domain

d)

Species

144.

Which of the following best describes organisms in Kingdom Animalia?

a)

Unicellular and heterotrophic

b)

Multicellular and autotrophic

c)

Unicellular and autotrophic

d)

Multicellular and heterotrophic

145.

What Kingdoms are in the Domain Eukarya?

a)

plantae, animalia, fungi & protista

b)

plantae & animalia

c)

  fungi, archaea & bacteria

d)

only bacteria

146.

In a scientific name, what does the first name indicate?

a)

Kingdom

b)

Species

c)

Domain

d)

Genus

147.

Archaea and Bacteria are made up of prokaryotes.  Which of the following BEST describes a prokaryote?

a)

Unicellular & does not have a nucleus

b)

  Single celled & has a nucleus

c)

Made of many cells & does not have a nucleus

d)

Multicellular & has a nucleus

148.

Which Kingdom is only autotrophic?

a)

Protista

b)

Archaea

c)

Bacteria

d)

Plantae

149.

Which level of classification comes before order?

a)

phylum

b)

class

c)

family

d)

species

150.

Jennifer discovers an organism and wants to classify it based on the levels of classification.  This is what she knows so far- it is made up of eukaryotic cells, it is multicellular, and it is heterotrophic.  Which Kingdom does this organism belong to?

a)

Animalia

b)

Fungi

c)

Protista

d)

Plantae

151.

Seaweed, algae, slime molds & milder are examples of which of the following

a)

Archaea

b)

Fungi

c)

Plants

d)

Protista

152.

Which two organisms are LEAST closely related?

a)

two organisms from the same family

b)

two organisms from the same genus

c)

two organisms from the same kingdom

d)

two organisms from the same order

153.

Randolph swabbed a countertop in his house, placed the swab under a microscope and discovered it is unicellular, is prokaryotic & reproduces asexually.  Which Kingdom does this organism belong to?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Plantae

d)

Protista

154.

Which two organisms are MOST closely related?

a)

two organisms from the same family

b)

two organisms from the same kingdom

c)

two organisms from the same genus

d)

two organisms from the same order

155.

After basketball practice, Tyler began feeling a sharp pain in his knee. He visited the doctor and found out that he had torn one of the many ligaments in his knee. Which of the following best describes the function of the ligament he injured? 

a)

Connecting muscles to bone

b)

Connecting cartilage to muscles

c)

Cushioning the ends of bones

d)

Connecting bones to other bones

156.

_________ are the smallest level of organization and are known as the building blocks of matter.

a)

Molecules

b)

Cells

c)

Tissues

d)

Atoms

157.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

a)

Mineral Storage

b)

Support

c)

Blood cell production

d)

All of the above are functions of the skeletal system

158.

Sara is doing a project about the heart for her science class. For this project, she needs to discuss what a powerful organ the heart is, so she begins researching the type of muscle tissue found in the heart. Based on this information, which of the following muscles types is Sara most likely researching?

a)

  Voluntary muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Smooth muscle

d)

Skeletal muscle

159.

Each organ in our body has its own important job. But to keep our body functioning properly, these organs also need to work together to perform tasks like circulating blood or digesting food. Which level of organization is best described as a group of organs working together?

a)

Organ system

b)

Cell

c)

  Molecules

d)

Tissue

160.

Which of the following describes the function of joints?

a)

  Limit movement

b)

Allow movement

c)

All of the above

d)

Prevent movement

161.

Tendons connect

a)

Muscles to muscles

b)

Bones to bones

c)

Cartilage to bones

d)

Muscles to bones

162.

Where in the body would you find skeletal muscle tissue?

a)

Heart

b)

  Stomach

c)

  Liver

d)

Bicep

163.

Which part of your bone has the important function of storing minerals?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Cartilage

c)

Ligaments

d)

Compact bone

164.

Which level of organization is smaller than a cell?

a)

Molecules

b)

Organ system

c)

Organs

d)

  Tissue

165.

How do your skeletal and muscular systems work together?

a)

None of the above, the skeletal system and muscular system do not work together

b)

Bones pull on muscles to make them move

c)

Muscles pull on bones to make them move

d)

Muscles produce blood cells for your bones

166.

Which of the following describes the site where two or more bones meet?

a)

Bone Marrow

b)

Muscle

c)

Tendon

d)

Joint

167.

Each body system is composed of structures that work together. Which of the following groups of structures are part of the skeletal system?

a)

Organs, muscles, and bones

b)

Bones, ligaments, and cartilage

c)

Muscles, tendons, and joints

d)

  Tendons, ligaments, and organs

168.

What part of the bone produces blood cells?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Ligaments

c)

Cartilage

d)

Compact Bone

169.

Which of the following levels of classification is the largest?

a)

Molecule

b)

Cell

c)

Tissue

d)

Organ

170.

Which type of muscle tissue is considered involuntary?

a)

A. Cardiac

b)

  B. Skeletal

c)

C. Smooth

d)

D. Both A and C

171.

Muscles always _____; never _____.

a)

  play; rest

b)

  move; rest

c)

pull; push

d)

  push; pull

172.

What is the tough band of tissue that holds bones together?

a)

Muscles

b)

Tendons

c)

Cartilage

d)

Ligaments

173.

How many bones are there in the adult human body?

a)

260

b)

306

c)

256

d)

206

174.

What are involuntary muscles that are found in the stomach and bladder?

a)

Smooth

b)

Regular

c)

  Skeletal

d)

  Cardiac