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Semester 2 Biology Final

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which phrase best describes an exothermic chemical reaction?

a)

does not absorb any energy

b)

forms products with higher bond energy than reactants

c)

releases more energy than it absorbs 

2.

Identify the products in this reaction: 6H2O + 6CO2 🡪 C6H12O6 + 6O2

    

a)

A. 6H2O and 6CO2

b)

B. 6CO2 and C6H12O6

c)

  C. C6H12O6 and 6O2

3.

Chemical reactions that absorb more energy than they release are called

a)

A. exothermic

b)

B. catalyzed

c)

C. endothermic

4.

The activation energy needed for a chemical reaction is decreased by a

a)

A. catalyst

b)

B. reactant

c)

C. product

5.

If the activation energy of a biochemical reaction is lowered, then

a)

A. the reaction will happen faster

b)

B. the reaction will happen more slowly

c)

C. this will not affect the rate of the reaction

6.

Which macromolecule is an enzyme?

a)

A. Carbohydrate

b)

B. Lipid

c)

C. Protein

7.

The molecule that an enzyme binds to is known as its

a)

A. substrate

b)

B. monomer

c)

C. polymer

8.

The energy required to get a reaction started is known as the:

a)

A. Exothermic Ability

b)

B. Activation Energy

c)

C. Reactant

9.

An enzyme that has lost its shape and can no longer function properly is said to be:

a)

Denatured

b)

B. Activated

10.

In the enzyme activity lab, students had tennis balls taped into their hands to represent a competitive inhibitor. What is the impact of a competitive inhibitor on a reaction?

a)

Speeds it up

b)

slows it down

c)

no impact

11.

In the graph to the left, an increase in temperature results in 

a)

A. a decrease in the required activation energy.

b)

B. an increase in reaction rate.

12.

Which macromolecule found in the food you eat will your cells break down first to get ATP?

a)

A. Carbohydrates

b)

B. Lipids

c)

C. Proteins

13.

Which phrase best describes the function of the ATP molecule?

a)

 stores energy

b)

creates energy

14.

Energy is released from an ATP molecule for cellular processes when it

a)

A. converts a phosphate group to ADP

b)

B. attaches an extra phosphate group.

c)

C. loses a phosphate group.

15.

Where does your body get the energy for reattaching a third phosphate to ADP, creating ATP?

a)

A. usually from carbs

b)

B. from nucleic acids

c)

C. from breaking ATP

16.

All of the following parts make up an ADP molecule EXCEPT

a)

A. structure B

b)

B. structure C

c)

C. structure D

17.

Which structures pictured would make up an ATP molecule?

only

a)

A. A and B

b)

B. A, B and C

c)

C. A, B, C, and D

18.

Between which two letters will the bond break to release energy?

a)

A. A and B

b)

B. B and C

c)

C. C, and D

19.

The sugar that is found in ATP is:

a)

A. Splenda

b)

B. sucrose

c)

C. Ribose

20.

Photosynthesis takes in energy from the sun to create glucose. This reaction that absorbs energy is considered to be:

a)

Activated

b)

Endothermic

21.

Cellular Respiration breaks the bonds in food to release energy which is stored in ATP. This reaction, which releases energy is considered to be:

a)

A. Activated

b)

B. Endothermic

c)

C. Exothermic

22.

The nitrogen base found in ATP and ADP is:

a)

A. Thymine

b)

B. Cytosine

c)

C. Adenine

23.

The energy you can use in the food that you eat is stored in its:

a)

A. Chemical Bonds

b)

B. Heat

c)

C. DNA

24.

Organisms that use energy from the sun to make their own food are called.

a)

A. carnivores

b)

B. consumers

c)

C. omnivores

d)

D. producers.

25.

The figure to the left shows a trophic pyramid for an ecosystem.  What happens to the amount of energy in the pyramid as it moves up through the different levels?

a)

A. Energy increases by 10% each level

b)

B. Energy decreases by 90% each level

26.

In food chains, the flow of energy is ALWAYS _________.

a)

A. one-way

b)

B. reversible

c)

C. two-way

27.

The following organisms make up a food chain: 

algae 🡪 fish 🡪 bear.  If you were to place the bear into the trophic pyramid to the left, the bear would go on level _____ and have ________ amount of energy available to it.

a)

A. A; the least

b)

B. C; the least

c)

C. A; the greatest

d)

D. B; an intermediate

28.

All energy on earth comes from the:

a)

A. Core of the Earth

b)

B. Wind

c)

C. Sun

29.

ALL organisms that get their energy from living or once-living organisms are known as:

a)

A. carnivores

b)

B. consumers

c)

C. producers

30.

Which of the following would be considered an autotroph?

a)

A. Bear

b)

B. corn plant

31.

A buzzard lives off dead and decaying matter. Which of the following best describes a buzzard?

a)

A. Carnivore

b)

B. Omnivore

c)

C. Detrivore

32.

A coyote is an opportunist that will eat anything it can find: mice, bugs, fruit, berries, etc. Which of the following best describes a coyote?

a)

A. Carnivore

b)

B. Omnivore

c)

C. Herbivore

d)

D. Detrivore

33.

Which of the following would be considered a primary consumer?

a)

A. Bear

b)

B. Shark

c)

C. Grass Hopper

d)

D. Oak tree

34.

 The purpose of photosynthesis is to

a)

A. make ATP for humans

b)

B. build proteins in plants

c)

C. store solar energy as sugar.

35.

In which organelle does photosynthesis occur? 

a)

A. Mitochondria

b)

B. Chloroplast

36.

After photosynthesis is finished inside of a plant, six molecules of oxygen have been produced, as well as a single molecule of C6H12O6, otherwise known as

a)

A. carbon dioxide.

b)

B. water

c)

C. glucose.

37.

Photosynthesis occurs in two stages: light-dependent reactions and light-independent reactions.  During the light-dependent reactions,

a)

A. water molecules are split by sunlight.

b)

B. a molecule of sugar

c)

C. glucose is made

38.

During photosynthesis, different gases move in and out of plant cells.  Which phrase best represents the net flow of gases involved in photosynthesis?

a)

A. Carbon dioxide moves in; oxygen moves out

b)

B. Oxygen moves in; carbon dioxide moves out

39.

Why is the presence of chlorophyll in plants important?

a)

A. It assembles the sugar.

b)

B. It creates ATP to power the process.

c)

C. It captures water to be used in the process .

d)

D. It absorbs the solar energy needed to create the sugar.

40.

Which process can produce the most energy for a cell?

a)

A. Lactic acid fermentation

b)

B. Aerobic respiration

c)

C. Anaerobic respiration

41.

At the beginning of cellular respiration ____________________________ occurs, where glucose is broken down into pyruvate and ATP.  This step does not require any oxygen.

a)

A. Glycolysis

b)

B. Krebs/Citric acid cycle

c)

C. Electron Transport Chain

42.

Which process takes place in the inner membrane of mitochondria?

a)

A. Krebs Cycle

b)

B. Electron Transport Chain

c)

C. Citric acid Cycle

43.

 Energy from food must be transformed into the bonds of _________ before it can be used by cells.

a)

A. ATP

b)

B. NADP

44.

 In humans, where does DNA replication take place?

a)

A. Cytoplasm

b)

B. Nucleus

45.

A scientist is doing an experiment to identify different molecules. Some components of these molecules are listed in this table. Which of the four molecules is DNA, based on the table to the right?

a)

A. Molecule 1

b)

B. Molecule 2

c)

C. Molecule 3

d)

D. Molecule 4

46.

The picture below shows the steps of DNA replication beginning with step one and ending with step three.  ​Because you are reusing the old, or parent, DNA strand DNA replication is said to be

a)

Fully Conservation

b)

Semi-Conservative

47.

Use the diagram to the right AND your knowledge of biology to answer this question.  Structures 3 and 4 are held together by

a)

A. weak peptide bonds

b)

B. strong hydrogen bonds.

c)

C. weak hydrogen bonds.

48.

In nucleotides, the letters A, G, C, and T represent 

a)

A. phosphate groups.

b)

B. deoxyribose sugars.

c)

C. nitrogen bases.

49.

Which of the following nucleic acids contains thymine?

a)

DNA only

b)

transfer RNA only

c)

Messenger RNA only

d)

all of the above

50.

DNA is a polymer made of many monomers known as:

a)

Peptides

b)

Amino acids

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Phosphates

51.

The mRNA which is copying the code directly from DNA is represented by which number .

a)

A. 1

b)

B. 2

52.

What is the molecule produced by the process shown above?

a)

A. Glucose

b)

B. A protein

53.

Structure number 2 represents a .

a)

A. tRNA

b)

B. mRNA

54.

The bond between amino acids which is represented by number 5 is a ____ bond.

a)

A. covalent

b)

B. peptide

55.

Amino Acids link together to form:

a)

A. Carbohydrates

b)

B. DNA

c)

C. Protein

56.

 If a portion of a messenger RNA molecule contains the base sequence A-A-U, then the corresponding anti-codon on the tRNA base sequence is .

a)

A. G-G-T

b)

B. T-T-A

c)

C. U-U-A

57.

 The sequence of ________________ in a DNA molecule determines the protein that will be produced.

a)

A. lipids

b)

B. nucleotides

58.

How many amino acids are coded for by the strand of mRNA shown here?  Assume the reading frame begins with the first nucleotide.

  A  U  G  U  A  C 

a)

A. 1

b)

B. 2

59.

Which statement below BEST summarizes the role of DNA in cells?

a)

A. It guides cell division.

b)

B. It protects cells from infection.

c)

C. It provides the instructions for making proteins.

60.

A Chromosome...

a)

Is a subunit that makes up nucleic acids

b)

Is a subunit that makes up protein

c)

Is a portion of a chromosome that codes for a single protein

d)

Is a portion of DNA that is condensed and rod-like.

61.

A gene...

a)

Is a subunit that makes up nucleic acids

b)

Is a subunit that makes up protein

c)

Is a portion of a chromosome that codes for a single protein

d)

Is a portion of DNA that is condensed and rod-like.

62.

A nucleotide...

a)

Is a subunit that makes up nucleic acids

b)

Is a subunit that makes up protein

c)

Is a portion of a chromosome that codes for a single protein

d)

Is a portion of DNA that is condensed and rod-like.

63.

A codon...

a)

Is a subunit that makes up nucleic acids

b)

Is a subunit that makes up protein

c)

Is a set of 3 nucleotides that code for a specific amino acid

d)

Is a portion of DNA that is condensed and rod-like.

64.

An amino acid...

a)

Is a subunit that makes up nucleic acids

b)

Is a subunit that makes up protein

c)

Is a portion of a chromosome that codes for a single protein

d)

Is a portion of DNA that is condensed and rod-like.

65.

The form of a gene that is always expressed if present is the form.

a)

A. recessive

b)

B. dominant

66.

Two heterozygous purple-flowering pea plants are crossed. (Pp x Pp ) If purple is dominant over white, what are the expected phenotypic results?  Use a punnett square to prove your answer.

a)

A. 100% purple.

b)

B. 75% purple; 25% white.

c)

C. 50% purple, 50% white.

67.

If an organism inherits one dominant allele and one recessive allele for eye color, their genotype would be:

a)

A. haploid

b)

B. homozygous

c)

C. heterozygous

68.

Two parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a recessive allele.  What is the chance that any of their children will inherit the disorder?

a)

A. 25%

b)

B. 50%

c)

C. 75%

69.

In pigs, the allele for a wavy, rough coat (R) is dominant to the allele for a soft, fine coat (r). A rough coat boar and a soft coat sow mate. They produce several litters, 50% are rough coat and 50% are smooth coat. What must be the genotypes of the parents to create this phenotypic ratio?

a)

A. RR × rr

b)

B. Rr × rr

c)

C. RR × Rr

d)

D. Rr × Rr

70.

Imagine two heterozygous parents.  Each has a dominant allele (B) for brown eyes and a recessive allele (b) for blue eyes (Bb x Bb).  What would the genotypic ratio of the offspring be?

a)

A. 100% Bb

b)

B. 50% BB, 50% Bb

c)

C. 25% BB, 50% Bb, 25% bb

d)

D. 50% Bb, 50% bb

71.

An example of a homozygous recessive is

a)

Aa

b)

aa

72.

 An example of homozygous dominant is:

a)

Aa

b)

AA

73.

A cross between two individuals concentrating on only one definable trait. Ex: AA

a)

Monohybrid cross

b)

Dihybrid cross

74.

A cross between organisms involving 2 pairs of contrasting traits; Aa and Tt

a)

Monohybrid Cross

b)

Dihybrid cross

75.

 The trait that always appears, even in a heterozygous combination

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

76.

A condition in which neither of two alleles of a gene is totally dominant over the other. 

a)

Multiple Alleles

b)

Codominance

77.

Three or more forms of a gene that code for a single trait. 

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

Codominance

78.

Red hair and freckles are commonly inherited together.  Which of the following patterns of inheritance explains this?       

a)

A.  Linked genes

b)

B. Multiple alleles

79.

Which pair of genes in the diagram to the right would be most likely to be inherited together? 

a)

A. A and B

b)

B. A and C

80.

In a newly discovered species of flower, it was discovered that the color of the flowers is determined by two different genes. This results in a flower with a color that is a blend of the two parent flowers.  Which of the following inheritance patterns is this?

a)

A. Multiple alleles

b)

B. Incomplete dominance

81.

 For an XX female to express a recessive sex-linked trait, she must have .

a)

A. a Y chromosome

b)

B. one recessive allele

c)

C. two recessive alleles

82.

Human height occurs in a continuous range because it is affected by the interaction of many genes, making it a(n)

a)

A. autosomal trait

b)

B. polygenic trait.

83.

83. When getting an X-ray taken at the doctor’s office, you notice the technician cover you with a heavy vest.  This vest, you are told, contains lead, a metal that can block X-rays, which are a form of radiation.  The technician covers your torso, and folds the vest over double across your reproductive organs (testes/ovaries).  This is done because radiation can damage the DNA of these organs, causing a mutation you may pass to children.  Substances like radiation and other certain chemicals are known as mutagens because 

a)

A. they cause cancer

b)

B. they cause mutations in the sequence of DNA.

c)

C. they generate muteness.

84.

A change in a gene or a chromosome

a)

Mutation

b)

Mutagen

c)

Somatic Cells

85.

Body cells are also known as:

a)

Gametic Cells

b)

Somatic Cells

c)

Autosomal Cells

86.

 When a single nucleotide is replaced with a different nucleotide CTGGAC  to CTGGGC it is called:

a)

Gene Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

87.

When a section of a chromosome breaks off and becomes attached to another chromosome. 

a)

Point Mutation

b)

Chromosome Mutation

88.

 How would you categorize a genetic disorder that is equally likely in males and females and is caused by the presence of two affected alleles?

a)

A. Autosomal dominant disorder

b)

B. Sex-linked disorder

89.

Mutations can be caused by all of the following except .

a)

A. viruses

b)

B. global warming

c)

C. chemicals

90.

 Sex cells are also called…

a)

Somatic Cells

b)

Gametic Cells

c)

Autosomal Cells

91.

A person that doesn't show the disease but can pass the disease causing allele to offspring.

a)

Pedigree

b)

Carrier

c)

Dominator

92.

A chart used to trace the phenotypes and genotypes in a family to determine whether people carry diseases or traits

a)

Pedigree

b)

Carrier

c)

Dominator

93.

In the diagram, what does a square represent?

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

Affected individual

94.

In the diagram, what does a circle represent?

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

Affected individual

95.

In the diagram, what does a completely filled in square represent?

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

Affected individual

96.

In the diagram, what does a completely empty circle represent?

a)

Unaffected Individual

b)

Horizontal Line

c)

A vertical Line

97.

In the diagram, what does a horizontal line represent?

a)

Unaffected Individual

b)

Marriage

c)

Offspring

98.

In the diagram, what does a vertical line represent?

a)

Unaffected Individual

b)

Marriage

c)

Offspring

99.

A population of bacteria is treated with hand sanitizer.  Because of genetic variation in the population, what is a possible outcome?

a)

A. The population will grow quickly

b)

B. Some may be resistant and survive.

100.

One of the biggest ways that a species evolves is because some organisms with some traits survive and reproduce better than others.  This process is known as

a)

A. natural selection

b)

B. convergent evolution.

c)

C. coevolution.

d)

D. sexual selection.

101.

An adaptation is

a)

A. any trait an organism possesses

b)

B. how an organism evolves during its own lifetime.

c)

C. a gene an organism has.

d)

D. a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment.

102.

Genetic diversity is ultimately/mainly the result of

a)

A. meiosis

b)

B. viruses

c)

C. mutations.

d)

D. reproduction.

103.

Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce

a)

A. fewer mutations

b)

B. more offspring

c)

C. stronger gene

d)

D. better traits

104.

Which of the following is not an example of a biological process in a biogeochemical cycle? 

a)

A. Transpiration

b)

B. Erosion

105.

Carbon dioxide is returned to the atmosphere primarily by 

a)

A. combustion by humans.

b)

B. photosynthesis by producers.

106.

Carbon cycles through the biosphere in all of the following processes EXCEPT .

a)

A. photosynthesis

b)

B. transpiration

c)

C. burning of fossil fuels

d)

D. decomposition of plants and animals

107.

Nitrogen fixation is carried out mainly by .

a)

Humans

b)

Bacteria

108.

 In the carbon cycle, decomposers return carbon to the soil.  Which of the following is NOT something that decomposers can break down?

a)

A. Waste products like urine or feces

b)

B. The bodies of dead plants and animals.

c)

C. Carbon dioxide found in the air

109.

Humans increase carbon dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere, and contribute to the carbon cycle by

a)

A. combustion from driving cars.

b)

B. planting trees to improve photosynthesis.

c)

C. conserving energy with alternative energies.

110.

When deforestation (cutting down trees) occurs in an area, what immediate effect does this have on the water cycle?

a)

A. More water is returned to the atmosphere by transpiration.

b)

B. There is less runoff water, but more transpiration.

c)

C. More photosynthesis occurs, and CO2 begins decreasing.

d)

D. Less is returned to the air by transpiration.

111.

Water can be returned to the atmosphere through the leaves of plants by.

a)

A. evaporation

b)

B. condensation.

c)

C. precipitation

d)

D. transpiration.

112.

For the carbon cycle and the nitrogen cycle to function properly, which organisms must always be present?

a)

A. Decomposers

b)

B. Herbivores

113.

What pattern of growth is shown by humans on Earth, whose population is growing out of control?

a)

A. Exponential

b)

B. Logistic

c)

C. Carrying capacity

d)

D. Population crash

114.

A renewable resource is one that

a)

is used faster than it is replenished.

b)

is replenished as fast as it is used.

c)

is used like fossil fuels.

d)

can be recycled.

115.

The development of nuclear power has provided electricity for less money, but with a tradeoff.  What may be considered a negative impact of nuclear power?

a)

A. Large amounts of energy are produced very cheaply.

b)

B. It takes a lot of energy to run a nuclear power plant.

c)

C. Nuclear power plants provide new jobs for a community.

d)

D. The radioactive waste is unsafe and hard to store safely.

116.

Examine the diagram to the right and the trend seen by the two lines.  Global temperature has been closely linked with the buildup of CO2 in the atmosphere.  Which of the following statements is most likely true based on the graph?

a)

Since 1880, carbon dioxide has caused a temperature increase of 10° Fahrenheit.

b)

Since 1880, adding carbon dioxide has caused the global temperature to decline.

c)

Since 1880, carbon dioxide has caused the temperature to increase by about 1.2 degrees.

d)

Since 1880, carbon dioxide has no effect on the global temperature.

117.

 What human activity would have the most significant effect on the temperature of the earth?

a)

A. deforestation

b)

B. water pollution

c)

C. solar panels

d)

D. burning fossil fuels