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Science 10 Final Exam review

Total questions: 158

Worksheet time: 3hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the formula for Chromium (VI) phosphate?

a)

   Cr6PO4Cr_6PO_4  

b)

Cr(PO3)2Cr\left(PO_3\right)_2  

c)

Cr(PO4)2Cr\left(PO_4\right)_2  

d)

Cr2PO3Cr_2PO_3  

2.

What type of compound is P2Cl3P_2Cl_3  

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

d)

Carbonic

3.

What is the name of this acid? H2SO4H_2SO_4  

a)

Hydrosulfuric acid

b)

Sulfuric acid

c)

Hydrosulfurous acid

d)

Sulfurous Acid

4.

How do you name this base NaOH

a)

Sodium (I) hydroxide

b)

Sodium hydro oxogen

c)

Sodium hydroxide

d)

Sodium monohydroxide

5.

How do you write the formula for this compound Diphosphorous tetrachloride

a)

2P4Cl

b)

PCl2PCl_2  

c)

P2Cl4P_2Cl_4  

d)

P2Cl5P_2Cl_5  

6.

Which of the following is a property of ionic bonds

a)

High boiling point

b)

Low Conductivity

c)

Low melting point

d)

Soft/squishy solid

7.

What type of compound is this? HNO3HNO_3  

a)

Metallic

b)

Acidic

c)

Covalent

d)

Basic

8.
_P4+_O2 →  _P2O3
a)
3 P4+1 O2 → 2 P2O3
b)
1 P4+1 O2 → 2 P2O3
c)
1 P4+ 3 O2 → 2 P2O3
d)
1 P4+ 2 O2 → 3 P2O3
9.

The correct balance equation is:

_AlBr3 + _K2SO4 → _KBr + _Al2(SO4)3

a)

6 AlBr3 + 1 K2SO4 → 6 KBr + 1 Al2(SO4)3

b)

2 AlBr3 + 3 K2SO4 → 6 KBr + 1 Al2(SO4)3

c)

1 AlBr3 + 1 K2SO4 → 2 KBr + 3 Al2(SO4)3

d)

2 AlBr3 + 3 K2SO4 → 1 KBr + 2 Al2(SO4)3

10.

3 Pb + 2 H3PO4 ----> 3 H2 + Pb3(PO4)2

a)

Formation (Synthesis)

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single replacement

d)

Double replacement

e)

Combustion

11.

2 NH3+ H2SO4 ----> (NH4)2SO4

a)

Formation (Synthesis)

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single replacement

d)

Double replacement

e)

Combustion

12.

What reaction has the following general formula:
CxHy + O2 −>CO2 + H2OC_xH_y\ +\ O_2\ ->CO_{2\ }+\ H_2O  

a)

Formation

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

13.

What type of reaction is the following:
BaCl2+2KI −> 2KCl + BaI2BaCl_2+2KI\ ->\ 2KCl\ +\ BaI_2  

a)

Formation

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

14.

What type of reaction is the following:
2KI −> 2K + I22KI\ ->\ 2K\ +\ I_2  

a)

Formation

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

15.

The atomic number tells us the number of ____________?

a)

Neutrons

b)

Protons

c)

Electrons

d)

Atoms

16.
Elements in the same family have similar _______________.
a)
Protons
b)
Physical and Chemical Properties
c)
Shape
d)
Size
17.

Which family of elements are the most reactive?

a)

Alkali Metals

b)

Alkaline Metals

c)

Halogens

d)

Nobel Gases

18.

Which family of elements is the least reactive?

a)

Alkali metals

b)

Alkaline Metals

c)

Halogens

d)

Nobel Gases

19.
Metals tend to 
a)
gain electrons
b)
lose electrons
20.
How many valence electrons does a bromine atom have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
6
d)
7
21.
What part of an atom is involved in chemical bonding?
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
d)
nucleus
22.
How many valence electrons does hydrogen have?
a)
3
b)
2
c)
5
d)
1
23.
Compounds made from only nonmetals are _________________ compounds.
a)
ionic
b)
covalent
c)
metallic
d)
chemical
24.
The proton is _____
a)
heavy and neutral
b)
heavy and negatively charged
c)
heavy and positively charged
d)
light and negatively charged
25.
The word "atom" is from the _____
a)
Latin for "three parts"
b)
Greek for "indivisible"
c)
Gaelic for "uncuttable"
d)
French for "tiny"
26.

JJ Thomson was credited for the discovery of the:

a)

Center of the universe

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Neutron

27.

Which Scientist created this model?

a)

Democritus

b)

Chadwick

c)

Bohr

d)

Rutherford

28.
What is the mass number of this nucleus?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
7
29.
a)
4
b)
6
c)
8
d)
10
30.
What is the atomic mass for Potassium?
a)
19
b)
39.098
c)
20.098
d)
58.098
31.
What is the mass of H2O in the reaction above?
a)
70.01
b)
24.11
c)
21.44
d)
48.22
32.
During Photosynthesis energy is absorbed. What kind of reaction is it?
a)
Physical
b)
Exothermic
c)
Endothermic
d)
Photothermic
33.
Which of these is covalent?
a)
NaCl
b)
Pb(NO3)2
c)
CO2
d)
AlCl3
34.
Name this formula: 
Fe3PO4
a)
Iron Phosphide
b)
Iron (III) Phosphide
c)
Iron (I) Phosphate
d)
Iron Phosphate
35.
What is the correct formula for barium phosphate?
a)
BaPO4
b)
Ba2(PO4)3
c)
Ba3(PO4)2
d)
BaP
36.

The charge of an ion is -3. This means the atom must have:

a)

Gained 3 protons

b)

Lost 3 protons

c)

Gained 3 electrons

d)

Lost 3 electrons

37.

How many neutrons does this bromine atom have?

a)

35

b)

45

c)

80

d)

115

38.

How many electrons does this magnesium ion have?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

10

d)

14

39.

The symbol for a substance dissolved in solution is ______

a)

(s)

b)

(l)

c)

(aq)

d)

(g)

40.

Complete the balanced equation for this Double Replacement reaction.

3 NaOH + Fe(NO3)3 →

a)

NaFe + OH(NO3)3

b)

NaNO3 + Fe(OH)3

c)

3 NaNO3 + Fe(OH)3

d)

3 NaFe + 3 (OH)NO3

41.

Predict the products for the this Double Replacement reaction:

AgNO3 + KCl →

a)

AgCl + KNO3

b)

AgK + ClNO3

c)

KAg + NO3Cl

d)

AgCl + 3 KNO

42.

Predict the product of this synthesis reaction:

Al + S₈ →

a)

AlS

b)

AlS8

c)

Al2S

d)

Al2S3

43.

How many neutrons are in the isotope Carbon-14?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

14

44.

What is the mass-form for the isotope with 38 protons and 50 neutrons?

a)

Stronium-88

b)

Stronium-50

c)

Tin-88

d)

Tin-50

45.
If X is the symbol for an element, which of the following two symbols represent    isotopes of the same element?     I. 7735X  II. 7733X  III. 8137X  IV. 8135 X
a)
I and II
b)
III and IV
c)
I and IV
d)
I and III
46.

Who was the first person to identify and see cells?

a)

Rudolf Virchow

b)

Robert Hooke

c)

Richard Marrow

d)

Ronald Keeper

47.

Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?

a)

control most of the cell's processes

b)

contains the information to make proteins

c)

stores DNA

d)

all of the above

48.

Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton?

a)

helps a cell keep its shape

b)

helps make proteins

c)

surrounds the cell

d)

contains DNA

49.

Which organelle would you expect to find ONLY in plant cells?

a)

chloroplast

b)

reticulum

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondrion

50.
surrounds the cell; regulates what enters/leaves cell; maintains homeostasis
a)
vacuole
b)
cell wall
c)
cell membrane
d)
lysosome
51.
breaks down glucose to release energy for the cell
a)
nucleus
b)
lysosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuole
52.
Robert Hooke, Anton van Leeuwenhoek, Theodor Schwann, Rudolf Virchow, and Matthias Schliden were all responsible for what theory?
a)
The Theory of Gravity
b)
The Theory of Relativity
c)
The Cell Theory
d)
The Theory of Continental Drift
53.
What two molecules are needed for photosynthesis to occur?
a)
oxygen and water
b)
CO2 and water
c)
glucose and water
d)
CO2 and glucose
54.
Where does the carbon come from that is used to form glucose?
a)
The soil
b)
CO2 in the air
c)
From other carbohydrates
d)
Calvin Cycle
55.

Phloem and Xylem together make up the...

a)

Ground Tissue

b)

Vascular Tissue

c)

Dermal Tissue

d)

Cardiac Tissue

56.

Guard cells help plants by...

a)

Increasing photosynthesis

b)

Transporting water

c)

Protecting the roots

d)

Opening and closing stomata

57.

Which type of Vascular Tissue has two-way transport, with sieve plates dividing it into sections?

a)

Xylem

b)

Ground Tissue

c)

Phloem

d)

Epidermal Tissue

58.

What is a function of the cuticle?

a)

The cuticle holds photosynthetic cells.

b)

The cuticle transports water.

c)

The cuticle transports minerals and nutrients.

d)

The cuticle reduces the loss of water.

59.
Which type of plant tissue covers the outer surface of the plant and acts as a protective layer?
a)
Dermal
b)
Vascular
c)
Ground
d)
Connective
60.

What is the function of root hairs?

a)

Root hairs increase root surface area and absorb water.

b)

Root hairs decrease root surface area but absorb more water.

c)

Root hairs are vestigial parts of roots from prehistoric plants.

d)

Root hairs help to keep the plant roots warm during cold days.

61.

This scientist is credited with seeing living bacteria in water.

a)

Scheiden

b)

Hooke

c)

von Leeuwenhoek

d)

Pasteur

62.

On a sunny day, the gas exchange between a leaf and the atmosphere would involve O2 leaving the leaf and CO2 and H2O coming into the leaf.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

What is the name of another part in plants that functions similarly to a stomata?

a)

Phloem

b)

Xylem

c)

Root hairs

d)

Lenticels

64.
Contains the ocular lens
a)
A
b)
C
c)
H
d)
B
65.
To control the amount of light entering the stage you would use
a)
the nosepiece
b)
the diaphragm
c)
the arm
d)
the eyepiece
66.
It is the processing, packages and secretes proteins; proteins are transported in vesicles  .
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Lysosomes
c)
Golgi apparatus
d)
Mitochondria
67.

If each division is 100 µm (1 mm), what is the length of this organism?

a)

4 µm

b)

400 µm

c)

4,000 µm

d)

400 mm

68.
What is the total magnification of a microscope with two lenses when one lens has a magnification of 10x, and the other lens has a magnification of 30x?
a)
15x
b)
30x
c)
40x
d)
300x
69.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
70.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
71.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)

food

b)

energy

c)

oxygen

d)

water

72.
The cell below is in a _____________ solution.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
73.
The larger a cell is, the more difficult it is for the cell to move enough nutrients and wastes across its cell membrane to maintain its normal functions.
a)

True

b)

False

74.
What does it mean if a plant has a POSITIVE phototropism?
a)
That the plant grows toward light.
b)
That the plant grows away from light.
c)
That the plant grows toward gravity.
d)
That the plant grows away from gravity. 
75.
What does it mean if a plant has a POSITIVE gravitropism?
a)
That the plant grows toward light.
b)
That the plant grows away from light.
c)
That the plant grows toward gravity.
d)
That the plant grows away from gravity. 
76.

Which scientist placed meat in different jars, some covered and some uncovered to help invalidate Spontaneous Generation.

a)

Lazzaro Spallanzani

b)

Francesco Redi

c)

Jan Baptist van Helmont

d)

Louis Pasteur

77.

Louis Pasteur used a swan necked flask in his experiments to disprove spontaneous generation because it

a)

prevented microorganisms in the air from entering the flask

b)

allowed the broth to remain warm for long periods of time

c)

prevented microorganisms in the broth from leaving the flask

d)

killed any microorganisms already in the broth

78.

What is B?

a)

Light

b)

Arm

c)

Base

d)

Revolving Nose Piece

79.

What was the independent variable in Redi's experiment?

a)

The type of meat he put in the jars

b)

The amount of time in his experiment

c)

The type of covering on the jars containing meat

d)

The flies's eggs

80.

In Pasteur's experiment, which of the flasks had broth that remained clear? (no bacterial growth)

a)

Left flask

b)

Right flask

c)

Both flasks

d)

Neither flask

81.
Which microscope delivers the highest overall magnification possible?
a)
Scanning Electron (SEM)
b)
Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)
c)
Light Microscope
d)
Dissecting Microscope
82.
Electron microscopes use a beam of _________________ to produce an image magnified up to 100,000 or more
a)
Sunlight
b)
Lasers
c)
Electrons
83.

This scientist named the nucleus.

a)

Brown

b)

Baur

c)

Galileo

d)

Virchow

84.

Which of the images below represents a chloroplast?

a)
b)
c)
d)
85.

Which 2 organelles are involved in the making of a protein?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Lysosome

c)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

86.

What is the "big idea" of the Fluid Mosaic Model of plasma membranes?

a)

the plasma membrane creates a specialized FLUID that looks like a MOSAIC.

b)

the plasma membrane is a MOSAIC.

c)

the fluid mosaic model is NOT related to the plasma membrane.

d)

a plasma membrane is a MOSAIC of components that move FREELY and FLUIDLY.

87.
In which case would a cell most likely shrink?
a)
when placed in a solution containing a high salt concentration
b)
when placed in a isotonic solution
c)
when placed in a solution containing a low pH
d)
when placed in a solution containing distilled water
88.

Against the concentration gradient

low to high uses energy/ATP

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

d)

simple diffusion

89.

Identify the following structure

a)

Phospholipid

b)

Cell

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Protein

90.

What is the name of 'D' found on the structure below

a)

Lipid hydrophobic tails

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid bi layer

d)

Phosphate hydrophilic heads

91.
For cells to stay alive they require what type of SA:V?
a)
Large SA, Large V
b)
Small SA, Large V
c)
Large SA, Small V
d)
Small SA, Small V
92.
Which best describes a difference between a unicellular organism and a multicellular organism?
a)
A unicellular organism is a plant and a multicellular organism is a human.
b)
A unicellular organism has one purpose- to survive.  A multicellular organism has many cells working together to keep the organism alive.
c)
A multicellular organism is simple and a unicellular organism is complex.
d)
A unicellular organism can only be found in certain biomes but a multicellular organism can be found anywhere on Earth.
93.

#4 - layer of irregular cells with space in between the cells

a)

Pallisade mesophyll

b)

Phloem

c)

Spongy mesophyll

d)

Xylem

94.
Transpiration is
a)
the movement of water through a plant from the roots up the stem
b)
the loss of water from the leaves of a plant by the process of evaporation
c)
the flow of water into plant roots by osmosis from the soil
d)
the process of minerals and sugars moving through plant veins
95.

Describe COHESION.

a)

Water molecules attracted to other substances.

b)

Water molecules climbing upwards against the force of gravity.

c)

Water molecules dissolving many substances because of its polarity.

d)

Water molecules attracted to other water molecules.

96.
molecule in which opposite ends have opposite electric charges
a)
cohesion
b)
polar molecule
c)
hydrogen bond
d)
solution
97.

A system that exchanges both matter and energy.

a)

Open

b)

Closed

c)

Isolated

98.

Find the molar mass of CaCO3CaCO_3   

a)

100.09g

b)

100g

c)

100.2g

d)

101g

99.

Find the number of moles in 45 grams of H2H_2  

a)

22.27mol

b)

22.28mol

c)

27.22mol

d)

28.22mol

100.

Find the number of grams of a substance containing 2mol of NaHCO3NaHCO_3   

a)

84g

b)

84.01g

c)

168g

d)

168.02g

101.
How many water molecules are in 5.2 moles of water?
a)
6.02 x 1023
b)
5.2
c)
3.1304 x 1024
d)
8.638 x 10-24
102.

What is the mass of one mole of aluminum chloride?

a)

62.43 g

b)

116.40 g

c)

133.33 g

d)

97.88 g

103.

How many moles of K2SO4 would have a mass of 50.0 g?

a)

0.287 mol

b)

287 mol

c)

8.71 x 103 mol

d)

28.6 mol

104.

If the exponent is a negative number...

a)

you will get a large number

b)

you will get a small number

105.

What is 3,525 in scientific notation with 3 significant digits?

a)

3.52 x 103

b)

3.53 x 103

c)

3.53 x 104

d)

3.5 x 103

106.
Calculate 12.34 + 1.234 + 0.1234 and give your answer with the correct number of significant figures.
a)
13.6974
b)
13.697
c)
13.70
d)
13.7
107.

Calculate 1.23 m x 0.89 m and give your answer with the correct number of significant figures.

a)

1.0 m2

b)

1.1 m2

c)

1.0947 m2

d)

1.095 m2

108.

How many significant figures are there in the expression below?


0. 0 0 0 0 0 2 3 4

a)

3 SF

b)

8 SF

c)

9 SF

109.
This bullseye demonstrates...
a)
High Accuracy & High Precision
b)
High Accuracy & Low Precision
c)
Low Accuracy & High Precision
d)
Low Accuracy & Low Precision
110.

This bullseye demonstrates...

a)

High Accuracy & High Precision

b)

High Accuracy & Low Precision

c)

Low Accuracy & High Precision

d)

Low Accuracy & Low Precision

111.

How many significant figures are there in 10.020 moles?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

112.

How many significant figures are there in 1008 grams?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

113.

1.61 grams + 100 grams = ?

a)

101.61 g

b)

101 g

c)

1.61 x 102 g

d)

100 g

114.
Calculate 1.23 m x 0.89 m and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.
a)
1.0 m2
b)
1.1 m2
c)
1.0947 m2
d)
1.09 m2
115.

A measure of the quantity of matter in an object

a)

Weight

b)

Force

c)

Mass

d)

Vector

116.

Quantities that are fully described by ONLY a magnitude

a)

Vector

b)

Scalar

c)

Mass

d)

Energy

117.

The force that resists motion between bodies in contact

a)

Slope

b)

Velocity

c)

Friction

d)

Scalar

118.

the SAME change in speed over each equal interval of time

a)

Velocity

b)

Slope

c)

Speed

d)

Constant Acceleration

119.

When calculating vectors, you answer must have...

a)

Proper sig figs and unit

b)

Proper sig figs, units, and direction

c)

Proper sig figs

d)

Direction

120.

Meters per second (m/s) are units for...

a)

Acceleration

b)

Distance

c)

Time

d)

Velocity

121.

What is the car in this motion map doing?

a)

It's not moving

b)

It's moving to the right at a constant velocity

c)

It's moving to the right and speeding up

d)

It's moving to the left and slowing down

122.

What is happening in this graph?

a)

An object is moving in the negative direction at a constant speed

b)

An object is moving and slowing down over time

c)

An object is moving and speeding up over time

d)

An object is accelerating in the negative direction

123.

In the given graph, which interval is the object not moving?

a)

B to C

b)

C to D

c)

D to E

d)

only at point A

124.

Which runner stopped for a rest?

a)

Albert

b)

Bob

c)

Charlie

125.

This is a velocity-time graph. What is the object doing in segment A?

a)

Positive acceleration

b)

Negative acceleration

c)

Constant Velocity

d)

Not moving

126.

Calculate the acceleration for segment A.

a)

2 m/s2

b)

20 m/s2

c)

-2 m/s2

d)

0 m/s2

127.

Which runner won the race?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

128.

At what time did runner A pass runner B?

a)

0 seconds

b)

1 second

c)

2 seconds

d)

3 seconds

129.

Every morning, Tom walks along a straight road from his home to the bus stop. Below, is a graph representing Tom’s trip to school.

- What is the average speed of Tom’s complete journey?

a)

1.6 m/s

b)

1.3 m/s

c)

2.33 m/s

d)

2.8 m/s

130.

Which elevator is traveling the FASTEST?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

131.

A car accelerates from 10 m/s to 20 m/s in 5 s. What is the acceleration of the car?

a)

2 m/s/s

b)

2 m/s

c)

6 m/s/s

d)

6 m/s

132.

Solve this problem: An elevator starts moving upward at a velocity of 1.4 m/s and is accelerating 1.7 m/s/s. How fast is the elevator travelling after 4 s?

a)

7.3 m/s

b)

8.2 m/s

c)

6.4 m/s

d)

7.1 m/s

133.
You drop a 5 kg ball from a height of 2 m. Just before it reaches the ground, what type of energy does it have?
a)
Potential Energy
b)
Kinetic Energy
c)
Nuclear Energy
d)
Chemical Energy
134.
A 5 kg ball is lifted 12 m above the ground. It's gravitational potential energy is
a)
60 J
b)
600 J
c)
17 J
d)
2.4 J
135.
The ability to do work is called
a)
energy
b)
thermal
c)
kinetic
d)
potential
136.
Which position has the most kinetic energy?
a)
A
b)
G
c)
D
d)
B
137.
Which position has the most potential energy?
a)
A
b)
G
c)
C
d)
D
138.
A pendulum is released from point C.  Which statement is correct as it  swings from C to A?
a)
The PE increases and KE decreases
b)
The KE increases and PE decreases.
c)
The PE is maximum at A.
d)
The KE is maximum at C and B.
139.
Which of the following is an example of a transformation of potential energy to kinetic energy?
a)
a truck slowing down
b)
a car climbing up a hill
c)
an airplane traveling at constant speed
d)
falling object
140.
What force ultimately slows the roller coaster to a stop?
a)
Applied
b)
Normal
c)
Friction
d)
Magnetic
141.

The fan heater transfers electrical energy into heat.


Which other three appliances shown in the picture do this?

a)

Iron, vacuum cleaner, table lamp

b)

Iron, hair dryer, kettle

c)

Kettle, table lamp, fan heater

d)

Iron, kettle, vacuum cleaner

142.

Which of the following objects is NOT experiencing an energy conversion?

a)

An airplane taking off

b)

A cup on a countertop

c)

A log burning in a fire

d)

A person riding a bike

143.

What type of energy conversion occurs when the rubber band it released?

a)

elastic to kinetic

b)

gravitational to elastic

c)

elastic to chemical

d)

elastic to thermal

144.

If the Total Mechanical Energy is 50J, Potential Energy is 40 J, what is the Kinetic Energy?

a)

0 J

b)

10 J

c)

90 J

d)

50 J

145.
As energy transformations occur within a system, the total energy of the system ___.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
is transferred out of the system
d)
remains constant
146.
A 80 kg skydiver is free falling at a constant velocity of 19 m/s. What is the net (total) force acting on her?
a)
1,520 N
b)
0 N
c)
4.21 N
d)
Not enough information to answer
147.

Lamar Gant, U.S. powerlifting star, became the first man to deadlift five times his own body weight in 1985. Deadlifting involves raising a loaded barbell from the floor to a position above the head with outstretched arms. Determine the work done by Lamar in deadlifting 300 kg to a height of 0.90 m above the ground.

a)

2.6 x 103 J

b)

4.8 x 103 J

c)

1.5 x 103 J

d)

3.7 x 103 J

148.

During the Powerhouse lab, Jerome runs up the stairs, elevating his 102 kg body a vertical distance of 2.29 meters in a time of 1.32 seconds at a constant speed. Determine the work done by Jerome in climbing the stair case.

a)

2.30 x 103 J

b)

2.35 x 105 J

c)

2.42 x 103 J

d)

2.6 x 103 J

149.

a car that is 60% uses 700J of useful energy. What was the energy inputed?

a)

1.2 x 10^3 J

b)

1166.6 J

c)

1.2 x 10^3

d)

1167

150.

what is the output energy for a motor that is 75.0% efficient and had 500J of energy put into it?

a)

375 J

b)

375 %

c)

375

d)

3.8 x 10^2 J

151.

What does this symbol mean?

a)

Flammable

b)

Explosives

c)

Oxidising Agent

d)

Corrosive

152.

What does this Symbol means?

a)

Corrosive

b)

Irritant

c)

Poison

d)

Carcinogenic

153.

What does this symbol means?

a)

Acute Toxicity

b)

Corrosive

c)

Harmful/ Irritant

d)

Carcinogenicity

154.

What does this symbol mean?

a)

Flammable

b)

Oxidising Substance

c)

Gases Under Pressure

d)

Explosive

155.

What does this symbol means?

a)

Corrosive

b)

Bottle under Pressure

c)

Gases Under Pressure

d)

Exploding Bottle

156.

What does this symbol mean?

a)

Flammable

b)

Explosive

c)

Oxidising Agent

d)

Corrosive

157.

What does this symbol means?

a)

Acute Toxicity

b)

Carcinogenicity

c)

Poisonous

d)

Radioactive

158.

What does this symbol mean?

a)

Corrosive

b)

Biohazardous

c)

Oxidizing

d)

Environmental

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