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WorksheetsNetwork+ Exam Practice
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Network+ Final Exam 1. Summarize the role of Layer 6 in the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model.
a)
Provides an interface for software programs on network hosts that have established a communications channel.
b)
Administers the process of establishing the dialog, managing data transfer, and then ending the session.
c)
Moves data around an internetwork using logical network and host IDs.
d)
Transforms data between the format required for the network and the format required for the application.
2.
Compare the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model and the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol stack and determine which statements accurately distinguish between the two. (Select two).
a)
The TCP/IP protocol stack consists of 5 layers compared to the 7 layers found in the OSI model.
b)
The Application layer of TCP/IP consolidates Layers 5-7 of the OSI model.
c)
PPP, PPTP, and L2TP occur at the Link layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack and occur at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
d)
TCP and UDP occur at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack.
3.
A packet is being sent from Network 1 to Network 4. The shortest route is for the packet to use the path 1234. A router fails at Network 3 and the packet uses an alternate path of 1254. This scenario depicts the application of which of the following technology?
a)
Circuit-switched path
b)
Packet switching
c)
Circuit
d)
Fragmentation
4.
A technician has been tasked to determine the baud rate of a connection. Evaluate transmission medium characteristics and determine what the technician will be calculating.
a)
The amount of information that can be transmitted per second
b)
The number of symbols that can be transmitted per second
c)
The combination of signaling speed and encoding method
d)
The loss of signal strength between two measurements
5.
Evaluate the characteristics of a Media Access Control (MAC) address to determine which of the following are valid MAC addresses. (Select two)
a)
00:82:3f:7b:2d:ab
b)
00:82:3f:7h:2d:ag
c)
0082.3f7b.2dab
d)
00823f7h2dag
6.
Two nodes are communicating over a fiber optic cable connection. Evaluate the types of transmission media and determine which of the following use two nodes to conduct their communication.
a)
Digital Signaling
b)
Line Coding
c)
Unbounded media
d)
Bounded media
7.
Evaluate the characteristics of the preamble of the Ethernet frame format, and determine which statement is an accurate reflection.
a)
The preamble is used for clock synchronization and consists of 8 bytes of alternating 1s and 0s.
b)
The preamble is a part of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) protocol and is the first step in the Ethernet frame format.
c)
The preamble is used for clock synchronization and consists of 8 bytes with two consecutive 0s at the end.
d)
The preamble is a part of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) protocol and is the first step in the Ethernet frame format.
8.
A frame with a payload of 32 bytes is attempting to transmit over an Ethernet network. Decide what will occur.
a)
The payload will fail to transmit based on minimum size.
b)
The payload will transmit due to being under the maximum size.
c)
The payload will receive extra padding with redundant data to increase the size.
d)
The payload will experience a reduction in size due to being over the maximum size.
9.
A network administrator needs to extend the distance of the network and would also like to segment the network. What should the system administrator deploy to accomplish this?
a)
Broadcast domain
b)
Crossover cable
c)
Bridge
d)
Hub
10.
What describes the placement of nodes and how they connect with network media?
a)
Point-to-point
b)
Physical bus
c)
Logical topology
d)
Physical topology
11.
A small business owner has a home office that consists of two computers and two printers. The network uses one router for connectivity. Which type of network does this scenario illustrate?
a)
Personal Area Network (PAN)
b)
Local Area Network (LAN)
c)
Wide Area Network (WAN)
d)
Campus Local Area Network (CAN)
12.
Host A transmits a frame to Host B. The frame is received by a switch into a port buffer. The port buffer holds the frame until it can be processed. When ready, the switch uses a high-speed backplane to send the frame out on port 3 for Host B. Which of the following does this scenario illustrate?
a)
Flooding
b)
Microsegmentation
c)
Autonegotiation
d)
Port mirroring
13.
Analyze the process of subnetting. Determine why an administrator may find subnetting beneficial for a network. (Select two)
a)
To divide a network into logically distinct zones for security
b)
A network has a large number of hosts on the same Internet Protocol (IP) network
c)
A network uses the same physical and data link technologies throughout
d)
An organization has one Local Area Network (LAN) without a Wide Area Network (WAN)
14.
A system administrator enters ipconfig /all into a command prompt. What will be a result of this action?
a)
The command will force a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to renew the lease.
b)
The command will release the Internet Protocol (IP) address obtained by the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
c)
The command will register the host with a Domain Name System (DNS) server.
d)
The command will allow the administrator to confirm if the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is enabled.
15.
Differentiate between the characteristics of Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) and Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6). (Select two)
a)
Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) and Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) both only use values 0-9.
b)
Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) uses hexadecimal numbering while Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) uses decimal numbering.
c)
Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) uses an Options field in the header while Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) uses extension headers.
d)
Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) is a 128-bit addressing scheme while Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) is a 32-bit addressing scheme.
16.
A host has an address of 169.254.101.201. What can an administrator infer from this address?
a)
The host did not receive a response to a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast.
b)
The network mask is 255.255.255.0.
c)
The host is configured with a static Internet Protocol (IP) address.
d)
The address is leased and the host must release the Internet Protocol (IP) after a specific period of time.
17.
A host has an Internet Protocol (IP) address of 172.20.152.104. What information does this IP address provide? (Select two)
a)
It is a private address.
b)
It is a public address.
c)
It is a Class B address.
d)
It is a Class C address.
18.
A network administrator enters information into a routing table. The administrator updates the table when the topology changes. What type of routing is the administrator using?
a)
Default
b)
Static
c)
Learned
d)
Convergence
19.
A network administrator needs to update a routing table in Windows. The destination Internet Protocol (IP) is 192.168.6.0. The subnet mask for the destination IP is 255.255.0.0. The router's IP is 192.168.7.1 and the cost of the route is 4. Develop the command that will add this route to the table.
a)
route add 192.168.7.1 mask 255.255.0.0 192.168.6.0 metric 4
b)
route add 192.168.6.0 192.168.7.1 mask 255.255.0.0 cost 4
c)
route add 192.168.6.0 mask 255.255.0.0 192.168.7.1 cost 4
d)
route add 192.168.6.0 mask 255.255.0.0 192.168.7.1 metric 4
20.
A network administrator would like to view the route taken by a packet as it travels to the destination host on a remote network. What command will the administrator use?
a)
tracert
b)
route
c)
route print
d)
route change
21.
A user operating Host A opens a web browser and goes to www.mywebsite.com. A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection is established. Simulate the third step that occurs to complete the connection.
a)
Host A sends a synchronization segment to the server with a randomly generated sequence number.
b)
Host A responds with an acknowledgement segment. Host A assumes the connection is established.
c)
The web server responds with a synchronization acknowledgement segment that contains its own randomly generated sequence number.
d)
The web server opens a connection with Host A and enters the established state.
22.
A network administrator is using Zenmap. The administrator enters the command nmap -sn 169.1.0.0/24. What will be the result?
a)
Suppressed host discovery scan
b)
Full Operating System (OS) fingerprinting
c)
Acknowledgement packets to port 80 and 443
d)
Neighbor Discovery (ND) sweeps
23.
Identify the characteristics of a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN). (Select two)
a)
Each label cannot exceed 63 characters.
b)
The total length cannot exceed 256 characters.
c)
Characters in the labels are case sensitive.
d)
A trailing period represents the root.
24.
Identify the protocol that provides the File/Print Sharing Service on a Windows network.
a)
Server Message Block (SMB)
b)
Network Time Protocol (NTP)
c)
HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
d)
Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
25.
Identify the component in a virtual platform that will manage the virtual environment and facilitate interaction with the computer hardware and network.
a)
Host
b)
Hypervisor
c)
Virtual Machine (VM)
d)
Application virtualization
26.
A company utilizes a cloud service to provide servers, load balancers, and storage area network (SAN) devices. What cloud service type are these technologies examples of?
a)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
b)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
c)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
d)
Something as a Service (Saas)
27.
A network manager is configuring a management and monitoring system for a network. Recommend guidelines that the administrator can utilize for the configuration. (Select two)
a)
Configure the server to provide information to the monitoring system.
b)
Install the monitoring system on each host on the network.
c)
Identify metrics to use for monitoring network health and performance.
d)
Record baseline measurements for selected metrics.
28.
A network manager becomes aware of network degradation. The manager uses the Computing Technology Industry Association (CompTIA) Network+ troubleshooting methodology. Analyze this methodology and determine the third troubleshooting step the manager will employ.
a)
Establish a theory of probable cause.
b)
Establish a plan of action.
c)
Test the theory to determine cause.
d)
Implement the solution or escalate, as necessary.
29.
A network technician discovers that a port with mismatched speed settings is the cause of an outage. Evaluate the types of issues that can occur in a network and determine what type of issue the scenario represents. (Select two).
a)
Gateway
b)
Network Interface
c)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
d)
Routing
30.
Which of the following is a weakness that can cause a security breach when an accidental trigger or intentional exploit occurs?
a)
Threat
b)
Exploit
c)
Risk
d)
Vulnerability
31.
An attacker replaces the Internet Protocol (IP) address of www.companybank.com. Employee A goes to www.companybank.com to complete a transaction. The employee attempts to login to the website, and the attacker obtains the login credentials. What type of attack is Employee A a victim of?
a)
Domain Name System (DNS) poisoning
b)
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) poisoning
c)
Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack
d)
Denial of Service (DoS) attack
32.
Which of the following provides an accurate depiction of network segmentation? (Select two)
a)
A switch is required to communicate outside of a Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN).
b)
Access controls enforce network segmentation.
c)
The networks are physically and logically separate.
d)
Segmentation can mitigate attacks by restricting it to a smaller group of hosts.
33.
A network manager is configuring a firewall. Prepare guidelines for the network manager to follow. (Select two)
a)
Only allow the minimum amount of traffic required.
b)
The final default rule in a firewall is implicit allow.
c)
The rules are processed from bottom to top.
d)
The most specific rules are placed at the top.
34.
What blocks traffic that does not conform to rules?
a)
Access Control List (ACL)
b)
State table
c)
Router
d)
Firewall
35.
On a production network, which is the MOST likely location of a honeypot?
a)
In an unprotected and untrusted area outside of the private network
b)
In a protected but untrusted area between the Internet and the private network
c)
In a protected and trusted area between the Internet and the private network
d)
In an unprotected but trusted area outside of the private network
36.
A network technician and manager have an argument. The technician places a scripted trap that runs when the technician's account is deleted. The technician then resigns from the company. What did the technician install?
a)
Crypto-malware
b)
Brute force
c)
Logic bomb
d)
Ransomware
37.
A technician is troubleshooting a report of an outage. The technician checks the switch port and notices a solid amber light. What information does the technician gain from the light color?
a)
The port is disabled.
b)
The link is connected, but there is no traffic.
c)
The link is not working or is disconnected at the other end.
d)
A fault has been detected.
38.
A technician needs to install a twisted pair cable solution that will provide a frequency of 200 MegaHertz (MHz) for up to 100 feet. The technician needs to achieve a capacity of 10 Gigabits per second (Gbps). The technician wants to keep cost in mind and not install a higher Category (Cat) than required. Consider the Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) 568 Commercial Building Telecommunication Cabling Standards to determine which Cat cabling solution will meet the needs of the technician.
a)
Cat 5
b)
Cat 5e
c)
Cat 6
d)
Cat 6A
39.
Identify the characteristics of a rogue Access Point (AP). (Select two)
a)
A rogue Access Point (AP) can be malicious or accidental.
b)
A rogue Access Point (AP) is used to perform a deauthentication attack.
c)
A rogue Access Point (AP) can be an evil twin.
d)
A rogue Access Point (AP) is used for geofencing.
40.
A technician receives a report that a wireless device has a weak signal. The technician verifies that the device is within the supported range. Further troubleshooting identifies that a great deal of refraction is the cause of the issue. What device or object can cause this problem?
a)
Mirrors
b)
Walls
c)
Cordless phone
d)
Water
41.
A network manager implements geofencing to block anyone using a wireless device outside of the site perimeter. What are possible issues the network manager will face? (Select two)
a)
Most devices support Global Positioning Systems (GPS)-based location services.
b)
Global Positioning System (GPS) is not reliable when used indoors.
c)
New software would need to be installed on devices for the policy to take place.
d)
Many devices would need to be excluded from the policy.
42.
Consider the zones of a Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). Which of the following describes basic connectivity to a local exchange?
a)
A link is created between a home and a Central Office (CO).
b)
A cable is run from a Private Branch Exchange (PBX) directly to a local loop.
c)
A link is created between a Central Office (CO) to a toll office.
d)
A router is placed in a home to provide wireless service.
43.
A telecommunications company installs a T1 circuit. Compare the characteristics of T-carrier systems to determine what this circuit will provide the company. (Select two)
a)
672 Channels
b)
24 Channels
c)
1.544 Mbps Bandwidth
d)
44.736 Mbps Bandwidth
44.
A company contacts their Internet provider and asks for options to upgrade the bandwidth. The company requests a minimum of 80 Megabits per second (Mbps). The Internet provider notes the range required for the upgrade is 250 feet. What is the best solution for the company?
a)
Symmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL)
b)
Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)
c)
Very High Bitrate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL)
d)
Very High Bitrate Digital Subscriber Line 2(VDSL2)
45.
Evaluate Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocols and determine what function the Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) protocol performs.
a)
Provides identification of the destination address to support tunneling directly between two spokes.
b)
Provides authentication and key exchange for the Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) protocol suite.
c)
Provides tunneling and supports a wide range of features that includes the ability to establish multipoint links.
d)
Provides confidentiality by encrypting data packets and integrity by signing each packet.
46.
A system administrator is responsible for 25 servers at a remote location. The administrator learns of a server outage; it does not have any network connectivity. The administrator uses remote access to troubleshoot the server and to review the logs. Analyze remote management methods and determine which of the following the system administrator used.
a)
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
b)
Virtual Network Computing (VNC)
c)
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
d)
Lights-Out Management (LOM)
47.
What is the principal means of obtaining secure remote access to a Linux server?
a)
Telnet
b)
Secure Shell (SSH)
c)
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
d)
Virtual Network Computing (VNC)
48.
A system administrator develops a physical diagram of cabling, using blue for WAN connections, white for patch-panel/switch connections, brown for LAN connections, and gray for virtual private network connections. Considering the color-coding the administrator plans to use, which color identifies a user's cubicle network connection?
a)
Blue
b)
White
c)
Brown
d)
Gray
49.
Consider the following two pieces of information: 1) a network has 25 devices that run for 250 hours each, and 2) the same network experiences failures from 5 of its servers. Utilize this information to solve the Mean Time to Failure (MTTF).
a)
250 hours
b)
1,250 hours
c)
6,250 hours
d)
50 hours
50.
What is an inflexible, step-by-step listing of the actions that must be completed for a given task?
a)
Standard
b)
Procedure
c)
Best practice
d)
Policy
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