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Grade 8 Fourth Quarter Unit Test

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is the process of taking in food through the mouth that provides energy and nutrients.

a)

Ingestion

b)

Digestion

c)

Absorption

d)

Excretion

2.

This happens when digested food are distributed into the different parts of the body or cells.

a)

Ingestion

b)

Digestion

c)

Assimilation

d)

Excretion

3.

The process of turning food into smaller molecules with the help of enzymes.

a)

mechanical digestion

b)

chemical digestion

c)

churning

d)

mastication

4.

Where does the final stage in digestion of food happen?

a)

mouth

b)

stomach

c)

small intestine

d)

anus

5.

What type of enzyme present in saliva helps break down starch?

a)

lactase

b)

amylase

c)

maltase

d)

lipase

6.

Which of the following breaks down food into tinier pieces to begin mechanical digestion?

a)

epiglottis

b)

stomach

c)

tongue

d)

teeth

7.

On which part of the digestive system does absorption happen?

a)

small intestines

b)

rectum

c)

large intestines

d)

stomach

8.

On which part of your body does digestion occur?

a)

small intestines

b)

stomach

c)

large intestines

d)

mouth

9.

It is a combination of chewed food and saliva

a)

kanin

b)

chyme

c)

bolus

10.

Partly digested food that has been mixed with gastric juices in the stomach

a)

chyme

b)

bolus

11.

How does the food move through the digestive tract?

a)

By gravity

b)

By cilia

c)

Wavelike muscle contraction

12.

The involuntary progressive wavelike contractions in the esophagus, stomach and intestines that moves the food during ingestion and digestion.

a)

pelistalsis

b)

peristalsis

c)

peristalis

d)

peristaltis

13.

It reabsorbs water from chyme.

a)

stomach

b)

small intestine

c)

large intestine

d)

anus

14.

It secretes acid and enzymes that digest food.

a)

stomach

b)

small intestine

c)

large intestine

d)

rectum

15.

The temporary storage site for feces.

a)

anus

b)

rectum

c)

large intestine

d)

stomach

16.

The cell grows physically larger and copies organelles.

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

17.

The cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus.

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

18.

The cell grows more, makes proteins and organelles, and begins to reorganize its contents.

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

19.

What is the form of reproduction whose benefit is variability of the offspring?

a)

sexual

b)

asexual

c)

binary fission

d)

mitosis

20.

What is the function of the kinetochores in cell division?

a)

To regulate the movement of molecules in and out of the nucleus

b)

To produce energy for the cell

c)

To provide structural support to the nucleus contents

d)

To connect chromosomes to spindle fibers

21.

In mitosis, the double-stranded chromosomes separate and go to opposite

ends of the cell.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

22.

The nuclear membrane disappears during this stage in mitosis.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

23.

Define cytokinesis.

a)

division of the cytoplasm

b)

division of chromosomes

c)

lining of of chromosomes at the metaphase plate

d)

swapping of genetic material between chromosomes

24.

Which of the following is true about the difference between mitosis and meiosis?

(select two answers)

a)

Mitosis involves only one round of cell division, while meiosis involves two rounds.

b)

Mitosis produces haploid cells, while meiosis produces diploid cells.

c)

Mitosis occurs only in eukaryotic cells, while meiosis occurs only in prokaryotic cells.

d)

Mitosis results in two daughter cells with identical genetic material, while meiosis results

    in four daughter cells with unique genetic material.

25.

Select THREE TRUTHS about Mitosis.

a)

The first phase is prophase.

b)

It makes diploid or haploid nuclei.

c)

It forms four daughter cells. 

d)

Separation of sister chromatids occurs.

26.

On which phase does cytokinesis happen?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

27.

A cell with 24 chromosomes undergoes meiosis, the sex cells produced will each have how many chromosomes?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

24

d)

48

28.

The diploid (2n) chromosome number in an organism is 42. What is the normal

chromosome number of its sex cells?

a)

21

b)

42

c)

63

d)

84

29.

Select everything that occurs in both mitosis and meiosis.

a)

karyokinesis or division of the nucleus

b)

cytokinesis or the division of the cytoplasm

c)

DNA replication

d)

synapsis or the fusion of homologous chromosomes

30.

On which phase of Meiosis does crossing-over occurs?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Anaphase II

31.

Select the type of cell that undergoes meiosis.

a)

bone cells

b)

sperm cells

c)

unicellular organisms

d)

muscle cells

32.

Where do homologous chromosomes pair up?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

33.

DNA replication happens.

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

34.

Describe homologous chromosomes.

a)

Chromosomes that did not move away from each other during meiosis.

b)

Chromosomes that has different locus for a specific gene.

c)

Chromosomes that are similar in size, shape and genetic content

d)

Chromosomes that are varying in size, shape and genetic content

35.

Condensed chromosomes become visible.

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

36.

Chromatids separate and move away from each other.

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

37.

Chromosomes line up at the center or metaphase plate.

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

38.

What could be the possible result of CHROMOSOMAL ABNORMALITY?

a)

viral infection

b)

bacterial infection

c)

lack of oxygen supply during birth

d)

Down's Syndrome

39.

Who studied garden peas and established the Principles of Inheritance

a)

Gregor Mandela

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Reginald Punnett

40.

Humans are called diploid organisms because they have two alleles at each genetic locus, with one allele inherited from each parent.  Which of the examples below is an allele for a diploid organism?

a)

T

b)

TTT

c)

TL

d)

TT

41.

It is the study of genes to determine traits inherited by the offspring from the parents.

a)

Histology

b)

Biology

c)

Heredity

d)

Genetics

42.

Which of the following allele is homozygous dominant?

a)

Gg

b)

ee

c)

BB

d)

Pp

43.

It is a genetic cross involving a single pair of genes or trait.

A. monohybrid       B. dihybrid            C. hybrid                         D. monobrid

a)

Monohybrid

b)

Dihybrid

c)

Hybrid

d)

Monobrid

44.

It is the allele of a gene that masks, hides or suppresses the expression of an alternate allele or the trait appears in the heterozygous condition.

It is the trait that can be seen in the offspring.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

45.

The allele of a gene that is masked or hidden.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

46.

The genetic makeup of an organism.

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

47.

The physical traits of an organism (hair color, height, shape).

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

48.

A pair of dissimilar alleles for a certain trait. (big letter and small letter)

sample: Aa, Bb, Cc

a)

heterozygous genes

b)

homozygous genes

49.

Which is NOT an example of an allele?

a)

FF

b)

ff

c)

Em

d)

rr

50.

An organism that has two different alleles for a single trait.

example: Ff, Nn, Ss

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous

51.

In a monohybrid cross, organisms differ in how many traits?

a)

four

b)

three

c)

two

d)

one

52.

Which of the following is a heterozygous dominant genotype?

a)

RR

b)

oo

c)

Ww

d)

rr

53.

Select the homozygous recessive genotype.

a)

FF

b)

Ff

c)

ff

d)

FFF

54.

Which of the following is true about monohybrid cross?

a)

It uses two factors or characters

b)

It uses a single trait or character

c)

It uses several factors or characters

d)

It uses a combination of character

55.

Select all the applicable reasons why Gregor Mendel chose pea plants in his study.

a)

grows easily/short gemination period

b)

has a perfect flower

c)

can be pollinated manually

d)

has contrasting traits

56.

Last phase of nuclear division occurs at what phase of mitosis?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase