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MGHT103- revision 4

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which one of the following is NOT one disadvantage of job specialization?

a)

Workers may become bored.

b)

The benefits of specialization may not always occur.

c)

Workers may find the work too challenging with a lot of changes.

d)

Workers may become dissatisfied.

2.

_________ involves systematically moving employees from one job to another.

a)

Job rotation

b)

Job analysis

c)

Job description

d)

Job specialization

3.

_________ increases the total number of tasks workers perform.

a)

Job enrichment

b)

Job rotation

c)

Work group

d)

Job enlargement

4.

In the job characteristics approach, the extent to which the worker does a complete or identifiable portion of the total job is:

a)

task significance

b)

task identity

c)

skill variety

d)

autonomy

5.

In the job characteristics approach, (a)   signifies the degree of control the worker has over how the work is performed. (ONE WORD)

6.

The process of grouping of jobs according to some logical arrangement is called:

a)

automation

b)

departmentalization

c)

job analysis

d)

job analysis

7.

(a)   is power that has been legitimized by the organization. (ONE WORD)

8.

_________ is the process of systematically retaining power and authority in the hands of higher-level managers.

a)

Centralization

b)

Decentralization

c)

Authorization

d)

Delegation

9.

This image represents which type of interdependence?

a)

Sequential

b)

Pooled

c)

Team

d)

Reciprocal

10.

Many people associate ______ with “red tape,” and rigidity.

a)

decentralization

b)

bureaucracy

c)

democracy

d)

flat organizations

11.

Which one of the following is NOT one characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy?

a)

The organization should adopt a distinct division of labor.

b)

The organization should establish a hierarchy of positions.

c)

Managers should conduct business in an impersonal way.

d)

The organization should be flexible in its rules to ensure adaptability.

12.

This chart represents which type of organization design?

a)

Functional

b)

Conglomerate

c)

Matrix

d)

Hybrid

13.

The divisional organization design is also called:

a)

U-form design

b)

H-form design

c)

M-form design

d)

C-form design

14.

Which one of the following is NOT one reason to use the matrix organization design?

a)

When there is strong pressure from the environment.

b)

When large amounts of information need to be processed.

c)

When there is pressure for shared resources.

d)

When the competing firm uses the same design for their organization.

15.

Which approach to organization design is based loosely on the product form of departmentalization?

a)

Matrix design

b)

Divisional design

c)

Functional design

d)

Conglomerate design

16.

______ can be defined as the total number of full-time or full-time–equivalent employees.

a)

Organizational structure

b)

Organizational life cycle

c)

Organizational size

d)

Organizational design

17.

A mechanistic organization, quite similar to the bureaucratic model, was most frequently found in ______ environments.

a)

stable

b)

unstable

18.

In which form of technology is the product manufactured in assembly line fashion by combining component parts into another part or finished product?

a)

Unit technology

b)

Large-batch techonology

c)

Continuous-process technology

d)

Small-batch technology

19.

Which of the following statements is true regarding bureaucracies?

a)

Bureaucracies have been trying to protect the image of being mechanistic and impersonal.

b)

In today's world, rules and procedures are only a burden and should be abolished if possible.

c)

In a bureaucracy, people typically don't know what rules they are supposed to follow.

d)

In a bureaucracy, making an exception is often difficult.

20.

The degree to which the overall task of the organization is broken down and divided into smaller component parts is called:

a)

job specification

b)

job specialization

c)

job description

d)

job analysis

21.

The fourth step in the motivation framework is the _____.

a)

choice of behavior to satisfy need

b)

evaluation of need satisfaction

c)

need or deficiency

d)

determination of future needs

22.

_____ is the set of forces that cause people to behave in certain ways.

a)

motivation

b)

choice

c)

determination

d)

need

23.

Which of the following encompasses the resources needed to do the job?

a)

technology

b)

work environment

c)

motivation

d)

ability

24.

What need, similar to Maslow's belongingness, is a desire for human companionship and acceptance?

a)

power

b)

self-actualization

c)

achievement

d)

affiliation

25.

_____ theory suggests that motivation depends on how much we want something and how likely we think we are to get it.

a)

expectancy

b)

equity

c)

outcome

d)

goal-setting

26.

When an employee is careful to return on time from a lunch break to keep from being reprimanded, this behavior is known as _____.

a)

punishment

b)

avoidance

c)

reinforcement

d)

all answers are wrong

27.

Fines are an example of _____ as a means of reinforcement.

a)

punishment

b)

avoidance

c)

mediation

d)

extinction

28.

_____ enables workers to set their own work goals, make decisions, and solve problems within their sphere of responsibility and authority.

a)

equity

b)

empowerment

c)

reinforcement

d)

expectancy

29.

_____ allows employees to spend part of their time working offsite, usually at home.

a)

compressed work schedule

b)

flextime

c)

telecommuting

d)

job sharing

30.

To have the best chance of encouraging employees to work harder or better, rewards need to be tied specifically to _____.

a)

ability

b)

motivation

c)

experience

d)

performance

31.

What is true of a tactical plan?

a)

a. It involves front-line managers.

b)

b. It has a longer time horizon than a strategic plan.

c)

c. It is primarily concerned with deciding what to do.

d)

d. It is developed to implement specific parts of a strategic plan.

32.

An organization that competes in dozens or even hundreds of markets is called a(n) (a)   .

33.

_____ refers to the methods by which strategies are operationalized or executed withinthe organization.

a)

a. Strategy implementation

b)

b. Business-level strategy

c)

c. Strategy formulation

d)

d. Resource deployment

34.

In the context of SWOT analysis, which of the following would be considered as anorganization's weakness?

a)

a. well-established distribution channels

b)

b. deep pool of managerial talent

c)

c. unique reputation

d)

d. insufficient cash reserves

35.

When devising a new strategy, it is best to start with what?

a)

a. a tactical plan

b)

b. a SWOT analysis

c)

c. strategy formulation

d)

d. an operational plan - b

36.

The best strategies include all of the following EXCEPT what?

a)

a. require resource deployment

b)

b. exploit opportunities and strengths

c)

c. support the mission

d)

d. neutralize threats

37.

In the growth stage of the product life cycle, _____.

a)

a. the number of organizations producing the product drops

b)

b. the sales of the product increase

c)

c. the product is introduced for the first time in the market

d)

d. the demand for the product begins to slow down

38.

In a _____ strategy, an organization concentrates on a specific regional market, productline, or group of buyers.

a)

a. differentiation

b)

b. product life cycle

c)

c. focus

d)

d. overall cost leadership

39.

In a _____ strategy, an organization operates in several businesses that are somehowlinked with one another.

a)

a. unrelated diversification

b)

b. single-product

c)

c. diversification

d)

d. related diversification

40.

The ultimate success of a tactical plan depends on:

a)

a. the way it is carried out.

b)

b. the number of people involved.

c)

c. whether a joint-venture is set up.

d)

d. whether franchises are set up.

41.

What is a standing plan that specifies the organization's general response to adesignated problem or situation?

a)

a. policy

b)

b. project

c)

c. program

d)

d. single-use plan

42.

A _____ is developed for activities that recur regularly over a period of time.

a)

a. standing plan

b)

b. project

c)

c. program

d)

d. single-use plan

43.

_____ is the set of procedures the organization uses in the event of a disaster or otherunexpected calamity.

a)

a. Crisis management

b)

b. A policy

c)

c. A standing plan

d)

d. Contingency planning

44.

The fourth step in the motivation framework is the _____.

a)

choice of behavior to satisfy need

b)

evaluation of need satisfaction

c)

need or deficiency

d)

determination of future needs

45.

Which of the following encompasses the resources needed to do the job?

a)

technology

b)

work environment

c)

motivation

d)

ability

46.

What need, similar to Maslow's belongingness, is a desire for human companionship and acceptance?

a)

power

b)

self-actualization

c)

achievement

d)

affiliation

47.

_____ theory suggests that motivation depends on how much we want something and how likely we think we are to get it.

a)

expectancy

b)

equity

c)

outcome

d)

goal-setting

48.

Fines are an example of _____ as a means of reinforcement.

a)

punishment

b)

avoidance

c)

mediation

d)

extinction

49.

_____ enables workers to set their own work goals, make decisions, and solve problems within their sphere of responsibility and authority.

a)

equity

b)

empowerment

c)

reinforcement

d)

expectancy

50.

_____ allows employees to spend part of their time working offsite, usually at home.

a)

compressed work schedule

b)

flextime

c)

telecommuting

d)

job sharing