Font size
WorksheetsEXAM 2 PSY 2313
Total questions: 206
Worksheet time: 52hrs 30mins
At the end of an experiment, researchers sometimes ask participants to guess the purpose of the experiment. This step serves to detect:
participant characteristics.
he Hawthorne effect.
individual differences.
demand characteristics.
A within-subjects design requires that
the participants do not undergo the same conditions.
quasi-experimental variables within each participant are measured.
there are fewer statistical assumptions during analysis than a between-subjects design.
researchers assign each participant to all possible conditions.
Based on information in the abstract, which of the following is true about the findings of the study?
The researchers obtained a significant interaction effect.
The researchers failed to find any main effect to support their invention.
The researchers found a significant main effect supporting their intervention.
The researchers found a significant main effect suggesting that their intervention was not effective.
The researchers found a significant main effect supporting their intervention.
Based on the abstract, this was...
an observational study.
an experimental study
a cross-sectional study
a case study
What is the dependent variable in Brent's study?
Amount of caffeine consumed
Volume of coffee consumed
How quickly the participant completed the reading task
Age of the participants
Erica's study uses a _______________________ design.
within-subjects
matched-groups
between-subjects
counterbalanced
Erica is running a study to investigate the effect of exercise on insomnia symptoms. She recruits participants who report having experienced insomnia at least once a week and assigns them to either exercise for 30 minutes every day or to read a book for 30 minutes every day.
How many level/s of the experimental variable is/are there in her study?
30
1
2
60
In experimental design, the strategy of varying test items and tasks applies to:
between-subjects designs only.
matched-groups designs only.
within-subjects designs only.
within-subjects designs and matched-groups designs.
Internal validity is concerned with ___________ whereas external validity is concerned with ___________.
generalizability, causality
causality, generalizability
consistency, causality
causality, consistency
In the article, the researchers reported a manipulation check, stating that they measured how much parents reported using the intervention tools with their children, and that the researchers coded parents' responses.
providing a basis for arguing that teenagers do listen to their parents.
providing a basis for arguing that the intervention (e.g., parents used the brochures and the Web site) was valid.
reducing problems of ethics by making sure that participants were compliant.
catching participants who might have a hidden agenda.
Julie notices that all her participants have scored perfectly on a memory task, indicating a potential _______________ effect.
Hawthorne
ceiling
fatigue
carryover
Latin square is a form of ________________ that accounts for __________ effects.
randomization; order
randomization; Hawthorne
counterbalancing; order
counterbalancing; Hawthorne
Obtaining a floor effect in research indicates that:
there was an order effect at work.
the Hawthorne effect was taking place.
an inappropriate measure was used.
participants found the task too easy.
The problem of carryover effects cannot be reduced through:
double-blind design.
randomization.
counterbalancing
using a between-subjects design.
The study uses a ___________________________ design with ____ levels of the independent variable.
between-subjects, 2
within-subjects, 3
between-subjects, 3
within-subjects, 2
Erica is running a study to investigate the effect of exercise on insomnia symptoms. She recruits participants who report having experienced insomnia at least once a week and assigns them to either exercise for 30 minutes every day or to read a book for 30 minutes every day.
What is the dependent variable in her study?
Exercise condition
Participants with insomnia
Insomnia symptoms
Time taken to exercise or read a book
What property of experimental design is NOT present in non-experimental design?
Random assignment of participants
Dependent variables
Interaction effects
Potential of confounding variables
Which of the following aspects of research is the biggest barrier to overcoming the Hawthorne effect?
Self-selection bias
Informed consent
Experimental design
Random assignment
Which of the following claims is best supported by information from the abstract?
There were equal numbers of males and females in the intervention and control conditions.
The researchers controlled for socio-economic status (SES) in their analysis.
Participants in the intervention group were more likely to major in a STEM field in college as compared to participants in the control group.
The researchers likely randomly assigned participants to either the intervention or the control condition.
Which of the following is a reasonable claim regarding the research?
Since the research is looking at an applied real-world problem, it is atheoretical.
The research could have low external validity because it was conducted in a laboratory setting.
The findings are not necessarily generalizable unless the researchers had controlled for factors such as SES.
The researchers avoided problems like participant attrition by studying students who were in school and their parents.
Which of the following is a reasonable claim regarding the research?
a. Since the research is looking at an applied real-world problem, it is atheoretical.
The research could have low external validity because it was conducted in a laboratory setting.
The findings are not necessarily generalizable unless the researchers had controlled for factors such as SES.
The researchers avoided problems like participant attrition by studying students who were in school and their parents.
Which of the following is not an advantage of a between-subjects design?
Fewer statistical assumptions.
Relative straightforward in construction and interpretation.
Simple to set up.
Able to eliminate variability due to individual differences.
Which of the following is not true about statistical control of confounding variables in an experiment?
The confounding variable must be measurable.
Statistical control of confounding variables occurs during data analysis
Statistical control is not the only method to deal with confounding variables.
You can only know what the confound is after data collection
Which of the following is not true about the use of confederates?
The use of confederates was essential for some major findings in psychology.
Using confederates means that your study involves deception and that participants should be debriefed at the end of the study.
If the IRB has approved the use of confederates in its initial review of the experiment, there are no additional concerns.
Confederates are trained by the experimenter but can be blinded to the hypothesis of the study.
Which of the following is true about placebo effects?
They are fake effects that do not exist.
They are real effects that are measurable.
They are always harmful to individuals.
They may exist but are not measurable.
With regards to the dependent variable, what was the population of interest in this study?
Adolescent students
Students of all ages
Parents of adolescent students
Parents of students taking math and science courses
Adolescent students
A disadvantage of using a between-subjects design is that it is less likely to detect a true effect than a within-subjects design.
T
F
A double-blind design results in more rigorous control of the experiment that a single-blind design.
T
F
An advantage of a correlational design over an experimental design is that researchers can find out what caused an effect
T
F
A study using within-subjects design requires more statistical assumptions than a study using between subjects design
T
F
Confounds are mostly dealt with after the experiment by using complex statistical techniques.
F
T
Experimental designs that require the researcher to obtain informed consent from participants do not have other potential ethical concerns.
F
T
Keeping the hypothesis of an experiment secret from participants reduces the potential of a floor effect
T
F
Matched-group designs generally have higher statistical power than between-subjects designs.
T
F
Matched-pairs design use different participants in each group. They require the same statistical as a within-subjects design.
T
F
Randomly assigning participants to experiment conditions is a strategy that helps the external validity but not the internal validity of a study.
F
T
Studies using quasi-experimental variables can easily establish causation
F
T
The placebo effect is an effect that does not actually exist and cannot be measured.
F
T
The problem of order effects does not exist in a matched-group design.
T
F
Variability due to individual differences is only present in within-subjects design.
T
F
Variability due to individual differences makes it more likely for researchers to detect an effect that is not actually present.
T
F
How many potential main effects are there in a 3 x 4 factorial design?
12
4
3
2
In a 2 x 2 factorial design, when a main effect is significant
a. the other main effect should also be significant.
b. the other main effect need not be significant.
c. the interaction should be significant only if the other main effect is also significant.
d. the interaction should not be significant if the other main effect is significant.
In a 2 x 2 x 3 factorial design, how many conditions are there in the entire study?
3
7
12
2
In a 3 x 4 factorial design, what does "4" refer to?
The number of conditions in the whole study
The number of independent variables in the study
The number of main effects in the study
The number of levels of the second independent variable
In a single-case experimental design, multiple exposures to the intervention could affect the responses of the subject. This is similar to ______________ of within-group designs.
accounting for individual differences
generalizability limitations
the carryover effect
the Hawthorne effect
In Fred's study, there are three levels of only one independent variable that also happens to be a participant variable. His study is:
a quasi-experimental design.
a higher order factorial design.
a single-case experimental design.
a two by two factorial design.
In the ABAB design, the "B" refers to:
a. a measure assumed to reflect the effects of the intervention.
b. a measure assumed to reflect baseline conditions.
c. a measure assumed to reflect all levels of the independent variable.
d. a measure assumed to reflect the largest change in the dependent variable.
Jaime is running a study comparing the performances on monolinguals and bilinguals on memories for pictures. This study uses a _________________________ and is a _______________________.
a. participant variable; between-subjects design
b. participant variable; within-subjects design
c. experimenter independent variable; between-subjects design
d. experimenter independent variable; within-subjects design
The multiple baseline approach
a. varies the amount of time between each intervention and baseline measure.
b. is also known as the ABAB design.
c. increases the ability of researchers to generalize their findings.
d. Requires researchers to measure the subject's baseline at least three times.
Using a factorial design can increase the ________________________ of a study as compared to isolating the effect of a single independent variable in simpler experimental designs.
a. external validity
b. experimenter bias
c. reliability
d. order effects
What pattern of results does the graph below present of a 2 x 2 factorial design?
a. No main effect and no interaction
b. Main effects present but no interaction
c. Interaction present but no main effects
d. One main effect and interaction present
Which of the following allows researchers to examine the effect of multiple independent variables simultaneously?
a. Quasi-experimental design
b. Case study
c. Reversal design
d. Factorial design
Which of the following describes a characteristic of single-case experimental design that allows researchers to examine causal effects of the intervention?
a. Studying the effect of the intervention on the dependent variable in only one subject at a time.
b. Randomly assigning either the baseline measure or the intervention for the single subject to start the experiment with.
c. Taking an initial baseline measure, followed by the intervention, then taking another measure after the intervention has worn off.
d. Isolates the main effect of the intervention using a reversal design, hence reducing complicated interaction effects that are confusing to interpret.
Which of the following designs has the highest internal validity out of all the rest?
a. ABA design
b. ABAB design
c. Quasi-experimental design
d. Multiple baseline design
Which of the following is always true about a single-case experimental design?
a. The first measure taken from the subject is for the purpose of establishing baseline.
b. If there is a change in the measure at baseline and right after the intervention is administered, then we can conclude that the intervention caused the change.
c. Single-case experimental designs are considered quasi-experimental designs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
d. Single-case experimental designs cannot be repeated in more than one subject.
Which of the following is a most likely to be a drawback of a 2 x 3 x 4 x 5 factorial design?
a. The four-way interaction effect will be challenging to interpret.
b. Researchers will not be able to fully manipulate all the independent variables.
c. While the main effects might be significant, it is unlikely for any interaction to be significant.
d. Higher-level factorial designs have less generalizability than simpler experimental designs.
Which of the following is an advantage of the ABAB design?
a. Increases the ability to rule out time as a confounding variable
b. Increases the generalizability of findings
c. Increases order effects in the experiment
d. Increases the ability to rule out normal variability as an explanation for effects
Which of the following is most dissimilar to an ABAB design?
a. A within-subjects experimental design with more than one participant.
b. A reversal design
c. An ABABA design
d. A case study
Which of the following statements is not true?
a. In a 2 x 2 between-subjects factorial design, there are two potential main effects.
b. In a 2 x 2 x 2 between-subjects factorial design, there is one potential three-way interaction.
c. In a 3 x 2 mixed-subjects factorial design, one potential main effect is within-subjects.
d. In a 2 x 2 x 2 mixed-subjects factorial design, there are four two-way interactions.
Which one of the following qualities is shared by both single-case experimental design and case studies?
a. Rich data
b. Systematic manipulation of the independent variable(s)
c. Ease of generalizing findings to the general population
d. Can involve only one participant
Which one of the following qualities is unique to single-case experimental design?
a. Ability to produce highly generable findings
b. Lack of confounding variables that plague other experimental designs
c. Can establish causality with only one subject
d. Allows researchers to study topics that raise ethical concerns if subjects are assigned to particular conditions
While higher-order factorial designs allow the researcher to take more variables into consideration, a drawback is that the _________________ of some __________________ might be challenging to interpret.
a. simplicity; main effects
b. simplicity; interactions
c. complexity; main effects
d. complexity; interactions
A drawback of a higher order factorial design is that some interaction effects obtained could be difficult to interpret
T
F
A factorial design with three independent variables has three possible interactions in total.
T
F
Another name for the ABA design is a "reversal design", where the second step "B" involves measuring the dependent variable at baseline
T
F
A quasi-experimental design is better at establishing causality than a fully experimental design.
T
F
A single-case experimental design is able to establish causality
T
F
A single-case experimental design uses the same methodology as a case study design.
T
F
A two by two by three factorial design would have twelve possible conditions in total
T
F
If a researcher were interested in studying how two independent variables work together to influence a dependent variable, the best design to use would be a higher order factorial design.
T
F
In a 2 by 3 design, there are two possible main effects.
T
F
In an ABA design, the letter A refers to a baseline measure.
T
F
In a two by four design, there are six possible main effects.
T
F
Single-case experimental designs often produce findings that are as generalizable as other more common forms of experimental design.
T
F
Some quasi-experiment designs can also be known as correlational designs.
T
F
The main effects in a factorial design are not significant if the interaction between them is not significant too.
T
F
When two main effects are significant, an interaction must be significant too.
F
T
Cohen's d is seen as advantageous over calculating the difference in means of two groups as a measure of effect size because:
a. Cohen's d can be interpreted with respect to the standard deviation.
b. Cohen's d is more likely to obtain an effect that is statistically significant.
c. Cohen's d is a more reliable calculation of effect size.
d. Cohen's d is more easily calculated.
Consider the histogram below. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?
a. If the data in this histogram were to be displayed in a stem-and-leaf plot, there would be 3 leaves in the first row of the plot.
b. The median of this data set lies between 15 and 20.
c. The histogram contains less information about the original data than if the data were represented in a stem-and-leaf plot.
d. There are two means in the data set.
In a box-and-whisker plot, the box itself represents the
a. interquartile range
b. mean.
c. mode.
d. entire data set.
In Alison's study, the Pearson's r of participants' caffeine consumption (milligrams) and their reaction time (milliseconds) on a computer task is -0.22. This means that
a. participants exhibited decreased reaction time with a higher consumption of caffeine.
b. participants exhibited increased reaction time with a higher consumption of caffeine.
c. participants had a mean reaction time of 0.22ms in the condition with low caffeine consumption.
d. participants had a mean reaction time of 0.22ms in the condition with high caffeine consumption
Jessica wants to ensure that her study has sufficient statistical power so that she has a good chance of rejecting the null hypothesis in the event that it is actually false. She would like to reduce the chances of a:
a. Type I error.
b. Type II error.
c. Standard error.
d. p value error.
Stem-and-leaf plots are most suited for displaying data sets that are ___________ while histograms can display data sets that are ________________.
a. large; small
b. small; large
c. on an interval scale; on an ordinal scale
d. on an ordinal scale; on an interval scale
Stephanie is designing an experiment to investigate the effect of listening to calming music on positive emotions. Even though the usual alpha level is 0.05, Stephanie feels that she wants to adopt more stringent criteria for her study, so she chooses an alpha level of 0.01. This strategy reduces the probability of:
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Standard error
d. p -value error
he central limit theorem states that:
a. even with populations that have dramatically non-normal distributions, the sampling distributions of the mean will be increasingly normal in shape as sample sizes increase.
b. the sampling distributions of the mean will reflect the shape of the underlying population, such that normally distributed samples can be assumed to come from a normally distributed population.
c. the sampling distributions of the mean will reflect the shape of the underlying population only for large sample sizes, such that populations with drastically non-normal distributions will yield sampling distributions that are normal for small to moderate sample sizes.
d. even with populations that have dramatically non-normal distributions, the sampling distributions of the mean will be increasingly normal in shape as sample sizes decrease.
The disadvantage of a small sample size in psychology experiments that expect to measure a small to medium effect is that
a. the study is underpowered, leading to an increased Type I error.
b. the study is underpowered, leading to an increased Type II error.
c. the study is overpowered, leading to an increased Type I error.
d. the study is overpowered, leading to an increased Type II error.
The mode is the most common value in a data set. It is a measure of:
a. range.
b. kurtosis.
c. central tendency.
d. correlation.
The p value measures
a. the probability of the null hypothesis being true given the results that were observed.
b. the probability of not obtaining a statistically significant result if the experiment were repeated.
c. the probability that the obtained result could have occurred by chance.
d. the probability of obtaining a result as extreme as the data if the null hypothesis were true.
The sampling distribution of a mean with a sample size of 50
a. has a smaller standard deviation than a sampling distribution with the same mean of sample size 30.
b. has a smaller standard deviation than a sampling distribution with the same mean of sample size 60.
c. has the same standard deviation with the distribution of individual raw data in the population.
d. has a different standard deviation than a sampling distribution with the same mean of sample size 100 but we do not know whether the standard deviation will be larger or smaller unless we know the standard error.
has a smaller standard deviation than a sampling distribution with the same mean of sample size 30
The sampling distribution of means with a sample size of 1000 obtained from a population with a trimodal distribution (i.e., three modes) will
a. be trimodal.
b. be bimodal.
c. be unimodal.
d. not have a mode.
What is a guaranteed outcome of increasing your sample size?
a. Larger effect sizes and larger p-values
b. Smaller p-values and larger standard errors
c. Smaller p-values and smaller standard errors
d. Larger effect sizes and smaller standard errors
What is meant for data to be normally distributed?
a. It means that the standard deviation is 1.96.
b. It means that the mean, median and mode are the same value.
c. It means that the mean and the mode are the same value, but not necessarily the median.
d. It means that 90% of the values fall within one standard deviation of the mean.
When comparing two studies measuring the same phenomenon, the study with a statistical power of 0.5 is more likely to ________________________ than the study with a statistical power of 0.8.
a. result in a Type II error
b. give you a more precise estimate of the effect
c. produce a statistically significant finding
d. result in a Type I error
Which of the following cannot properly display data on interval scales?
a. Histograms
b. Stem-and-leaf plots
c. Scatterplots
d. Contingency tables
Which of the following groups of data can you compute a confidence interval for?
a. Interval, ratio, nominal
b. Interval, ratio, ordinal
c. Ordinal, ratio, categorical
d. Ordinal, interval, nominal
Which of the following information can you get from inferential statistics that you cannot obtain from descriptive statistics?
a. How much the data differs from an expected value.
b. Whether the data values are skewed.
c. The direction of association between two variables.
d. The average value of the data
Which of the following is a valid reason for focusing on effect size instead of p values when analyzing your results?
a. Effect sizes are more likely to provide you with a statistically significant result than a p value.
b. Effect sizes are immune to flaws in a study's design.
c. Effect sizes are not dependent on the sample size of your data in the way that a p value is.
d. Effect sizes tell you the probability of a result more directly than a p value.
Which of the following is true about confidence intervals?
a. A 95% confidence interval is the same as a p value of .05.
b. The size of a confidence interval does not depend on sample size but depends instead on effect size.
c. A confidence interval can be easily calculated and represented on a graphical display.
d. The upper and lower bounds of a confidence interval are always of the same magnitude
Which of the following is true about Type II error of a test?
a. The probability of a Type II error is not within the control of the researcher.
b. Type II error is the summation of Type I error and statistical power.
c. Type II error is a conditional probability.
d. The probability of a Type II error is same as the alpha level of a test.
Which of the following is true when thinking about statistical significance and effect sizes?
a. A statistically significant effect will always have a meaningful effect size.
b. A statistically significant effect will usually have a large effect size.
c. A large effect size is will always be statistically significant.
d. A statistically non-significant effect can have a large effect size.
Which of the following piece(s) of information is/are available from a stem-and-leaf plot?
a. Mean only
b. Mean and mode only
c. Mean, median and mode
d. Mean and median only
Why should a power analysis be done while designing the study (i.e., before data collection)?
a. A power analysis will allow you to select the most appropriate alpha level for the study depending on your sample size.
b. A power analysis will tell you what effect size you should aim for in the data.
c. A power analysis will prevent misuse of the p value by putting the focus on confidence intervals instead.
d. A power analysis will let you know what sample size you need to have a good chance of detecting an effect if it exists.
A histogram displays the frequency of data that fall within pre-defined ranges.
T
F
A histogram displays the frequency of data that fall within pre-defined ranges.
T
F
Cohen's d is an unstandardized measure of effect size.
T
F
Cramer's V is a correlation-like measure of the association between two categorical variables.
T
F
For sampling distributions, a larger sample size gives a more precise estimate of the mean.
T
F
It is possible to compute the correlation of a binary variable and a continuous variable.
T
F
Once you have calculated statistical power, you can calculate the probability of a Type II error without needing any additional information from the data.
T
F
Outliers are not displayed in a box-and-whisker plot.
T
F
Sampling distributions of means will always tend towards a normal distribution with increasing sample size, even if the distribution of the underlying population is bimodal.
T
F
The interquartile range is a measure of data skewness
T
F
The mean, median and mode are the same in a normal distribution.
T
F
The probability of committing a Type I error is the same as the alpha level of a study.
T
F
The p value is a conditional probability that is independent of sample size.
T
F
The sampling distribution of a mean with sample size 40 has the same spread as the sampling distribution of a mean with sample size 30.
T
F
To be able to conduct a power analysis while designing a study, you first need to have an idea of the size of the effect that you are studying.
T
F
According to your textbook, violation of sphericity when using a repeated measures design is likely to affect which of the following?
a. The probability of committing a Type I error.
b. The probability of committing a Type II error.
c. The probability of increasing findings that reflect the null hypothesis.
d. The probability of having skewed data.
After conducting an independent samples t-test, a researcher finds that the 95% confidence interval estimating the difference between the treatment group and the control group is 2.37 ± 2.85. Which of the following is definitely true?
a. The difference between groups is significant.
b. The difference between groups is not significant.
c. The effect size of the comparison between groups is 3.7.
d. The mean of the treatment group is 2.37.
An assumption in linear regression is the independence of the:
a. differences between predicted and actual dependent variable values.
b. associations between the independent variables and the dependent variable.
c. differences between the elements in the regression equation.
d. associations between the y-intercept and the mean of the dependent variable values.
A researcher analyzed his data using an independent samples t test and found that the 95% confidence interval of the difference between two means ranges from -0.54 to -0.20. Which of the following is true?
a, The means for both groups must be negative.
b. Both groups have a negative association.
c. The means for both groups are not equal to one another.
d. Both groups are different from each other 95% of the time.
A researcher conducted a study looking at how participants' alertness influenced their ability to complete an academic task with, or without coffee. All participants were randomly assigned to either stay up all night or get rest, and subsequently randomly assigned to drink regular coffee or decaffeinated coffee. He finds that there was an interaction between these two factors on the outcome variable. Which of the following is definitely true?
a. With the information provided, there must either be a significant main effect of alertness OR caffeine
b. With the information provided, caffeine and alertness must both be significant main effects
c. With the information provided, neither caffeine nor alertness must necessarily be significant main effects.
d. With the information provided, caffeine and alertness are either both significant main effects, or both not significant main effects.
A researcher is interested in the effect of maternal warmth on academic achievement. He devised a scale that measures warmth and uses student GPA has a measure of academic achievement. He finds that the correlation between the two variables is .60 and has a regression coefficient of .15. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. The researcher can conclude that a one unit increase in maternal warmth will cause a .15 decrease in GPA.
b. Maternal warmth explains 36% of the sample's variation in GPA
c. Students' GPA are lower for mothers who exhibit more warmth
d. The researcher can conclude that a one unit increase in maternal warmth is associated with a .60 increase in GPA.
Charlotte is investigating the influence of multiple factors such as age, gender and income on how much money an individual spends on grocery shopping every month. Which of the following statistical tests best suits her study design?
a. Linear regression
b. Chi-square test
c. Pearson correlation
d. Spearman rank order correlation
Pauline is testing the claim that students from her university have better spatial memory than the average student in the country. She measures the average spatial memory of 50 students and compares it to the national average. What test is she using and what are the degrees of freedom of this test?
a. Independent samples t test; 49
b. One sample t test; 48
c. One sample t test; 49
d. Independent samples t test; 48
Sofia is comparing the effectiveness of a new therapy on depression with a more traditional form of treatment. She compares the prevalence of depression symptoms in 15 patients who have undergone the new therapy with the symptoms of 15 other patients who have undergone the traditional treatment. Which of the following test is most suited to the design of her study?
a. Mixed ANOVA
b. Independent samples t-test
c. Related samples t-test
d. Linear regression
Spearman's rho is more suitable than Pearson's r as a statistic when:
a. the measurement scale is ratio.
b. the measurement scale is ordinal.
c. the measurement scale is categorical.
d. the measurement scale is interval.
The non-parametric alternative of a matched-pairs t test is the:
a. Mann-Whitney U test.
b. Bayesian approach.
c. Wilcoxon signed-rank test.
d. point-biserial correlation.
The non-parametric alternative to the independent groups one-way ANOVA is the:
a. Wilcoxon signed-ranked test
b. Kruskal-Wallis test
c. Welch's t-test
d. Wilcoxon rank-sum test
What is an additional concern in terms of assumptions that one must check when conducting repeated measures design that is not a concern in a between subjects design?
a. homogeneity of variance
b. normality
c.independence
d. sphercity
What is not true in a parametric statistical analysis?
a. Rank order of data points are important
b. The data should be normally distributed
c. The variance is taken into account
d. Sample size does not influence probability of a significant result
What is the total sum of squares?
The table below presents the results of a between subjects one-way ANOVA experiment.
a. 1000
b. 660
c.290
d.80
What is the value of F?
The table below presents the results of a between subjects one-way ANOVA experiment.
a. 8
b. 3
c. 30
d. 3.68
What is the value of the within subjects degrees of freedom?
The table below presents the results of a between subjects one-way ANOVA experiment.
a. 24
b. 1
c. 27
d. 29
When analyzing the data from a study with 100 participants using a one-way between subjects ANOVA, a researcher finds that the total sum of squares is 565 and the within-subjects sum of squares is 120. Which of the following is true?
a. The between-subjects sum of squares is 56.5.
b. The between-subjects sum of squares is 445.
c. The between subjects sum of squares is 685.
d. There is insufficient information to calculate the between-subjects sum of squares.
Which of the following do outliers not affect?
a. Standard deviations
b. Probability of Type I error
c. Confidence intervals
d. None of the above
Which of the following is not a common feature shared by the chi-square test and the independent samples t-test?
a. They both have the assumption of randomly sampling and independence of observations.
b. They both give you a p-value.
c. They both involve taking the degrees of freedom into account.
d. They both can be applied to contingency tables.
Which of the following is not an assumption of the independent samples t-test?
a. The data is interval or ratio.
b. Observations are unrelated.
c. The two populations being compared have equal variances.
d. The effect size is not zero.
Which of the following is true?
a. Independent samples t test is used when your conditions are run within subjects.
b. Effect sizes can be computed for both between subject designs and within subject designs.
c. If you have more than one comparison group and all your conditions are run between subjects, then the test to use is a mixed ANOVA.
d. In a between subjects design with two groups and one factor, you should only use the t test and not a one-way ANOVA.
Which of the following is true?
a. When the p-value is less than 0.05 for an independent samples t test, the 95% confidence interval of the difference between groups will cross zero.
b. When the p-value is less than 0.05 for a one-sample t test, it means that the assumptions of the test have been met.
c. When the p-value is larger than 0.05 for any test, it means that the effect size is zero.
d. When the p value is larger than 0.05 for an independent samples t test, it means that there are no significant differences between groups at the level of alpha = .05.
Which of the following regarding ANOVA and regression are true?
a. Whereas ANOVA is utilized for categorical independent variables, regression is only used for continuous independent variables
b. Any data that is analyzed with ANOVA can be analyzed with regression yielding the same outcomes.
c. ANOVA and regression have little in common. ANOVA is only used to analyze up to two factors at once, whereas regression analyses can include a much larger number of variables.
d. ANOVA can be used to analyze experimental designs that allow for causal claims, whereas regression is only used for correlational analyses that do not afford causal inferences.
According to Cohen (1988), obtaining an h 2 of 0.5 indicates a large effect.
T
F
Linear regression is suitable for examining all types of relationships between variables, as long as the data are on an interval or ratio scale.
T
F
Random sampling and independence of observations are assumptions of many statistical tests that should be taken into account while designing the research.
F
T
Spearman's rho is a more conservative test and requires more assumptions than Pearson's r.
T
F
The h 2 from a between-subjects one-way ANOVA tells you whether or not your results are due to chance.
T
F
The independent samples t test is used to compare the means of unrelated two samples coming from populations that have vastly different variances.
T
F
The Mann-Whitney U test is a statistically more powerful alternative to the independent samples t-test.
T
F
The number of degrees of freedom (df) is the number of experimental data that have contributed to the test statistic.
T
F
The omnibus null hypothesis tested by one-way ANOVA is that the population means for all the groups differ at least once.
T
F
The purpose of objective priors in Bayesian analysis is to provide researchers with a prior distribution that makes no assumptions whatsoever.
F
T
The sums of squares in an ANOVA test measure the amount of variability in the data.
T
F
The Welch's t test is a parametric test that has fewer assumptions than an independent groups t-test.
T
F
To check whether the assumption of equal variances across the different groups holds in order to conduct an ANOVA test, researchers refer to the Levene's test
T
F
A well-written scientific manuscript is usually described having the shape of:
a. A pyramid: it starts specific with a research question, and becomes wider in scope as the authors discuss the research implications of the overall findings.
b. An ice-cream cone: the research starts broadly with a body of literature, but ends with specific findings that are based on the study.
c. An hour-glass: it starts broad, gets specific, and then ends broad.
d. A cylinder: every section should pivot logically on the section before.
(Christie & Gentner, 2010, p. 369)
Which section of the report is this quote likely to be from?
a. Introduction
b. Discussion
c. Results
d. Procedure
Error bars in a graph represent:
a. The amount of variability in the sample
b. The amount of wrong data in each group
c. The amount of human error in the study
d. The size of the effect
Here is an excerpt of a research report:
"Our findings shed light on the nature of human's ability to identify in- and out-groups based on language. Our study is one of the first to examine the effects of early language exposure on in-group bias in 4-month-old infants."
What section of the research report is the excerpt most likely to be in?
a. The introduction
b. The results
c. The discussion
d. The methods
Researchers often discuss the limitations of their study in a research report. Acknowledging the limitations of your study is important, because this practice is intellectually honest and demonstrates a critical eye on one's conclusions. If you were to discuss the limitations of your study, in which section of the research report should it be addressed?
a. Discussion
b. Introduction
c. Abstract
d. Results
Researchers who examined the effects of administering hot chocolate during an exam at various times of day reported the following statement in their paper:We used a 2 (condition: chocolate vs. no chocolate) x 2 (time: morning vs. afternoon) fully between subjects ANOVA to analyze our data on exam score. We found a significant main effect of our condition variable ( F(1,83) = 12.15, p
a. Having hot chocolate during an exam made students perform better
b. The main effect had a large effect
c. Participants in this study were each in 1 of 4 possible conditions
d. The time of day during which the participant takes their exam is not a significant component of the results and has no impact on the participants' performance.
Stella claims that the introduction section of a research report should contain a deep history of the ideas behind the study to convince reviewers that the authors are experts in their field. Is Stella right or wrong?
a. Right, reviewers need to be convinced of the competence of the authors so that the report will be more likely to be accepted for publication.
b. Wrong, the introduction only needs to convey the most relevant points that justify why the research is being done.
c. It depends, if the authors are new to the field, they should write a long introduction section to show their expertise.
d. It depends, if a research question is well motivated, there is usually a long history behind it and should be mentioned.
To find out what previous researchers have done in relation to the current study, the best place to find that information would be in a research report's
a. introduction
b. methods
c. results
d. abstract
What are appropriate ways to make the results section more readable?
a. Run all your statistics, but include as few statistics as possible. For example, specific conditions don't need to be mentioned as only significant findings need to be reported.
b. Divide the analyses into sections addressing particular hypotheses or issues and consider placing some of the key results in tables and/or figures.
c. Use only figures and tables to portray your data, as text form is the hardest to understand.
d. Do not include any statistics, but only tell the reader what the findings actually are. Statistics make the results section difficult to read.
What is necessarily true if you know that a researcher is an author on a certain research article?
a. that he or she was involved in the data analysis
b. that he or she was involved in the inception or development of that study
c. that he or she was did something hands on with the project
d. that he or she was critical on at least one intellectual component of the study
What is necessarily true of a well-written methods section?
a. The research hypotheses are clear
b. The exact results of the study can be replicated
c. Another research team can set up the same apparatus and conduct the same research
d. Another research team is able to conduct a slight variation of the study and find the same results.
What is the main difference between a quantitative and qualitative research report?
a. Qualitative research reports vary to a much greater extent than quantitative research reports in terms of structure and style.
b. Qualitative research reports are less objective because they are focused on the researcher's and participants' subjective experiences.
c. Qualitative research reports are more likely to include statistical analyses.
d. Qualitative research reports are more common than quantitative research reports.
What is the strongest reason for reporting the demographic information of participants in research reports?
a. Readers will be able to assess the reliability of the conclusions.
b. Readers will be able to assess the generalizability of any effects.
c. Readers will be able to assess if you had conducted the study fairly.
d. Readers will be able to assess the claims in your abstract better.
What is usually omitted from the abstract?
a. the history of the research that led to the current program of work
b. the procedure the participant experienced
c. the implications of the work
d. a description of the sample
When reporting your statistics, you should
a. report as many decimals as the statistics program produces.
b. report as many decimals places based on the accuracy of your measurement instrument.
c. provide the bare minimum amount of detail, which is usually just the p-value.
d. find ways to make it as complicated as possible because that makes it look more impressive and valid.
Which if the following is the least valid reason why APA provides guidelines for how manuscripts ought to be prepared and written?
a. It allows researchers to know where they might find information they are looking for in a paper.
b. It ensures that the research is valid and protects against fraud.
c. It provides a standardized format.
d. It results in a more efficient review process of peer-reviewed papers.
Which of the following is a reference in APA format?
a. Rittle-Johnson, Bethany, and Martha Wagner Alibali. "Conceptual and procedural knowledge of mathematics: Does one lead to the other?." Journal of educational psychology 91.1 (1999): 175.
b. Rittle-Johnson, B., & Alibali, M. W. (1999). Conceptual and procedural knowledge of mathematics: Does one lead to the other? Journal of educational psychology, 91(1), 175.
c. Rittle-Johnson B, Alibali MW. Conceptual and procedural knowledge of mathematics: Does one lead to the other?. Journal of educational psychology. 1999 Mar;91(1):175.
d. Rittle-Johnson, B. and Alibali, M.W., 1999. Conceptual and procedural knowledge of mathematics: Does one lead to the other?. Journal of educational psychology, 91(1), p.175.
Which of the following is not a goal of the introduction of a quantitative research report?
a. Explain the purpose of the research
b. Explain why the research is important
c. Explain how the research relates to existing knowledge in the field
d. Explain the procedure of the study
Which of the following is not a trait of good scientific writing, according to your textbook?
a. It should be done in a relatively short and brief manner without too much embellishing.
b. It should be done in a way that impresses or intrigues the reader and not be boring.
c. It should be open and allow the reader to interpret the true meaning of the science without being overly direct.
d. It should be interesting to read.
Which of the following is not considered a significant enough contribution to be an author on a paper as defined by the APA (Graf et al., 2007)?
a. Suggesting an implication of the results
b. Coming up with the research question that motivated the study
c. Writing up the methods and results sections
d. Collecting all the data reported in the paper
Which of the following is not included in the section on participants in a research report?
a. Demographic information of the participants
b. How many participants dropped out of the study
c. How many participants were excluded from the study
d. The participants' responses to the experimental manipulation
Which of the following is true about data presentation in research reports?
a. Figures should include all the data you present.
b. Having too much information in one figure can be overwhelming to readers.
c. Figures should never repeat information that is already in text form.
d. Tables and figures should be avoided at all costs.
Which of the following is usually not included in the abstract of a research report?
a. Purpose of the study
b. Participants
c. Interpretation of results
d. Acknowledgements to certain individuals who assisted with the project
Which of the following ways of reporting the omnibus ANOVA analysis follows the APA format?
a. F (1, 14) = 26.40, p< .001
b. F(1,14) = 26.40, p<.001
c. F (1, 14) = 26.40, p<.001
d. F( 1, 14) = 26.40, p<.001
Which section of the research report is likely to have the most information to help you set-up the same study and test the findings again (i.e., conduct a replication)?
a. Introduction
b. Methods
c. Results
d. Discussion
Why is it important for research reports to be concise?
a. Longer reports are always more boring.
b. Shorter reports suggest that the findings are easier to understand and more likely to be valid.
c. Shorter reports are often cheaper to publish and take less time for readers to read.
d. Longer reports are usually worse in quality, and thus reviewers always go for shorter reports.
A(n) ____________________ is one of the most common formats for a presentation at a conference, but being part of a(n) _____________________ is seen as more prestigious.
a. oral presentation; poster presentation
b. keynote address; oral presentation
c. poster presentation; symposium
d. symposium; poster presentation
An outcome of the review process being imperfect is that it requires
a. editors who have a broad and deep perspective on the field.
b. reviewers who are willing to review papers for a cheap price.
c. editors who have a lot of controversial ideas.
d. reviewers who have relatively little experience to be more objective.
A reason why fraud is hard to detect is because
a. reviewers are not experts in the specific field.
b. editors are not experts in the specific field.
c. reviewers generally do not look at the results section and take the findings for face value.
d. reviewers often don't have access to the raw data.
For very specific research that might only attract a narrow breadth of audience, which of the following might be the best options to get critical feedback?
a. Submit your work for publication at a journal that attracts a wide audience, such as Psychological Science.
b. Submit your work to a specialized conference.
c. Submit your work to a general conference.
d. Submit your work to an undergraduate conference with a wide audience.
If you do not agree with a reviewer's feedback for a specific change or revision, what should you do?
a. Make the change anyway because you have no choice.
b. Make the change and explain in the manuscript that the change was due to a reviewer's remark so your audience knows what the reviewer's comments entailed.
c. Contact the reviewer and ask why the change was recommended.
d. You may choose to not make a change, but should convincingly articulate your reason to the editor in charge.
In general, to maximize your chances of getting your paper ultimately accepted, you should
a. ask the editors for only 1 reviewer.
b. explain to the editor why you think the journal is a good fit by including it in the introduction of your paper.
c. take reviewer comments and feedback seriously when revising your paper.
d. select the most valuable comments and only use those to ensure that you are being selective.
Jill is working on a senior honor's thesis and has collected almost all her data but is in the preliminary stages of her data analysis. Her first set of analyses has yielded consistent results. One of the biggest conferences in her field is coming up and the deadline is very soon. Although Jill has not completed her project yet, the data collection and analyses will be complete before the conference is to start. Which of the following is most appropriate?
a. Jill should submit her preliminary analyses as a poster presentation as preliminary findings can be submitted to conferences.
b. Jill should submit her preliminary analyses as a publication to a journal as preliminary findings can be submitted for publication.
c. Jill should wait for the next time the conference meets.
d. Jill should submit her preliminary analyses as a keynote address as preliminary findings can be submitted to conferences.
Journal citation reports serve which of the following purposes?
a. They are like impact factors but take into account journals indexed in the Web of Science.
b. They are like impact factors, but instead focus on the author's rankings instead of the publication's rankings.
c. They are like impact factors, but take into account the number of authors on a publication.
d. They are like journal rankings, and also take into account how difficult the studies were to conduct.
Journals' impact factors measures
a. the rate at which publications in the journals are considered to be highly valid.
b. the rate at which other researchers cite papers from the journal.
c. the amount of researchers who publish in the journal who are considered "highly impactful."
d. The number of impacts the journal publications makes in the media.
Kevin is working on a manuscript with a revise and re-submit for further consideration status. He is only accepting feedback that he agrees with. He thinks that the reviewers are wrong and misunderstood parts of the manuscript. Which of the following is likely to occur?
a. It is almost certain that Kevin's revisions will lead his manuscript to be rejected.
b. It is almost certain that Kevin's revisions will still be accepted because the editor sides with the author.
c. Kevin would need to make clear and reasonable arguments for why he is not accepting certain requests for changes or feedback from the reviewers to increase his chances of getting his paper published.
d. Kevin would need to make arguments for why he is not accepting reviewer comments and feedback, but this is not likely to change his chances of getting the manuscript published.
Not all problems with data in manuscripts come from authors committing fraud. It can also be
a. data entry or management errors.
b. reviewer fraud.
c. editors misinterpreting findings.
d. authors' predictions being contradicted.
One of the most important factors to consider when submitting to a conference is
a. where the conference is meeting that year.
b. who the anticipated audience will be.
c. the number of attendees expected.
d. how many coauthors you have
Posters presentations include _______________ of the sections found in a formal paper, and generally should present data _________________.
a. some; in text format
b. all; in text format
c. none; visually
d. all; visually
Short talks that last less than 10 minutes involving only a few slides on key findings are generally called
a. oral presentations.
b. paper blitzes.
c. data blitzes.
d. symposiums.
The editor is likely to send your manuscript out for review if
a. there are enough reviewers that they can pay to review your work.
b. the match between your manuscript and the scope of the journal is strong.
c. your manuscript has more than one author.
d. reviewers like you.
The sixth edition of the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association provides information on
a. organization of content.
b. how to format your paper.
c. writing style.
d. all of the above.
When preparing a submission to the manuscript, you should include a cover letter that serves the purpose to
a. describe your procedure in detail.
b. briefly discuss why the journal is a good fit.
c. present a description of the background literature and what the field has already accomplished to situate your research in the context of existing work.
d. tell the editor whether or not you think reviewers are necessary for your submission.
When presenting a poster, it is generally a good idea to prepare which of the following?
a. A short and brief description as that is all your audience will have time for.
b. A relatively long presentation since the audience will likely all have time to stand and read your poster in detail.
c. Three formats: a short version, a medium version, and a longer version of your presentation.
d. All the possible questions that your audience might ask, since that is all you can prepare for.
When reviewing a paper, reviewers are tasked with __________________ and ________________.
a. checking the raw data; making a decision for the editor on whether the paper should be accepted
b. providing the authors with feedback; making a suggestion to the editor with a decision on whether the manuscript should be accepted
c. checking the raw data; providing authors with feedback
d. contacting the authors; providing the editor with feedback
When writing for the journals Nature or Science, it is generally true that
a. you will be evaluated by and writing for experts in your particular field.
b. you will be evaluated by only the editor since he or she is well-versed in all areas of science.
c. you will be writing for a broader audience and the style is often different from submitting to a more specialized journal.
d. you will be evaluated by at least six reviewers and two editors over two rounds of revisions because these journals only publish the best of the best
Which of the following about the submission process is true?
a. You only need to address feedback from reviewers as you see fit for your research.
b. Receiving a "revise and resubmit" is not very meaningful. In fact, you are very likely to get rejected in the second round even if you address all the changes that the reviewers suggested.
c. Receiving a "revise and resubmit" decision is not necessarily a negative outcome. In fact, it is an opportunity to significantly improve your manuscript.
d. Reviewers generally don't mind if you don't use the APA format in psychology. Editors are still going to consider your paper and give you constructive feedback, as long as you get it right by the time the paper is accepted for publication.
Which of the following best describes an editorial board?
a. It consists of non-researchers who help the journal make financial and executive decisions.
b. It consists of researchers who assist with administrative tasks, such as editing, printing, and organization, for the journal.
c. It consists of researchers who play a role in deciding which submissions get accepted and which ones get rejected.
d. It consists of community members who assess the readability of the journal for the general public.
Which of the following is not a reason why the review process is imperfect?
a. Sometimes, fraud is not detectable at the review stage.
b. Generally, reviewers give critical comments that make the publication stronger.
c. Sometimes, editors might select poor reviewers for a manuscript.
d. Generally, the review process can take some time.
Which of the following is true about journal rankings?
a. They change only every five years when the rankings are re-evaluated.
b. They should be the most important determining factor for where you submit your work.
c. They vary depending if psychology and psychiatry journals are combined into the rankings.
d. Non-scientist members of the community rank them.
Which of the following is true regarding submissions to conferences?
a. You should generally submit to the lowest status conference since you will get the largest audience base to give you feedback.
b. You should generally try submitting to the highest status conference you can.
c. Conferences don't really have a broad range of statuses, so submitting to the closest one is always the best option.
d. Conferences are highly specialized and there are no conferences for broad audiences. Therefore, it is really easy to decide which conference to submit to.
