Worksheets23-4
Total questions: 139
Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins
The number 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
090 and 270 magnetic
090 and 270 true
009 and 027 true
The number 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
008 and 026 true
080 and 260 true
080 and 260 magnetic
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure to use at a non-controlled airport?
Make all turns to the left
Comply with FAA traffic pattern established for the airport
Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airpot boundary
The recommended entry position to an airpot traffic pattern is
45 to the base leg just below traffic pattern position
To enter 45 at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude
To cross directly over the airport at the traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind
(Refute to figure 66) While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half circle is made on one side of the road and on the other side, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn
1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn
4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn
4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn
(Refuse to figure 62) In flying the rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90
Corners 1-4
Corners 1-2
Corners 2-4
If an emergency situation requires downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster
Airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll
Gourd speed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point
Ground speed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of understanding the desired touchdown point
(Refer to figure 49) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing
Left handed traffic and runway 18
Left hand traffic and runway 22
Right hand turn and runway 18
(Refer to figure 49) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from
Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right
Runway directly into the wind
(Refer to figure 48) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
Multiple heliport
Closed runway
Stabilized area
(Refer to figure 50) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
Right-hand for Runway 9 and left-handed for Runway 27
Left-hand for runway 18 and right-hand for runway 36
Left-hand for runway 36 and right-hand for runway 18
(Refer to figure 50) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
North of airpot
Southeast of the airport
South if the airport
(Refer to figure 50) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will
Be with the right-quartering headwind
Be with the left-quartering headwind
Be with a right-quartering tailwind
(Refer to figure 50) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind code in the segmented circle?
Right hand traffic on runway 9
Left hand traffic on runway 36
Right hand traffic on runway 18
(Refer to figure 48) That portion of the runway identified-by the letter A May be used for
Landing
Taxing and takeoff
Taxiing and landing
(Refer to figure 48) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position A
Takeoffs may be started at position A runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B
Runway 30 equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft
(Refer to Figure 48) what is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
A may be used for taxi and takeoff; E may be used only as an overrun
A May be used only for taxi; E May be used for all operations except landings
A May be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landing; E May be sued only as an overrun
(Refer to figure 49) the arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
May be used only for taxiing
Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxing and takeoff
Is usable for taxing, takeoff, and landing
(Refer to figure 65) which of the following signs indicates a runway exit sign to a specified taxiway?
Illustration J
Illustration F
Illustration K
(Refer to figure 65) which of the following signs is a taxiway location?
Illustration E
Illustration F
Illustration
(Refer to figure 65) which of the following signs indicates areas where entry is prohibited?
Illustration c
Illustration d
Illustration m
When approaching a taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
May continue taxing
Should not cross lines without ATC clearance
Should continue taxiing until all parts of the airplane have crossed the lines
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hood position sign?
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway
Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway
Denotes intersecting runway
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway
Identifies direction to take-off runways
Identifies runway on which the aircraft is located
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
Green, yellow, and white flashes
White and green alternating flashes
Two quick, which flashes between green flashes
How can a military airport be identified at night?
White flashing lights with steady green at the same location
Dual peaked(two quick) white flashes between green flashes
Alternate white and green light flashes
A lighted heliport May be identified by a
Green, yellow, and white rotating beacon
Flashing yellow lights
Blue lighted square landing area
An airports rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
The Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation
There are obstructions on the airport
That weather at the airport located in class F airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway severed by a visual slope indicator shall
Maintain a 3 good until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
Stay high until the runway can be reach in a power off landing
(Refer to figure 47) illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
Below the glide slope
On the glide slope
Above the glide slope
(Refer to future 47) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
Above the glide slope
Below the glide slope
Off course to the left
(Refer to figure 47) while on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
Below the glide slope
Above the glide slope
On the glide slope
A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a
Pink signal light
Green signal light
Red signal light
An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
A green signal light
A white signal light
An amber signal light
An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
A green signal light
A white signal light
An amber signal light
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
A two white lights and two red lights
For white lights
Three white lights and one red light
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
Steady white ligh
Pulsating red light
Pulsating white light
Airpot taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
Blue omnidirectional lights
White directional lights
Alternate red and green lights
To set high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click if
One time within four seconds
Three times within three seconds
Five times within five seconds
What is the minimum Vizza Bility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short clearance?
One statute mile
3 statute miles
Three nautical miles
Who should not participate in the land and hold short operations program?
Military pilots
Recreational pilots only
Student pilots
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance?
Second in command
Pilot in command
Owner/operator
When should pilots decline a land and hold short clearance?
When it will compromise safety
Pilots cannot decline clearance
Only when the tower operator concurs
Where is the “available lending distance” data published for an airport that utilizes land and hold short operations published?
Aeronautical information manual
Airport/facility Director
14 CFR Part 91, general operating and flight rules
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
Lines of longitude are parallel to the equator
Lines of longitude cross the equator at right angles
0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England
(Refer to figure 21, area 2) which airport is located approximately 47°31’00”N latitude and 100°54’30”W longitude
Johnson
Linrud
Turtle Lake
(Refer to figure 21, area 2) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport
47°24’N-75°58’W
36°48’N-76°01’W
36°24’N-76°01’W
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
3000 feet AGL
1000 feet AGL
2000 feet AGL
(Refer to figure 26, area 3) when flying over Arrowood, national wildlife refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than
2000 feet AGL
3000 feet AGL
2500 feet AGL
What is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts?
Airports with control towers under line class, a, D, and C are shown in blue; class D and E airspace are shown in magenta
Airport with control towers, underline class, C, D, and E are shown in magenta
Airports with control towers under line class B, C, D, and E are shown in blue
(Refer to figure 21, area 2) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is
123.0 MHz
122.8 MHz
122.9 MHz
(Refer to figure 22, area 2; and figure 31) at Couer D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a common traffic advisory frequency(CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?
122.8 MHz
122.05 MHz
122.1/108.8 MHz
(Refute to figure 21) Which public use airport is indicated as having fuel?
Garrison (area 2)
Mercer County Regional Airport(area 3)
Minot Intl.(area 1)
(Refer to figure 22, area 2) at Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as Common Traffic Advisory Frequency(CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
135.075 MHz
122.05 MHz
122.8 MHz
(Refer to figure 22, area 2; and figure 31) Which is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Corey D’Alene to request fuel?
122.1/108.8 MHz
122.8 MHz
135.075 MHz
(Refer to figure 25 area 3) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency(CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
127.25 MHz
122.95 MHz
126.35 MHz
(Refer to figure 26, area 4) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is
123.0 MHz
122.0 MHz
123.6 MHz
(Refer to figure 25, area 2) The control tower frequency of Addison Airport is
133.4 MHz
126.0 MHz
123.95 MHz
(Refer to figure 26, area 5) Which is the CTAF/ UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airpot?
123.6 MHz
122.8 MHz
122.0 MHz
(Refer to figure 20, area 2) The elevation of Chesapeake Regional Airport is
36 feet
19 feet
360 feet
(Refer to figure 25, area 5) The navigation facility at Dallas-FT Worth International is a
VOR/DME
VORTAC
VOR
(Refer to figure 21) On what frequency can pilot receive hazardous inflight weather advisory services( HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?
117.1 MHz
122.0 MHz
118.0 MHz
(Refer to figure 20, area 5) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3008 feet MSL
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3000 feet AGL
Unmarked blimp hangers at 300 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 20, area 5) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
Compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads airport
Visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial call up to Norfolk approach control
Compulsory reporting point for Norfolk class C airspace
(Refer to Figure 23) the flag symbols at Statesboro Bulloch county airport, Claxton, Evans, county airport, and Ridgeland airport are
Airports with Special traffic patterns
Visual checkpoints to identify position for initial call up prior to entering Savannah class C airspace
Outer boundaries of Savannah class C airspace
(Refer to figure 21) the terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot and Audubon Lake varies from
2000 feet to 3000 feet MSL
2000 feet to 2700 feet MSL
Sea level to 2000 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 23, area 3) what is the height of the lightened obstacle approximately seven nautical miles south west of Savannah international
1500 feet MSL
1548 feet MSL
1531 feet AGL
(Refer to figure 25, area 8) what minimum altitude is required to fly over the lighted obstruction in the congested area west of Cedar Hill
3549 feet MSL
3349 feet MSL
2555 feet MSL
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
3 miles
5 miles
1 mile
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
3 miles visibility and clear of clouds
1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
During operations outside, controlled airspace at altitude of more than 1200 feet AGL, but less than 10000 feet, MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
1 mile
5 miles
3 miles
Outside controlled airspace at altitude of more than 1200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds for VFR flight at night is.
1500 feet
500 feet
1000 feet
Typically class E airspace extends upwards from 700 feet AGL, 1200 feet AGL, or
The surface up, but not including 10000 feet MSL
The surface up, but not including 14500 MSL
The surface up, but not including 18000 feet MSL
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include class E airspace extending
upward from the surface up to and including 18000 MSL
Upward from 1200 feet above the surface up to and including 17999 feet MSL
upward from 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17999 feet MSL
The width of the Federal Airways from either side of the centerline is
6 nautical miles
8 nautical miles
4 nautical miles
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
Class D
Class C
Class B
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
1000 feet and 3 miles
1000 and 1 mile
2500 and 3 miles
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport
the number of airport that lie within the Class D airspace
the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
associated Flight Service Station
primary airports control tower
satellite airports UNICOM
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
the airspace designation normally will not change
The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as the weather observer or automated weather system is available
The airspace reverts to class E or a combination of Class E and Class G airspace the hours the tower is not in operation
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D only
when the weather minimums are below basic VFR
when the associated control tower is in operation
when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
4000 feet AGL
1200 feet AGL
3000 feet AGL
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
20 nautical miles
5 nautical miles
15 nautical miles
Two-way radio communication must be established with an Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
Class G
Class E
Class C
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 transponder, and an encoding altimeter
Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096 transponder
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 transponder, and DME
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from the satellite airport within Class C airspace?
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff
The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure
The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace
All operations within class C airspace must be in
compliance with ATC clearances and instructions
accordance with instrument flight rules
an aircraft equipped with a 4096 transponder with Mode C encoding capability
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
contact fss for the traffic advisories
contact the tower and request permission to enter
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within class B airspace?
private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
recreational pilot certificate
private pilot certificate with an instrument rating
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
class B airspace and within 30 miles of Class B primary airport
class E airspace below 10000 feet MSL
Class D airspace
In which airspace are VR flights prohibited?
Class A
Class B
Class C
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
250 Knotts
200 Knotts
180 Knotts
When flying under VFR corridor designated through class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized os
250 Knotts
200 Knotts
230 Knotts
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which is a person may operate an aircraft below 10000 feet MSL?
288 Knotts
200 Knotts
250 Knotts
Unless otherwise authorized, two-radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings and takeoffs
at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions
at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR
at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
class D and Class E(below 10000 feet MSL)
Class A, B(and within 30nm of the class B primary airport), and class C
Class D and Class G(below 10000 feet MSL)
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flights is
2000 feet
1000 feet
1500 feet
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10000 feet MSL
4 miles
3 miles
500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontally
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10000 feet MSL and more than 1200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
3 miles
1 mile
5 miles
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless
ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile
ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 miles
flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
Automated Flight Service Station
Air Route Traffic Control Center
Air Traffic Control Tower
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of the aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
at least 3 miles and the aircraft and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1000 feet
(Refer to Figure 25) At which airports is fixed-wing special VFR not authorized?
Dalla-Fort Worth International Airport and Dallas Love Field
Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spikes
Addison and Dallas Executive
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder
The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace
Under what conditions, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
when flying on airways with an ATC clearance
regulations do not allow this
with the controlling agency's authorization
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
filed an IFR flight plan
received prior authorization from the controlling agency
received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base
(Refer to figure 20, area 4) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?
Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as ariel gunnery or guided missiles
military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers
high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
all piltos
the controlling agency
Air Traffic Control
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area(MOA)?
operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA
exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA
(Refer to figure 26, area 2) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity
military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight manuevers
unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles
(Refer to Figure 21, area 2) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?
IFR during flights above 1500 AGL at speeds in excess of 250 Knots
Instrument training flights below 1500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 Knots
VFR training flights above 1500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 Knots
(Refer to figure 26, area 2) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1200 feet AGL and 1000 feet MSL
1 mile and 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, 2000 feet horizontally from clouds
3 miles and 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2000 feet horizontally from clouds
1 mile and clear of clouds
(Refer to figure 26, area 3) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport
Class G airspace- surface up to but not including 18000 feet MSL
Class G airspace- surface up to but not including 1200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1200 feet AGL up to but not including 18000 feet MSL
Class G airspace- surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E - 700 feet to 14500 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 26, area 5) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying class E airspace
Class E airspace from the surface to 1200 feet MSL
Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL
(Refer to figure 25, area 7) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney is controlled from the surface to
2900 feet MSL
2500 feet MSL
700 feet AGL
(Refer to figure 25, area 4) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
Class B airspace to 10000 feet MSL
Class C airspace to 5000 feet MSL
Class D airspace to 3200 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 23, area 3) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area(outer circle)?
1300 feet AGL
1300 feet MSL
1700 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 20, area 1) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?
Mode C transponder and two-way radio
Mode C transponder, omni receiver, and DME
Mode C transponder and omni receiver
(Refer to figure 22, area 3) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are
1200 feet AGL to 17999 feet MSL
700 feet MSL to 12500 feet MSL
7500 feet MSL to 17999 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 25, area 4) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
4000 feet MSL
at the surface
3200 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 25, area 2) The floor of Class B airspace at Air Park-Dallas Airport(F69) is
3000 feet MSL
at the surface
3100 feet MSL
(Refer to figure 26, area 2) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are
3 miles and clear clouds
1 mile and 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2000 feet horizontally from clouds
1 mile and clear of clouds
No person may us an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceeding
24 calendar months
6 calendar months
12 calendar months
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2006. The next inspection will be due no later than
September 30, 2007
September 30, 2008
September 1, 2008
When operating under VFR below 18000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
1200
7700
7600
Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squak which VFR code?
1200
7700
7600
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
0000
4096
1200
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
7500,7600,7700
1200,1500,7000
0700,1700,7000
(Refer to figure 52) Which type of radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard seperation
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do no touch, or 1000 feet vertical separation
Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerets
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
mandatory radar service provide by the Automated Radar Terminal System(ARTS) program
safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
wind-shear warning at participating airports
TSRA Service in the terminal radar program provides
sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircaft
IFR separation( 1000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral ) between all aircraft
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's
true course
ground track
magnetic heading
An ATC radar facility issue the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090 "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND" Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
West
South
East
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360 "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND" Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
Northwest
Northeast
Southwest
An ATC radar facility issue the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2'OCLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND" Where should a pilot look for traffic?
Between directly ahead and 90 to the right
Between directly ahead and 90 to the left
Between directly behind and 90 to the right
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND" Where should the pilot look for traffic?
West
North
South
Automatic Terminal Information Service(ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
nonessential information to reduce frequency of congestion
noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas
pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity of terrain or to an obstruction
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
Weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums
The sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted
The ceiling is at least 5000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
(Refer to figure 27) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?
0930 MST
1030 MST
1130 MST
